Microsoft SC-900 Practice Test 59
Question 580
An endpoint hardening project aims to reduce script-based abuse without relying solely on antivirus signatures. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.
- Use Microsoft Defender for Endpoint attack surface reduction rules to restrict risky endpoint behaviors where supported.
- A targeted remediation clears the relevant security recommendation without loosening the intended standard.
- Inspect assigned compliance standards, evaluated controls and their associated resource assessments.
- Inspect ASR rule configuration, audit or block events and exclusions for the affected endpoints.
- Use Microsoft Sentinel incidents and investigation context to triage related alerts and affected entities.
Explanation
Correct Answers
A:Use Microsoft Defender for Endpoint attack surface reduction rules to restrict risky endpoint behaviors where supported. This is the directly applicable response. ASR rules reduce common exploit paths on endpoints and can be tested in audit mode before enforcement.
D:Inspect ASR rule configuration, audit or block events and exclusions for the affected endpoints. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. ASR rules reduce common exploit paths on endpoints and can be tested in audit mode before enforcement.
Incorrect Answers
B:A targeted remediation clears the relevant security recommendation without loosening the intended standard. This item belongs to a different control area: Cloud security policies and recommendations. Its appropriate purpose is: A recommendation identifies a technical improvement; a documented policy or assigned standard provides expectations for assessed resources. For the stated case, Endpoint attack surface reduction is the closer match. ASR rules reduce common exploit paths on endpoints and can be tested in audit mode before enforcement.
C:Inspect assigned compliance standards, evaluated controls and their associated resource assessments. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Cloud regulatory compliance. Its appropriate purpose is: Regulatory compliance views relate assessed technical controls to frameworks; they do not by themselves certify organizational legal compliance. For the stated case, Endpoint attack surface reduction is the closer match. ASR rules reduce common exploit paths on endpoints and can be tested in audit mode before enforcement.
E:Use Microsoft Sentinel incidents and investigation context to triage related alerts and affected entities. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Sentinel incident investigation. Its appropriate purpose is: Incident management helps investigate and coordinate alerts; it differs from automatic enforcement through a playbook. For the stated case, Endpoint attack surface reduction is the closer match. ASR rules reduce common exploit paths on endpoints and can be tested in audit mode before enforcement.
Question 581
A regional workforce connects to cloud applications from home networks and unmanaged locations. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.
- Access decisions re-evaluate context and give only the privileges required for an approved task.
- Examine risk registers, accountable owners, policies, regulatory mappings and control test records.
- Review identities, sign-in activity, access entitlements and whether resource decisions use identity signals.
- Protect and verify identities as a primary perimeter for cloud access rather than relying only on a building network.
- Design several complementary security layers across identity, network, application and data boundaries.
Explanation
Correct Answers
C:Review identities, sign-in activity, access entitlements and whether resource decisions use identity signals. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Cloud users and workloads access resources from varied networks, making authenticated identity and authorization central boundaries.
D:Protect and verify identities as a primary perimeter for cloud access rather than relying only on a building network. This is the directly applicable response. Cloud users and workloads access resources from varied networks, making authenticated identity and authorization central boundaries.
Incorrect Answers
A:Access decisions re-evaluate context and give only the privileges required for an approved task. This item belongs to a different control area: Zero Trust. Its appropriate purpose is: Zero Trust does not automatically trust a user, device or connection because it originates on a corporate network. For the stated case, Identity as security perimeter is the closer match. Cloud users and workloads access resources from varied networks, making authenticated identity and authorization central boundaries.
B:Examine risk registers, accountable owners, policies, regulatory mappings and control test records. This item belongs to a different control area: Governance risk and compliance. Its appropriate purpose is: Governance sets direction, risk management evaluates exposure, and compliance verifies obligations against controls. For the stated case, Identity as security perimeter is the closer match. Cloud users and workloads access resources from varied networks, making authenticated identity and authorization central boundaries.
E:Design several complementary security layers across identity, network, application and data boundaries. This item belongs to a different control area: Defense in depth. Its appropriate purpose is: Defense in depth reduces reliance on any one protection; it is not a claim that all risks can be eliminated. For the stated case, Identity as security perimeter is the closer match. Cloud users and workloads access resources from varied networks, making authenticated identity and authorization central boundaries.
