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Microsoft SC-900 Practice Test 58

Question 570

A legal department needs contracts retained for a longer period than routine operational messages. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.

  1. Authorized investigators can preserve and retrieve relevant evidence with traceable case handling.
  2. Use Microsoft Purview retention labels and publishing or auto-application policies for item-level lifecycle handling.
  3. Inspect assessments, improvement actions, assigned owners and uploaded evidence.
  4. Use the Microsoft Purview portal to discover and administer supported compliance, information protection and risk capabilities.
  5. Inspect label configuration, policy publication or auto-application scope and labeled item status.

Explanation

Correct Answers

B:

Use Microsoft Purview retention labels and publishing or auto-application policies for item-level lifecycle handling. This is the directly applicable response. Retention labels govern specific items; a broad location-level retention policy does not provide the same fine-grained labeling behavior.

E:

Inspect label configuration, policy publication or auto-application scope and labeled item status. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Retention labels govern specific items; a broad location-level retention policy does not provide the same fine-grained labeling behavior.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Authorized investigators can preserve and retrieve relevant evidence with traceable case handling. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Purview eDiscovery. Its appropriate purpose is: eDiscovery supports legal and regulatory evidence workflows; it is distinct from real-time data loss prevention. For the stated case, Retention labels is the closer match. Retention labels govern specific items; a broad location-level retention policy does not provide the same fine-grained labeling behavior.

C:

Inspect assessments, improvement actions, assigned owners and uploaded evidence. This item belongs to a different control area: Compliance Manager. Its appropriate purpose is: Compliance Manager maps control activities and improvements; it does not automatically guarantee legal compliance. For the stated case, Retention labels is the closer match. Retention labels govern specific items; a broad location-level retention policy does not provide the same fine-grained labeling behavior.

D:

Use the Microsoft Purview portal to discover and administer supported compliance, information protection and risk capabilities. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Purview portal. Its appropriate purpose is: The Purview portal is a central interface for multiple compliance and data-governance solutions, not itself a finished compliance certification. For the stated case, Retention labels is the closer match. Retention labels govern specific items; a broad location-level retention policy does not provide the same fine-grained labeling behavior.

Question 571

A support team wants to administer private VMs without opening inbound port 3389 from the Internet. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?

  1. Inspect Bastion deployment, VM public IP assignments and management connection paths.
  2. Inspect analytic rule query logic, schedule, thresholds and representative matching events.
  3. Inspect device vulnerability inventory, recommendations, software exposure and remediation status.
  4. Inspect data connectors, ingestion status, workspace tables and representative security events.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Inspect Bastion deployment, VM public IP assignments and management connection paths. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Bastion supplies browser- or client-mediated secure VM management access; it is not a DDoS service.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Inspect analytic rule query logic, schedule, thresholds and representative matching events. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Sentinel analytics rules. Its appropriate purpose is: Sentinel analytics rules evaluate telemetry to raise detections; collecting logs alone is insufficient to identify a defined pattern. For the stated case, Azure Bastion is the closer match. Bastion supplies browser- or client-mediated secure VM management access; it is not a DDoS service.

C:

Inspect device vulnerability inventory, recommendations, software exposure and remediation status. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender Vulnerability Management. Its appropriate purpose is: Vulnerability management focuses on identifying and prioritizing exposures; it is distinct from active incident correlation. For the stated case, Azure Bastion is the closer match. Bastion supplies browser- or client-mediated secure VM management access; it is not a DDoS service.

D:

Inspect data connectors, ingestion status, workspace tables and representative security events. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Sentinel SIEM ingestion. Its appropriate purpose is: A SIEM collects and correlates security telemetry; data ingestion is foundational before analytic rules can detect events. For the stated case, Azure Bastion is the closer match. Bastion supplies browser- or client-mediated secure VM management access; it is not a DDoS service.

Question 572

An incident manager wants centralized visibility into investigations without opening unrelated admin portals. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?

