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Microsoft SC-900 Practice Test 57

Question 560

A data team discovers application access granted years ago with no recertification process. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?

  1. Assign an Azure managed identity to a supported workload so it obtains Entra tokens without storing app passwords.
  2. Scope Conditional Access to selected cloud applications and test policy results before enforcement.
  3. Configure and monitor an appropriate supported Microsoft Entra Connect synchronization method for hybrid users.
  4. Schedule Microsoft Entra access reviews to let owners recertify whether users still need access.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Schedule Microsoft Entra access reviews to let owners recertify whether users still need access. This is the directly applicable response. Access reviews periodically reassess existing permissions, unlike a new initial access request.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Assign an Azure managed identity to a supported workload so it obtains Entra tokens without storing app passwords. This item belongs to a different control area: Managed identities. Its appropriate purpose is: Managed identities remove workload credential handling for supported Azure resources but still require appropriate authorization. For the stated case, Access reviews is the closer match. Access reviews periodically reassess existing permissions, unlike a new initial access request.

B:

Scope Conditional Access to selected cloud applications and test policy results before enforcement. This item belongs to a different control area: Conditional Access application targeting. Its appropriate purpose is: A policy should be tested for targeted principals and applications, with emergency-access exclusions where appropriate. For the stated case, Access reviews is the closer match. Access reviews periodically reassess existing permissions, unlike a new initial access request.

C:

Configure and monitor an appropriate supported Microsoft Entra Connect synchronization method for hybrid users. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Entra Connect synchronization. Its appropriate purpose is: Directory synchronization must be scoped and observed; enabling it without verifying source objects can create identity drift. For the stated case, Access reviews is the closer match. Access reviews periodically reassess existing permissions, unlike a new initial access request.

Question 561

A payroll app should open only on organization-compliant endpoints even if a password is correct. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?

  1. Approved guests access only shared resources and can be removed without exposing a generic shared account.
  2. The automation receives only its consented permissions and unused credentials are removed or rotated.
  3. On-premises identity changes are reflected in Entra ID according to the configured sync topology.
  4. A noncompliant device is blocked or challenged while compliant devices can access the targeted app.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

A noncompliant device is blocked or challenged while compliant devices can access the targeted app. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. Conditional Access combines signals and access controls; device compliance comes from the supported management and enrollment state.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Approved guests access only shared resources and can be removed without exposing a generic shared account. This item belongs to a different control area: External guest collaboration. Its appropriate purpose is: B2B collaboration supports external users while preserving explicit guest access and tenant policy boundaries. For the stated case, Conditional Access compliant devices is the closer match. Conditional Access combines signals and access controls; device compliance comes from the supported management and enrollment state.

B:

The automation receives only its consented permissions and unused credentials are removed or rotated. This item belongs to a different control area: Service principals. Its appropriate purpose is: Service principals represent applications or services rather than individual human users; credentials and consent must be governed. For the stated case, Conditional Access compliant devices is the closer match. Conditional Access combines signals and access controls; device compliance comes from the supported management and enrollment state.

C:

On-premises identity changes are reflected in Entra ID according to the configured sync topology. This item belongs to a different control area: Hybrid identity. Its appropriate purpose is: Hybrid identity coordinates on-premises and cloud identity management; it does not automatically move every workload to Azure. For the stated case, Conditional Access compliant devices is the closer match. Conditional Access combines signals and access controls; device compliance comes from the supported management and enrollment state.

Question 562

A security group needs a governed process to review insider data-handling risk alerts. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?

  1. Use supported Microsoft Purview sensitive information types or classifiers to identify defined sensitive data patterns.
  2. Use Microsoft Purview Insider Risk Management to investigate configured potentially risky user activities under approved privacy safeguards.
  3. Use Microsoft Purview Compliance Manager to organize improvement actions and track regulatory assessment progress.
  4. Use Microsoft Purview Activity explorer to review events associated with labels and protection activities in supported workloads.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Use Microsoft Purview Insider Risk Management to investigate configured potentially risky user activities under approved privacy safeguards. This is the directly applicable response. Insider risk policies correlate relevant insider indicators; they do not authorize indiscriminate surveillance or replace privacy and employment policy.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Use supported Microsoft Purview sensitive information types or classifiers to identify defined sensitive data patterns. This item belongs to a different control area: Sensitive information type classification. Its appropriate purpose is: Classification identifies content characteristics to support protection policies; classifying alone does not block exfiltration. For the stated case, Insider risk management is the closer match. Insider risk policies correlate relevant insider indicators; they do not authorize indiscriminate surveillance or replace privacy and employment policy.