Question 582
A finance team finds that employee passwords have been reused and wants to limit successful attacker sign-ins. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?
- Inspect synchronization status, source directories and matching cloud user identities.
- Inspect authentication method registration, authentication details and MFA satisfaction in sign-in logs.
- Inspect subscription or resource role assignments and effective permissions for the target resource.
- Inspect policy targeting, device compliance information and sign-in evaluation details.
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:Inspect authentication method registration, authentication details and MFA satisfaction in sign-in logs. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. MFA combines different factor categories to reduce account takeover from a stolen password alone.
Incorrect Answers
A:Inspect synchronization status, source directories and matching cloud user identities. This item belongs to a different control area: Hybrid identity. Its appropriate purpose is: Hybrid identity coordinates on-premises and cloud identity management; it does not automatically move every workload to Azure. For the stated case, Multifactor authentication is the closer match. MFA combines different factor categories to reduce account takeover from a stolen password alone.
C:Inspect subscription or resource role assignments and effective permissions for the target resource. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure resource RBAC versus Entra roles. Its appropriate purpose is: Azure RBAC governs Azure resource permissions, whereas Microsoft Entra roles govern directory services. For the stated case, Multifactor authentication is the closer match. MFA combines different factor categories to reduce account takeover from a stolen password alone.
D:Inspect policy targeting, device compliance information and sign-in evaluation details. This item belongs to a different control area: Conditional Access compliant devices. Its appropriate purpose is: Conditional Access combines signals and access controls; device compliance comes from the supported management and enrollment state. For the stated case, Multifactor authentication is the closer match. MFA combines different factor categories to reduce account takeover from a stolen password alone.
Question 583
A platform team has hundreds of cloud assets and wants to identify risky public exposure and missing safeguards. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?
- Use Azure DDoS Protection for protection of exposed Azure public IP resources against volumetric network attacks where appropriate.
- Enable relevant Cloud Security Posture Management capabilities to identify cloud configuration risks and improve posture.
- Use Microsoft Sentinel incidents and investigation context to triage related alerts and affected entities.
- Apply Azure Web Application Firewall to inspect HTTP and HTTPS requests for common web-application attacks.
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:Enable relevant Cloud Security Posture Management capabilities to identify cloud configuration risks and improve posture. This is the directly applicable response. CSPM evaluates configuration and exposure risk proactively, rather than solely responding to an endpoint malware alert.
Incorrect Answers
A:Use Azure DDoS Protection for protection of exposed Azure public IP resources against volumetric network attacks where appropriate. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure DDoS Protection. Its appropriate purpose is: DDoS Protection addresses distributed denial-of-service traffic aimed at network services; it does not replace a web-application rule engine. For the stated case, Cloud Security Posture Management is the closer match. CSPM evaluates configuration and exposure risk proactively, rather than solely responding to an endpoint malware alert.
C:Use Microsoft Sentinel incidents and investigation context to triage related alerts and affected entities. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Sentinel incident investigation. Its appropriate purpose is: Incident management helps investigate and coordinate alerts; it differs from automatic enforcement through a playbook. For the stated case, Cloud Security Posture Management is the closer match. CSPM evaluates configuration and exposure risk proactively, rather than solely responding to an endpoint malware alert.
D:Apply Azure Web Application Firewall to inspect HTTP and HTTPS requests for common web-application attacks. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure Web Application Firewall. Its appropriate purpose is: A WAF targets application-layer HTTP risks such as injection, unlike basic network port filtering. For the stated case, Cloud Security Posture Management is the closer match. CSPM evaluates configuration and exposure risk proactively, rather than solely responding to an endpoint malware alert.
Question 584
A threat report shows users opening suspicious links despite initial message delivery. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?
- Security owners see prioritized exposures and applicable workload detections in the expected scope.
- Malicious web request patterns are blocked or logged while legitimate web requests continue.
- Supported malicious link access is blocked or warned according to the configured policy.
- The compliance dashboard reflects assessment status and supporting remediation evidence for selected standards.
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:Supported malicious link access is blocked or warned according to the configured policy. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. Safe Links addresses URL-based threats; it does not inspect attached files for malware.