  1. The approved service can use the intended material and unauthorized key operations are refused.
  2. Operators can navigate from a unified incident to related evidence across connected Defender services.
  3. An analyst can reconstruct the incident sequence and document an evidence-based disposition.
  4. Security owners see prioritized exposures and applicable workload detections in the expected scope.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Operators can navigate from a unified incident to related evidence across connected Defender services. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. The Defender portal provides a unified security operations interface; it is not a replacement for configuring every underlying product.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The approved service can use the intended material and unauthorized key operations are refused. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure Key Vault keys and certificates. Its appropriate purpose is: Key Vault supports cryptographic key and certificate lifecycle; secret storage alone is not a substitute for proper key policy. For the stated case, Microsoft Defender portal is the closer match. The Defender portal provides a unified security operations interface; it is not a replacement for configuring every underlying product.

C:

An analyst can reconstruct the incident sequence and document an evidence-based disposition. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Sentinel incident investigation. Its appropriate purpose is: Incident management helps investigate and coordinate alerts; it differs from automatic enforcement through a playbook. For the stated case, Microsoft Defender portal is the closer match. The Defender portal provides a unified security operations interface; it is not a replacement for configuring every underlying product.

D:

Security owners see prioritized exposures and applicable workload detections in the expected scope. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Cloud unified security posture. Its appropriate purpose is: Defender for Cloud combines CSPM and cloud workload protection capabilities; it is not the same as a single network security group. For the stated case, Microsoft Defender portal is the closer match. The Defender portal provides a unified security operations interface; it is not a replacement for configuring every underlying product.

Question 573

An enterprise wants staff departures reflected in application access as directory accounts are disabled. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?

  1. A modified input produces a different computed digest while an unchanged trusted item passes the comparison.
  2. Access decisions re-evaluate context and give only the privileges required for an approved task.
  3. The application accepts the intended provider's authenticated users and respects account disablement and configured access.
  4. Risks have assigned treatment decisions and controls have evidence linked to applicable requirements.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

The application accepts the intended provider's authenticated users and respects account disablement and configured access. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. An identity provider handles authentication while a directory stores and organizes identities and attributes; neither equals the protected application.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A modified input produces a different computed digest while an unchanged trusted item passes the comparison. This item belongs to a different control area: Cryptographic hashing. Its appropriate purpose is: Hashing supports integrity checks or password verification when designed correctly; hashing by itself does not provide encryption or confidentiality. For the stated case, Identity providers and directories is the closer match. An identity provider handles authentication while a directory stores and organizes identities and attributes; neither equals the protected application.

B:

Access decisions re-evaluate context and give only the privileges required for an approved task. This item belongs to a different control area: Zero Trust. Its appropriate purpose is: Zero Trust does not automatically trust a user, device or connection because it originates on a corporate network. For the stated case, Identity providers and directories is the closer match. An identity provider handles authentication while a directory stores and organizes identities and attributes; neither equals the protected application.

D:

Risks have assigned treatment decisions and controls have evidence linked to applicable requirements. This item belongs to a different control area: Governance risk and compliance. Its appropriate purpose is: Governance sets direction, risk management evaluates exposure, and compliance verifies obligations against controls. For the stated case, Identity providers and directories is the closer match. An identity provider handles authentication while a directory stores and organizes identities and attributes; neither equals the protected application.

Question 574

A legal department needs contracts retained for a longer period than routine operational messages. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?

  1. Inspect the relevant Purview solution pages, available roles and enabled features.
  2. Inspect label configuration, policy publication or auto-application scope and labeled item status.
  3. Inspect eDiscovery cases, custodians, holds, search results and export or review actions.
  4. Inspect assessments, improvement actions, assigned owners and uploaded evidence.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Inspect label configuration, policy publication or auto-application scope and labeled item status. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Retention labels govern specific items; a broad location-level retention policy does not provide the same fine-grained labeling behavior.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect the relevant Purview solution pages, available roles and enabled features. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Purview portal. Its appropriate purpose is: The Purview portal is a central interface for multiple compliance and data-governance solutions, not itself a finished compliance certification. For the stated case, Retention labels is the closer match. Retention labels govern specific items; a broad location-level retention policy does not provide the same fine-grained labeling behavior.

C:

Inspect eDiscovery cases, custodians, holds, search results and export or review actions. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Purview eDiscovery. Its appropriate purpose is: eDiscovery supports legal and regulatory evidence workflows; it is distinct from real-time data loss prevention. For the stated case, Retention labels is the closer match. Retention labels govern specific items; a broad location-level retention policy does not provide the same fine-grained labeling behavior.