C:

Use Microsoft Purview Compliance Manager to organize improvement actions and track regulatory assessment progress. This item belongs to a different control area: Compliance Manager. Its appropriate purpose is: Compliance Manager maps control activities and improvements; it does not automatically guarantee legal compliance. For the stated case, Insider risk management is the closer match. Insider risk policies correlate relevant insider indicators; they do not authorize indiscriminate surveillance or replace privacy and employment policy.

D:

Use Microsoft Purview Activity explorer to review events associated with labels and protection activities in supported workloads. This item belongs to a different control area: Activity explorer. Its appropriate purpose is: Activity explorer focuses on what happened to data, unlike Content explorer's inventory of classified content. For the stated case, Insider risk management is the closer match. Insider risk policies correlate relevant insider indicators; they do not authorize indiscriminate surveillance or replace privacy and employment policy.

Question 563

A benefits administrator stores exported claims and wants them protected if a storage device is lost. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?

  1. External identities sign in through the trusted home provider and receive only the application's authorized access.
  2. Only validated principals with appropriate entitlements can reach sensitive cloud resources regardless of location.
  3. The application accepts the intended provider's authenticated users and respects account disablement and configured access.
  4. A controlled test shows protected ciphertext at rest and secure transport during approved client communication.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

A controlled test shows protected ciphertext at rest and secure transport during approved client communication. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. Encryption makes data unreadable to an unauthorized party without the appropriate key; it differs from a one-way hash.

Incorrect Answers

A:

External identities sign in through the trusted home provider and receive only the application's authorized access. This item belongs to a different control area: Identity federation. Its appropriate purpose is: Federation extends authentication trust across security domains; it does not automatically grant unrestricted permissions. For the stated case, Encryption is the closer match. Encryption makes data unreadable to an unauthorized party without the appropriate key; it differs from a one-way hash.

B:

Only validated principals with appropriate entitlements can reach sensitive cloud resources regardless of location. This item belongs to a different control area: Identity as security perimeter. Its appropriate purpose is: Cloud users and workloads access resources from varied networks, making authenticated identity and authorization central boundaries. For the stated case, Encryption is the closer match. Encryption makes data unreadable to an unauthorized party without the appropriate key; it differs from a one-way hash.

C:

The application accepts the intended provider's authenticated users and respects account disablement and configured access. This item belongs to a different control area: Identity providers and directories. Its appropriate purpose is: An identity provider handles authentication while a directory stores and organizes identities and attributes; neither equals the protected application. For the stated case, Encryption is the closer match. Encryption makes data unreadable to an unauthorized party without the appropriate key; it differs from a one-way hash.

Question 564

A company repeatedly creates Azure resources with overly permissive network settings. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.

  1. Inspect analytic rule query logic, schedule, thresholds and representative matching events.
  2. Inspect policy assignments, noncompliant resources and recommendation-to-remediation mappings.
  3. Connect relevant data sources to a Microsoft Sentinel-enabled Log Analytics workspace for centralized security analysis.
  4. Malicious attachments are blocked or handled according to the configured action before users consume them.
  5. Use security policies, standards and recommendations to drive governed cloud configuration hardening.

Explanation

Correct Answers

B:

Inspect policy assignments, noncompliant resources and recommendation-to-remediation mappings. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. A recommendation identifies a technical improvement; a documented policy or assigned standard provides expectations for assessed resources.

