Microsoft SC-900 Practice Test 45
Question 440
An admin portal requires extra authentication when users connect from untrusted networks. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?
- Users sign in with the intended phishing-resistant cryptographic authentication method instead of sharing reusable secrets.
- An eligible sign-in is completed only after the required second factor or equivalent strong authentication is satisfied.
- Expected in-scope users and attribute updates appear in Entra ID without duplicate cloud accounts.
- Test sign-ins from targeted and excluded networks receive the configured location-aware control.
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:Test sign-ins from targeted and excluded networks receive the configured location-aware control. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. Conditional Access can evaluate network locations alongside identities and risk, but location by itself should not be assumed trustworthy.
Incorrect Answers
A:Users sign in with the intended phishing-resistant cryptographic authentication method instead of sharing reusable secrets. This item belongs to a different control area: Passkeys and FIDO2. Its appropriate purpose is: FIDO2 passkeys bind authentication to the legitimate relying party and resist credential phishing more effectively than SMS codes. For the stated case, Conditional Access locations is the closer match. Conditional Access can evaluate network locations alongside identities and risk, but location by itself should not be assumed trustworthy.
B:An eligible sign-in is completed only after the required second factor or equivalent strong authentication is satisfied. This item belongs to a different control area: Multifactor authentication. Its appropriate purpose is: MFA combines different factor categories to reduce account takeover from a stolen password alone. For the stated case, Conditional Access locations is the closer match. Conditional Access can evaluate network locations alongside identities and risk, but location by itself should not be assumed trustworthy.
C:Expected in-scope users and attribute updates appear in Entra ID without duplicate cloud accounts. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Entra Connect synchronization. Its appropriate purpose is: Directory synchronization must be scoped and observed; enabling it without verifying source objects can create identity drift. For the stated case, Conditional Access locations is the closer match. Conditional Access can evaluate network locations alongside identities and risk, but location by itself should not be assumed trustworthy.
Question 441
A firm is concerned about unusual sensitive-file copying before high-risk staff departures. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.
- Use supported Microsoft Purview sensitive information types or classifiers to identify defined sensitive data patterns.
- The reviewer obtains the applicable provider assurance documentation without treating it as proof of the customer's controls.
- Inspect policy indicators, generated alerts, case evidence and role-controlled access.
- Inspect Activity explorer events, filters, users, activity types and timestamps.
- Use Microsoft Purview Insider Risk Management to investigate configured potentially risky user activities under approved privacy safeguards.
Explanation
Correct Answers
C:Inspect policy indicators, generated alerts, case evidence and role-controlled access. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Insider risk policies correlate relevant insider indicators; they do not authorize indiscriminate surveillance or replace privacy and employment policy.
E:Use Microsoft Purview Insider Risk Management to investigate configured potentially risky user activities under approved privacy safeguards. This is the directly applicable response. Insider risk policies correlate relevant insider indicators; they do not authorize indiscriminate surveillance or replace privacy and employment policy.
Incorrect Answers
A:Use supported Microsoft Purview sensitive information types or classifiers to identify defined sensitive data patterns. This item belongs to a different control area: Sensitive information type classification. Its appropriate purpose is: Classification identifies content characteristics to support protection policies; classifying alone does not block exfiltration. For the stated case, Insider risk management is the closer match. Insider risk policies correlate relevant insider indicators; they do not authorize indiscriminate surveillance or replace privacy and employment policy.
B:The reviewer obtains the applicable provider assurance documentation without treating it as proof of the customer's controls. This item belongs to a different control area: Service Trust Portal. Its appropriate purpose is: The Service Trust Portal offers Microsoft service assurance resources; customers remain responsible for their own compliance obligations. For the stated case, Insider risk management is the closer match. Insider risk policies correlate relevant insider indicators; they do not authorize indiscriminate surveillance or replace privacy and employment policy.
D:Inspect Activity explorer events, filters, users, activity types and timestamps. This item belongs to a different control area: Activity explorer. Its appropriate purpose is: Activity explorer focuses on what happened to data, unlike Content explorer's inventory of classified content. For the stated case, Insider risk management is the closer match. Insider risk policies correlate relevant insider indicators; they do not authorize indiscriminate surveillance or replace privacy and employment policy.