D:

Inspect assessments, improvement actions, assigned owners and uploaded evidence. This item belongs to a different control area: Compliance Manager. Its appropriate purpose is: Compliance Manager maps control activities and improvements; it does not automatically guarantee legal compliance. For the stated case, Retention labels is the closer match. Retention labels govern specific items; a broad location-level retention policy does not provide the same fine-grained labeling behavior.

Question 575

A security review asks how to enforce approved session restrictions for a supported application. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?

  1. Expected source events are searchable in the intended workspace and support threat analytics.
  2. A qualifying incident triggers the approved response steps with auditable execution results.
  3. An authorized workload retrieves the secret while unauthorized principals are denied and access is logged.
  4. The intended risky session action is monitored or restricted according to configured controls.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

The intended risky session action is monitored or restricted according to configured controls. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. Session controls provide real-time governance of supported cloud app activities; discovery alone does not enforce session behaviors.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Expected source events are searchable in the intended workspace and support threat analytics. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Sentinel SIEM ingestion. Its appropriate purpose is: A SIEM collects and correlates security telemetry; data ingestion is foundational before analytic rules can detect events. For the stated case, Defender for Cloud Apps session controls is the closer match. Session controls provide real-time governance of supported cloud app activities; discovery alone does not enforce session behaviors.

B:

A qualifying incident triggers the approved response steps with auditable execution results. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Sentinel SOAR playbooks. Its appropriate purpose is: SOAR automates and orchestrates workflows; it complements rather than replaces detection analytics and human judgment. For the stated case, Defender for Cloud Apps session controls is the closer match. Session controls provide real-time governance of supported cloud app activities; discovery alone does not enforce session behaviors.

C:

An authorized workload retrieves the secret while unauthorized principals are denied and access is logged. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure Key Vault secrets. Its appropriate purpose is: Key Vault manages keys, secrets and certificates; it is not a general-purpose file storage or SIEM service. For the stated case, Defender for Cloud Apps session controls is the closer match. Session controls provide real-time governance of supported cloud app activities; discovery alone does not enforce session behaviors.

Question 576

A developer wants to confirm that a downloaded installation package matches the publisher's trusted digest. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?

  1. Review the federation trust, issuer metadata, accepted tokens and sign-in transaction records.
  2. Inspect identity records, provider trust configuration, account lifecycle status and application sign-in integration.
  3. Compare a securely computed digest with a trusted expected digest or properly managed password verifier.
  4. Compare authentication records with resource permission grants and denied-operation logs.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Compare a securely computed digest with a trusted expected digest or properly managed password verifier. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Hashing supports integrity checks or password verification when designed correctly; hashing by itself does not provide encryption or confidentiality.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Review the federation trust, issuer metadata, accepted tokens and sign-in transaction records. This item belongs to a different control area: Identity federation. Its appropriate purpose is: Federation extends authentication trust across security domains; it does not automatically grant unrestricted permissions. For the stated case, Cryptographic hashing is the closer match. Hashing supports integrity checks or password verification when designed correctly; hashing by itself does not provide encryption or confidentiality.

B:

Inspect identity records, provider trust configuration, account lifecycle status and application sign-in integration. This item belongs to a different control area: Identity providers and directories. Its appropriate purpose is: An identity provider handles authentication while a directory stores and organizes identities and attributes; neither equals the protected application. For the stated case, Cryptographic hashing is the closer match. Hashing supports integrity checks or password verification when designed correctly; hashing by itself does not provide encryption or confidentiality.

D:

Compare authentication records with resource permission grants and denied-operation logs. This item belongs to a different control area: Authentication and authorization. Its appropriate purpose is: Authentication proves identity or possession of credentials; authorization determines what that identity may do. For the stated case, Cryptographic hashing is the closer match. Hashing supports integrity checks or password verification when designed correctly; hashing by itself does not provide encryption or confidentiality.

Question 577

A hospital wants supported passwordless strong authentication for clinicians using security keys. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.