Incorrect Answers
A:Security owners see prioritized exposures and applicable workload detections in the expected scope. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Cloud unified security posture. Its appropriate purpose is: Defender for Cloud combines CSPM and cloud workload protection capabilities; it is not the same as a single network security group. For the stated case, Defender for Office 365 Safe Links is the closer match. Safe Links addresses URL-based threats; it does not inspect attached files for malware.
B:Malicious web request patterns are blocked or logged while legitimate web requests continue. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure Web Application Firewall. Its appropriate purpose is: A WAF targets application-layer HTTP risks such as injection, unlike basic network port filtering. For the stated case, Defender for Office 365 Safe Links is the closer match. Safe Links addresses URL-based threats; it does not inspect attached files for malware.
D:The compliance dashboard reflects assessment status and supporting remediation evidence for selected standards. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Cloud regulatory compliance. Its appropriate purpose is: Regulatory compliance views relate assessed technical controls to frameworks; they do not by themselves certify organizational legal compliance. For the stated case, Defender for Office 365 Safe Links is the closer match. Safe Links addresses URL-based threats; it does not inspect attached files for malware.
Question 585
A retiring employee's departure date should initiate consistent access removal and notification tasks. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?
- Apply Microsoft Entra Password Protection policies and custom banned-password screening where supported.
- Automate defined joiner, mover and leaver identity tasks using Microsoft Entra Lifecycle Workflows where supported.
- Configure and monitor an appropriate supported Microsoft Entra Connect synchronization method for hybrid users.
- Enable self-service password reset with verified registration and appropriate identity checks for eligible users.
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:Automate defined joiner, mover and leaver identity tasks using Microsoft Entra Lifecycle Workflows where supported. This is the directly applicable response. Lifecycle workflows automate repeatable identity onboarding and offboarding tasks; review of ongoing entitlements remains a separate control.
Incorrect Answers
A:Apply Microsoft Entra Password Protection policies and custom banned-password screening where supported. This item belongs to a different control area: Password protection. Its appropriate purpose is: Password protection blocks weak password choices; it does not replace MFA or a full identity risk policy. For the stated case, Lifecycle workflows is the closer match. Lifecycle workflows automate repeatable identity onboarding and offboarding tasks; review of ongoing entitlements remains a separate control.
C:Configure and monitor an appropriate supported Microsoft Entra Connect synchronization method for hybrid users. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Entra Connect synchronization. Its appropriate purpose is: Directory synchronization must be scoped and observed; enabling it without verifying source objects can create identity drift. For the stated case, Lifecycle workflows is the closer match. Lifecycle workflows automate repeatable identity onboarding and offboarding tasks; review of ongoing entitlements remains a separate control.
D:Enable self-service password reset with verified registration and appropriate identity checks for eligible users. This item belongs to a different control area: Self-service password reset. Its appropriate purpose is: SSPR helps account recovery; it does not grant additional resource authorization or bypass verification. For the stated case, Lifecycle workflows is the closer match. Lifecycle workflows automate repeatable identity onboarding and offboarding tasks; review of ongoing entitlements remains a separate control.
Question 586
A university has dozens of cloud apps and wants centrally managed student sign-ins instead of local passwords in each app. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.
- Access decisions re-evaluate context and give only the privileges required for an approved task.
- Inspect whether access policies, segmentation, application safeguards and encryption operate at independent layers.
- Inspect identity records, provider trust configuration, account lifecycle status and application sign-in integration.
- Use a trusted identity provider and directory to manage identities and support application sign-in.
- Protect sensitive information with appropriate encryption at rest and in transit and manage access to keys.
Explanation
Correct Answers
C:Inspect identity records, provider trust configuration, account lifecycle status and application sign-in integration. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. An identity provider handles authentication while a directory stores and organizes identities and attributes; neither equals the protected application.
D:Use a trusted identity provider and directory to manage identities and support application sign-in. This is the directly applicable response. An identity provider handles authentication while a directory stores and organizes identities and attributes; neither equals the protected application.
Incorrect Answers
A:Access decisions re-evaluate context and give only the privileges required for an approved task. This item belongs to a different control area: Zero Trust. Its appropriate purpose is: Zero Trust does not automatically trust a user, device or connection because it originates on a corporate network. For the stated case, Identity providers and directories is the closer match. An identity provider handles authentication while a directory stores and organizes identities and attributes; neither equals the protected application.