E:

Use security policies, standards and recommendations to drive governed cloud configuration hardening. This is the directly applicable response. A recommendation identifies a technical improvement; a documented policy or assigned standard provides expectations for assessed resources.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect analytic rule query logic, schedule, thresholds and representative matching events. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Sentinel analytics rules. Its appropriate purpose is: Sentinel analytics rules evaluate telemetry to raise detections; collecting logs alone is insufficient to identify a defined pattern. For the stated case, Cloud security policies and recommendations is the closer match. A recommendation identifies a technical improvement; a documented policy or assigned standard provides expectations for assessed resources.

C:

Connect relevant data sources to a Microsoft Sentinel-enabled Log Analytics workspace for centralized security analysis. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Sentinel SIEM ingestion. Its appropriate purpose is: A SIEM collects and correlates security telemetry; data ingestion is foundational before analytic rules can detect events. For the stated case, Cloud security policies and recommendations is the closer match. A recommendation identifies a technical improvement; a documented policy or assigned standard provides expectations for assessed resources.

D:

Malicious attachments are blocked or handled according to the configured action before users consume them. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Office 365 Safe Attachments. Its appropriate purpose is: Safe Attachments focuses on file-based email threats, whereas Safe Links protects URLs. For the stated case, Cloud security policies and recommendations is the closer match. A recommendation identifies a technical improvement; a documented policy or assigned standard provides expectations for assessed resources.

Question 565

A privacy office wants to assess service commitments before approving a new cloud process. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.

  1. Examine data handling notices, customer controls and the relevant published privacy commitments.
  2. Inspect label settings, publication policy scopes and actual label application to target documents.
  3. Authorized reviewers can identify where labeled or classified items reside in supported data locations.
  4. Use Microsoft Purview Compliance Manager to organize improvement actions and track regulatory assessment progress.
  5. Apply Microsoft's published privacy principles when assessing transparency, control and responsible handling of personal data.

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

Examine data handling notices, customer controls and the relevant published privacy commitments. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Privacy principles guide responsible data handling and transparency; they do not automatically classify every document.

E:

Apply Microsoft's published privacy principles when assessing transparency, control and responsible handling of personal data. This is the directly applicable response. Privacy principles guide responsible data handling and transparency; they do not automatically classify every document.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Inspect label settings, publication policy scopes and actual label application to target documents. This item belongs to a different control area: Sensitivity labels. Its appropriate purpose is: Sensitivity labels classify content and may apply protection; labels must be made available through appropriate policy publishing. For the stated case, Microsoft privacy principles is the closer match. Privacy principles guide responsible data handling and transparency; they do not automatically classify every document.

C:

Authorized reviewers can identify where labeled or classified items reside in supported data locations. This item belongs to a different control area: Content explorer. Its appropriate purpose is: Content explorer helps inspect classified data inventory; Activity explorer focuses on actions and activity history. For the stated case, Microsoft privacy principles is the closer match. Privacy principles guide responsible data handling and transparency; they do not automatically classify every document.

D:

Use Microsoft Purview Compliance Manager to organize improvement actions and track regulatory assessment progress. This item belongs to a different control area: Compliance Manager. Its appropriate purpose is: Compliance Manager maps control activities and improvements; it does not automatically guarantee legal compliance. For the stated case, Microsoft privacy principles is the closer match. Privacy principles guide responsible data handling and transparency; they do not automatically classify every document.

Question 566

An IT team wants one cloud directory for employee groups and enterprise application access. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?

  1. Inspect access package catalogs, eligibility, request policy and expiration configuration.
  2. Inspect included and excluded users, target apps, conditions and report-only evaluation logs.
  3. Inspect tenant user and group objects, enterprise application registration and sign-in events.
  4. Inspect registered passkey credentials, permitted authentication-method settings and sign-in method details.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Inspect tenant user and group objects, enterprise application registration and sign-in events. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Microsoft Entra ID provides cloud directory and identity services, not network packet filtering or document retention.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect access package catalogs, eligibility, request policy and expiration configuration. This item belongs to a different control area: Entitlement management access packages. Its appropriate purpose is: Entitlement management standardizes access bundles and access-request governance for groups, apps and sites. For the stated case, Microsoft Entra ID cloud identity is the closer match. Microsoft Entra ID provides cloud directory and identity services, not network packet filtering or document retention.