  1. Configured controls respond to risky sign-ins or compromised-user signals and investigations track resolution.
  2. Offer phishing-resistant FIDO2 passkey authentication with supported Microsoft Entra methods.
  3. Use Microsoft Entra ID as the cloud identity and access-management service for users, groups and applications.
  4. Inspect registered passkey credentials, permitted authentication-method settings and sign-in method details.
  5. Inspect guest account records, cross-tenant access settings and assigned resource permissions.

Explanation

Correct Answers

B:

Offer phishing-resistant FIDO2 passkey authentication with supported Microsoft Entra methods. This is the directly applicable response. FIDO2 passkeys bind authentication to the legitimate relying party and resist credential phishing more effectively than SMS codes.

D:

Inspect registered passkey credentials, permitted authentication-method settings and sign-in method details. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. FIDO2 passkeys bind authentication to the legitimate relying party and resist credential phishing more effectively than SMS codes.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Configured controls respond to risky sign-ins or compromised-user signals and investigations track resolution. This item belongs to a different control area: Identity Protection risk detection. Its appropriate purpose is: Identity Protection detects identity-related risk signals; a generic role assignment alone does not assess risk. For the stated case, Passkeys and FIDO2 is the closer match. FIDO2 passkeys bind authentication to the legitimate relying party and resist credential phishing more effectively than SMS codes.

C:

Use Microsoft Entra ID as the cloud identity and access-management service for users, groups and applications. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Entra ID cloud identity. Its appropriate purpose is: Microsoft Entra ID provides cloud directory and identity services, not network packet filtering or document retention. For the stated case, Passkeys and FIDO2 is the closer match. FIDO2 passkeys bind authentication to the legitimate relying party and resist credential phishing more effectively than SMS codes.

E:

Inspect guest account records, cross-tenant access settings and assigned resource permissions. This item belongs to a different control area: External guest collaboration. Its appropriate purpose is: B2B collaboration supports external users while preserving explicit guest access and tenant policy boundaries. For the stated case, Passkeys and FIDO2 is the closer match. FIDO2 passkeys bind authentication to the legitimate relying party and resist credential phishing more effectively than SMS codes.

Question 578

A public-facing service becomes unreachable during coordinated high-volume attacks from many sources. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.

  1. Use Azure DDoS Protection for protection of exposed Azure public IP resources against volumetric network attacks where appropriate.
  2. A qualifying incident triggers the approved response steps with auditable execution results.
  3. Inspect threat intelligence indicators, associated reports and their links to observed activity.
  4. Inspect attack mitigation telemetry, protected public IP association and network traffic anomaly patterns.
  5. Enable relevant Cloud Security Posture Management capabilities to identify cloud configuration risks and improve posture.

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

Use Azure DDoS Protection for protection of exposed Azure public IP resources against volumetric network attacks where appropriate. This is the directly applicable response. DDoS Protection addresses distributed denial-of-service traffic aimed at network services; it does not replace a web-application rule engine.

D:

Inspect attack mitigation telemetry, protected public IP association and network traffic anomaly patterns. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. DDoS Protection addresses distributed denial-of-service traffic aimed at network services; it does not replace a web-application rule engine.

Incorrect Answers

B:

A qualifying incident triggers the approved response steps with auditable execution results. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Sentinel SOAR playbooks. Its appropriate purpose is: SOAR automates and orchestrates workflows; it complements rather than replaces detection analytics and human judgment. For the stated case, Azure DDoS Protection is the closer match. DDoS Protection addresses distributed denial-of-service traffic aimed at network services; it does not replace a web-application rule engine.

C:

Inspect threat intelligence indicators, associated reports and their links to observed activity. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Threat Intelligence. Its appropriate purpose is: Threat intelligence adds context on threats and indicators; it does not by itself implement endpoint blocking or identity authorization. For the stated case, Azure DDoS Protection is the closer match. DDoS Protection addresses distributed denial-of-service traffic aimed at network services; it does not replace a web-application rule engine.

E:

Enable relevant Cloud Security Posture Management capabilities to identify cloud configuration risks and improve posture. This item belongs to a different control area: Cloud Security Posture Management. Its appropriate purpose is: CSPM evaluates configuration and exposure risk proactively, rather than solely responding to an endpoint malware alert. For the stated case, Azure DDoS Protection is the closer match. DDoS Protection addresses distributed denial-of-service traffic aimed at network services; it does not replace a web-application rule engine.