B:Inspect whether access policies, segmentation, application safeguards and encryption operate at independent layers. This item belongs to a different control area: Defense in depth. Its appropriate purpose is: Defense in depth reduces reliance on any one protection; it is not a claim that all risks can be eliminated. For the stated case, Identity providers and directories is the closer match. An identity provider handles authentication while a directory stores and organizes identities and attributes; neither equals the protected application.
E:Protect sensitive information with appropriate encryption at rest and in transit and manage access to keys. This item belongs to a different control area: Encryption. Its appropriate purpose is: Encryption makes data unreadable to an unauthorized party without the appropriate key; it differs from a one-way hash. For the stated case, Identity providers and directories is the closer match. An identity provider handles authentication while a directory stores and organizes identities and attributes; neither equals the protected application.
Question 587
A company needs enforceable protection against certain sensitive data leaving supported Microsoft 365 locations. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?
- Use the Microsoft Purview portal to discover and administer supported compliance, information protection and risk capabilities.
- Configure Microsoft Purview data loss prevention policies to detect and control defined sensitive-data sharing in supported workloads.
- Apply Microsoft's published privacy principles when assessing transparency, control and responsible handling of personal data.
- Use Microsoft Purview eDiscovery to identify, preserve and collect relevant content for authorized investigations.
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:Configure Microsoft Purview data loss prevention policies to detect and control defined sensitive-data sharing in supported workloads. This is the directly applicable response. DLP controls risky data movement based on policy conditions; labeling alone does not enforce every transmission restriction.
Incorrect Answers
A:Use the Microsoft Purview portal to discover and administer supported compliance, information protection and risk capabilities. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Purview portal. Its appropriate purpose is: The Purview portal is a central interface for multiple compliance and data-governance solutions, not itself a finished compliance certification. For the stated case, Data loss prevention policies is the closer match. DLP controls risky data movement based on policy conditions; labeling alone does not enforce every transmission restriction.
C:Apply Microsoft's published privacy principles when assessing transparency, control and responsible handling of personal data. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft privacy principles. Its appropriate purpose is: Privacy principles guide responsible data handling and transparency; they do not automatically classify every document. For the stated case, Data loss prevention policies is the closer match. DLP controls risky data movement based on policy conditions; labeling alone does not enforce every transmission restriction.
D:Use Microsoft Purview eDiscovery to identify, preserve and collect relevant content for authorized investigations. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Purview eDiscovery. Its appropriate purpose is: eDiscovery supports legal and regulatory evidence workflows; it is distinct from real-time data loss prevention. For the stated case, Data loss prevention policies is the closer match. DLP controls risky data movement based on policy conditions; labeling alone does not enforce every transmission restriction.
Question 588
An administrator wants to know which devices are exposed to a newly published software CVE. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?
- Use Microsoft Defender for Cloud to review Azure and multicloud security posture and workload protection recommendations.
- Use Microsoft Defender Vulnerability Management to discover, prioritize and track exposed device software weaknesses.
- Apply Azure network security group rules to allow or deny traffic by source, destination, port and protocol at subnet or NIC scope.
- Apply Azure Web Application Firewall to inspect HTTP and HTTPS requests for common web-application attacks.
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:Use Microsoft Defender Vulnerability Management to discover, prioritize and track exposed device software weaknesses. This is the directly applicable response. Vulnerability management focuses on identifying and prioritizing exposures; it is distinct from active incident correlation.
Incorrect Answers
A:Use Microsoft Defender for Cloud to review Azure and multicloud security posture and workload protection recommendations. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Cloud unified security posture. Its appropriate purpose is: Defender for Cloud combines CSPM and cloud workload protection capabilities; it is not the same as a single network security group. For the stated case, Defender Vulnerability Management is the closer match. Vulnerability management focuses on identifying and prioritizing exposures; it is distinct from active incident correlation.
C:Apply Azure network security group rules to allow or deny traffic by source, destination, port and protocol at subnet or NIC scope. This item belongs to a different control area: Network security groups. Its appropriate purpose is: NSGs provide ordered L3/L4 traffic filtering in Azure, not deep web-request inspection. For the stated case, Defender Vulnerability Management is the closer match. Vulnerability management focuses on identifying and prioritizing exposures; it is distinct from active incident correlation.