B:

Inspect included and excluded users, target apps, conditions and report-only evaluation logs. This item belongs to a different control area: Conditional Access application targeting. Its appropriate purpose is: A policy should be tested for targeted principals and applications, with emergency-access exclusions where appropriate. For the stated case, Microsoft Entra ID cloud identity is the closer match. Microsoft Entra ID provides cloud directory and identity services, not network packet filtering or document retention.

D:

Inspect registered passkey credentials, permitted authentication-method settings and sign-in method details. This item belongs to a different control area: Passkeys and FIDO2. Its appropriate purpose is: FIDO2 passkeys bind authentication to the legitimate relying party and resist credential phishing more effectively than SMS codes. For the stated case, Microsoft Entra ID cloud identity is the closer match. Microsoft Entra ID provides cloud directory and identity services, not network packet filtering or document retention.

Question 567

An external partner accesses a tenant application without ever traversing the company's office firewall. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?

  1. Risks have assigned treatment decisions and controls have evidence linked to applicable requirements.
  2. A controlled test shows protected ciphertext at rest and secure transport during approved client communication.
  3. The responsibility matrix explicitly assigns customer-managed safeguards and those settings have accountable owners.
  4. Only validated principals with appropriate entitlements can reach sensitive cloud resources regardless of location.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Only validated principals with appropriate entitlements can reach sensitive cloud resources regardless of location. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. Cloud users and workloads access resources from varied networks, making authenticated identity and authorization central boundaries.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Risks have assigned treatment decisions and controls have evidence linked to applicable requirements. This item belongs to a different control area: Governance risk and compliance. Its appropriate purpose is: Governance sets direction, risk management evaluates exposure, and compliance verifies obligations against controls. For the stated case, Identity as security perimeter is the closer match. Cloud users and workloads access resources from varied networks, making authenticated identity and authorization central boundaries.

B:

A controlled test shows protected ciphertext at rest and secure transport during approved client communication. This item belongs to a different control area: Encryption. Its appropriate purpose is: Encryption makes data unreadable to an unauthorized party without the appropriate key; it differs from a one-way hash. For the stated case, Identity as security perimeter is the closer match. Cloud users and workloads access resources from varied networks, making authenticated identity and authorization central boundaries.

C:

The responsibility matrix explicitly assigns customer-managed safeguards and those settings have accountable owners. This item belongs to a different control area: Cloud shared responsibility. Its appropriate purpose is: Shared responsibility divides security obligations according to the cloud service model; provider data-center security does not replace tenant controls. For the stated case, Identity as security perimeter is the closer match. Cloud users and workloads access resources from varied networks, making authenticated identity and authorization central boundaries.

Question 568

An auditor needs evidence and remediation ownership recorded against a selected compliance assessment. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?

  1. A qualifying risky activity is triaged through the authorized insider-risk workflow with documented disposition.
  2. Test sharing of covered sensitive data triggers the intended warning, block or audit action as configured.
  3. Assessment owners can see outstanding control work, evidence and completion status for the chosen framework.
  4. The investigator finds applicable activity events and can document who performed an action and when.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Assessment owners can see outstanding control work, evidence and completion status for the chosen framework. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. Compliance Manager maps control activities and improvements; it does not automatically guarantee legal compliance.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A qualifying risky activity is triaged through the authorized insider-risk workflow with documented disposition. This item belongs to a different control area: Insider risk management. Its appropriate purpose is: Insider risk policies correlate relevant insider indicators; they do not authorize indiscriminate surveillance or replace privacy and employment policy. For the stated case, Compliance Manager is the closer match. Compliance Manager maps control activities and improvements; it does not automatically guarantee legal compliance.

B:

Test sharing of covered sensitive data triggers the intended warning, block or audit action as configured. This item belongs to a different control area: Data loss prevention policies. Its appropriate purpose is: DLP controls risky data movement based on policy conditions; labeling alone does not enforce every transmission restriction. For the stated case, Compliance Manager is the closer match. Compliance Manager maps control activities and improvements; it does not automatically guarantee legal compliance.