Question 579

A SOC manager wants consistent incident assignment and status tracking during triage. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?

  1. Inspect incident timelines, alert evidence, related entities and assigned ownership.
  2. Inspect Safe Links policy assignments, URL click events and detections.
  3. Inspect monitored domain controllers, identity alerts and suspicious activity timelines.
  4. Inspect threat intelligence indicators, associated reports and their links to observed activity.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Inspect incident timelines, alert evidence, related entities and assigned ownership. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Incident management helps investigate and coordinate alerts; it differs from automatic enforcement through a playbook.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Inspect Safe Links policy assignments, URL click events and detections. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Office 365 Safe Links. Its appropriate purpose is: Safe Links addresses URL-based threats; it does not inspect attached files for malware. For the stated case, Microsoft Sentinel incident investigation is the closer match. Incident management helps investigate and coordinate alerts; it differs from automatic enforcement through a playbook.

C:

Inspect monitored domain controllers, identity alerts and suspicious activity timelines. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Identity. Its appropriate purpose is: Defender for Identity monitors on-premises identity threats and domain controller signals; it is not a cloud app SaaS discovery catalog. For the stated case, Microsoft Sentinel incident investigation is the closer match. Incident management helps investigate and coordinate alerts; it differs from automatic enforcement through a playbook.

D:

Inspect threat intelligence indicators, associated reports and their links to observed activity. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Threat Intelligence. Its appropriate purpose is: Threat intelligence adds context on threats and indicators; it does not by itself implement endpoint blocking or identity authorization. For the stated case, Microsoft Sentinel incident investigation is the closer match. Incident management helps investigate and coordinate alerts; it differs from automatic enforcement through a playbook.

Question 580

An endpoint hardening project aims to reduce script-based abuse without relying solely on antivirus signatures. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.

  1. Use Microsoft Defender for Endpoint attack surface reduction rules to restrict risky endpoint behaviors where supported.
  2. A targeted remediation clears the relevant security recommendation without loosening the intended standard.
  3. Inspect assigned compliance standards, evaluated controls and their associated resource assessments.
  4. Inspect ASR rule configuration, audit or block events and exclusions for the affected endpoints.
  5. Use Microsoft Sentinel incidents and investigation context to triage related alerts and affected entities.

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

Use Microsoft Defender for Endpoint attack surface reduction rules to restrict risky endpoint behaviors where supported. This is the directly applicable response. ASR rules reduce common exploit paths on endpoints and can be tested in audit mode before enforcement.

D:

Inspect ASR rule configuration, audit or block events and exclusions for the affected endpoints. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. ASR rules reduce common exploit paths on endpoints and can be tested in audit mode before enforcement.

Incorrect Answers

B:

A targeted remediation clears the relevant security recommendation without loosening the intended standard. This item belongs to a different control area: Cloud security policies and recommendations. Its appropriate purpose is: A recommendation identifies a technical improvement; a documented policy or assigned standard provides expectations for assessed resources. For the stated case, Endpoint attack surface reduction is the closer match. ASR rules reduce common exploit paths on endpoints and can be tested in audit mode before enforcement.

C:

Inspect assigned compliance standards, evaluated controls and their associated resource assessments. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Cloud regulatory compliance. Its appropriate purpose is: Regulatory compliance views relate assessed technical controls to frameworks; they do not by themselves certify organizational legal compliance. For the stated case, Endpoint attack surface reduction is the closer match. ASR rules reduce common exploit paths on endpoints and can be tested in audit mode before enforcement.

E:

Use Microsoft Sentinel incidents and investigation context to triage related alerts and affected entities. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Sentinel incident investigation. Its appropriate purpose is: Incident management helps investigate and coordinate alerts; it differs from automatic enforcement through a playbook. For the stated case, Endpoint attack surface reduction is the closer match. ASR rules reduce common exploit paths on endpoints and can be tested in audit mode before enforcement.

Microsoft Security, Compliance, and Identity Fundamentals (SC-900) Practice Tests