D:Apply Azure Web Application Firewall to inspect HTTP and HTTPS requests for common web-application attacks. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure Web Application Firewall. Its appropriate purpose is: A WAF targets application-layer HTTP risks such as injection, unlike basic network port filtering. For the stated case, Defender Vulnerability Management is the closer match. Vulnerability management focuses on identifying and prioritizing exposures; it is distinct from active incident correlation.
Question 589
A risk team needs security context to understand whether identified infrastructure is linked to known attacker activity. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.
- Enable applicable Defender for Cloud workload protection plans to detect threats affecting supported cloud workloads.
- Use Microsoft Threat Intelligence capabilities and relevant threat context to enrich analysis of adversaries and indicators.
- Inspect threat intelligence indicators, associated reports and their links to observed activity.
- The compliance dashboard reflects assessment status and supporting remediation evidence for selected standards.
- Inspect automation rule triggers, Logic Apps playbook runs and action execution outcomes.
Explanation
Correct Answers
B:Use Microsoft Threat Intelligence capabilities and relevant threat context to enrich analysis of adversaries and indicators. This is the directly applicable response. Threat intelligence adds context on threats and indicators; it does not by itself implement endpoint blocking or identity authorization.
C:Inspect threat intelligence indicators, associated reports and their links to observed activity. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Threat intelligence adds context on threats and indicators; it does not by itself implement endpoint blocking or identity authorization.
Incorrect Answers
A:Enable applicable Defender for Cloud workload protection plans to detect threats affecting supported cloud workloads. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Cloud workload protection. Its appropriate purpose is: Cloud workload protection detects threat signals and suspicious runtime behavior; CSPM primarily addresses configuration posture. For the stated case, Microsoft Threat Intelligence is the closer match. Threat intelligence adds context on threats and indicators; it does not by itself implement endpoint blocking or identity authorization.
D:The compliance dashboard reflects assessment status and supporting remediation evidence for selected standards. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Cloud regulatory compliance. Its appropriate purpose is: Regulatory compliance views relate assessed technical controls to frameworks; they do not by themselves certify organizational legal compliance. For the stated case, Microsoft Threat Intelligence is the closer match. Threat intelligence adds context on threats and indicators; it does not by itself implement endpoint blocking or identity authorization.
E:Inspect automation rule triggers, Logic Apps playbook runs and action execution outcomes. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Sentinel SOAR playbooks. Its appropriate purpose is: SOAR automates and orchestrates workflows; it complements rather than replaces detection analytics and human judgment. For the stated case, Microsoft Threat Intelligence is the closer match. Threat intelligence adds context on threats and indicators; it does not by itself implement endpoint blocking or identity authorization.
Question 590
A project team needs to show how completing selected assessment actions affects a Microsoft compliance progress indicator. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?
- Inspect label configuration, policy publication or auto-application scope and labeled item status.
- Inspect score breakdown, applicable improvement actions and updates to action completion.
- Inspect audit search parameters, event operations, actors and timestamps for the relevant workload.
- Inspect retention policy scope, duration settings and resulting content lifecycle behavior.
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:Inspect score breakdown, applicable improvement actions and updates to action completion. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Compliance score measures tracked improvement progress; it is not a universal regulatory certification or breach-risk guarantee.
Incorrect Answers
A:Inspect label configuration, policy publication or auto-application scope and labeled item status. This item belongs to a different control area: Retention labels. Its appropriate purpose is: Retention labels govern specific items; a broad location-level retention policy does not provide the same fine-grained labeling behavior. For the stated case, Compliance score is the closer match. Compliance score measures tracked improvement progress; it is not a universal regulatory certification or breach-risk guarantee.
C:Inspect audit search parameters, event operations, actors and timestamps for the relevant workload. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Purview Audit. Its appropriate purpose is: Audit provides activity logging and search, not a tool to classify documents or automatically enforce retention. For the stated case, Compliance score is the closer match. Compliance score measures tracked improvement progress; it is not a universal regulatory certification or breach-risk guarantee.
D:Inspect retention policy scope, duration settings and resulting content lifecycle behavior. This item belongs to a different control area: Retention policies. Its appropriate purpose is: Retention policies apply lifecycle rules to selected locations or content sets; they do not substitute for DLP sharing blocks. For the stated case, Compliance score is the closer match. Compliance score measures tracked improvement progress; it is not a universal regulatory certification or breach-risk guarantee.