D:

The investigator finds applicable activity events and can document who performed an action and when. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Purview Audit. Its appropriate purpose is: Audit provides activity logging and search, not a tool to classify documents or automatically enforce retention. For the stated case, Compliance Manager is the closer match. Compliance Manager maps control activities and improvements; it does not automatically guarantee legal compliance.

Question 569

A regulator requests defensible content search and collection from an approved matter. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?

  1. Completed validated actions appropriately change the calculated progress score while gaps remain visible.
  2. The analyst can trace relevant label or DLP activity to an auditable event record.
  3. Intended users can apply the approved label and the configured protection behaves on labeled content.
  4. Authorized investigators can preserve and retrieve relevant evidence with traceable case handling.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Authorized investigators can preserve and retrieve relevant evidence with traceable case handling. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. eDiscovery supports legal and regulatory evidence workflows; it is distinct from real-time data loss prevention.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Completed validated actions appropriately change the calculated progress score while gaps remain visible. This item belongs to a different control area: Compliance score. Its appropriate purpose is: Compliance score measures tracked improvement progress; it is not a universal regulatory certification or breach-risk guarantee. For the stated case, Microsoft Purview eDiscovery is the closer match. eDiscovery supports legal and regulatory evidence workflows; it is distinct from real-time data loss prevention.

B:

The analyst can trace relevant label or DLP activity to an auditable event record. This item belongs to a different control area: Activity explorer. Its appropriate purpose is: Activity explorer focuses on what happened to data, unlike Content explorer's inventory of classified content. For the stated case, Microsoft Purview eDiscovery is the closer match. eDiscovery supports legal and regulatory evidence workflows; it is distinct from real-time data loss prevention.

C:

Intended users can apply the approved label and the configured protection behaves on labeled content. This item belongs to a different control area: Sensitivity labels. Its appropriate purpose is: Sensitivity labels classify content and may apply protection; labels must be made available through appropriate policy publishing. For the stated case, Microsoft Purview eDiscovery is the closer match. eDiscovery supports legal and regulatory evidence workflows; it is distinct from real-time data loss prevention.

Question 570

A legal department needs contracts retained for a longer period than routine operational messages. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.

  1. Authorized investigators can preserve and retrieve relevant evidence with traceable case handling.
  2. Use Microsoft Purview retention labels and publishing or auto-application policies for item-level lifecycle handling.
  3. Inspect assessments, improvement actions, assigned owners and uploaded evidence.
  4. Use the Microsoft Purview portal to discover and administer supported compliance, information protection and risk capabilities.
  5. Inspect label configuration, policy publication or auto-application scope and labeled item status.

Explanation

Correct Answers

B:

Use Microsoft Purview retention labels and publishing or auto-application policies for item-level lifecycle handling. This is the directly applicable response. Retention labels govern specific items; a broad location-level retention policy does not provide the same fine-grained labeling behavior.

E:

Inspect label configuration, policy publication or auto-application scope and labeled item status. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Retention labels govern specific items; a broad location-level retention policy does not provide the same fine-grained labeling behavior.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Authorized investigators can preserve and retrieve relevant evidence with traceable case handling. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Purview eDiscovery. Its appropriate purpose is: eDiscovery supports legal and regulatory evidence workflows; it is distinct from real-time data loss prevention. For the stated case, Retention labels is the closer match. Retention labels govern specific items; a broad location-level retention policy does not provide the same fine-grained labeling behavior.

C:

Inspect assessments, improvement actions, assigned owners and uploaded evidence. This item belongs to a different control area: Compliance Manager. Its appropriate purpose is: Compliance Manager maps control activities and improvements; it does not automatically guarantee legal compliance. For the stated case, Retention labels is the closer match. Retention labels govern specific items; a broad location-level retention policy does not provide the same fine-grained labeling behavior.

D:

Use the Microsoft Purview portal to discover and administer supported compliance, information protection and risk capabilities. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Purview portal. Its appropriate purpose is: The Purview portal is a central interface for multiple compliance and data-governance solutions, not itself a finished compliance certification. For the stated case, Retention labels is the closer match. Retention labels govern specific items; a broad location-level retention policy does not provide the same fine-grained labeling behavior.

Microsoft Security, Compliance, and Identity Fundamentals (SC-900) Practice Tests