Question 442
A bank permits mobile access to customer records only when device compliance requirements are satisfied. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?
- Inspect guest account records, cross-tenant access settings and assigned resource permissions.
- Inspect banned-password lists, password change results and protection audit or enforcement events.
- Inspect policy targeting, device compliance information and sign-in evaluation details.
- Inspect tenant user and group objects, enterprise application registration and sign-in events.
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:Inspect policy targeting, device compliance information and sign-in evaluation details. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Conditional Access combines signals and access controls; device compliance comes from the supported management and enrollment state.
Incorrect Answers
A:Inspect guest account records, cross-tenant access settings and assigned resource permissions. This item belongs to a different control area: External guest collaboration. Its appropriate purpose is: B2B collaboration supports external users while preserving explicit guest access and tenant policy boundaries. For the stated case, Conditional Access compliant devices is the closer match. Conditional Access combines signals and access controls; device compliance comes from the supported management and enrollment state.
B:Inspect banned-password lists, password change results and protection audit or enforcement events. This item belongs to a different control area: Password protection. Its appropriate purpose is: Password protection blocks weak password choices; it does not replace MFA or a full identity risk policy. For the stated case, Conditional Access compliant devices is the closer match. Conditional Access combines signals and access controls; device compliance comes from the supported management and enrollment state.
D:Inspect tenant user and group objects, enterprise application registration and sign-in events. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Entra ID cloud identity. Its appropriate purpose is: Microsoft Entra ID provides cloud directory and identity services, not network packet filtering or document retention. For the stated case, Conditional Access compliant devices is the closer match. Conditional Access combines signals and access controls; device compliance comes from the supported management and enrollment state.
Question 443
A compliance team wants to know when users changed sensitivity labels on documents. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?
- Assessment owners can see outstanding control work, evidence and completion status for the chosen framework.
- The reviewer obtains the applicable provider assurance documentation without treating it as proof of the customer's controls.
- The analyst can trace relevant label or DLP activity to an auditable event record.
- Completed validated actions appropriately change the calculated progress score while gaps remain visible.
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:The analyst can trace relevant label or DLP activity to an auditable event record. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. Activity explorer focuses on what happened to data, unlike Content explorer's inventory of classified content.
Incorrect Answers
A:Assessment owners can see outstanding control work, evidence and completion status for the chosen framework. This item belongs to a different control area: Compliance Manager. Its appropriate purpose is: Compliance Manager maps control activities and improvements; it does not automatically guarantee legal compliance. For the stated case, Activity explorer is the closer match. Activity explorer focuses on what happened to data, unlike Content explorer's inventory of classified content.
B:The reviewer obtains the applicable provider assurance documentation without treating it as proof of the customer's controls. This item belongs to a different control area: Service Trust Portal. Its appropriate purpose is: The Service Trust Portal offers Microsoft service assurance resources; customers remain responsible for their own compliance obligations. For the stated case, Activity explorer is the closer match. Activity explorer focuses on what happened to data, unlike Content explorer's inventory of classified content.
D:Completed validated actions appropriately change the calculated progress score while gaps remain visible. This item belongs to a different control area: Compliance score. Its appropriate purpose is: Compliance score measures tracked improvement progress; it is not a universal regulatory certification or breach-risk guarantee. For the stated case, Activity explorer is the closer match. Activity explorer focuses on what happened to data, unlike Content explorer's inventory of classified content.
Question 444
A build pipeline calls Microsoft Graph and requires a distinct application identity with scoped permissions. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?
- Inspect authentication method registration, authentication details and MFA satisfaction in sign-in logs.
- Inspect subscription or resource role assignments and effective permissions for the target resource.
- Inspect application and service principal objects, consented permissions and authentication credential lifecycle.
- Inspect included and excluded users, target apps, conditions and report-only evaluation logs.
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:Inspect application and service principal objects, consented permissions and authentication credential lifecycle. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Service principals represent applications or services rather than individual human users; credentials and consent must be governed.
Incorrect Answers
A:Inspect authentication method registration, authentication details and MFA satisfaction in sign-in logs. This item belongs to a different control area: Multifactor authentication. Its appropriate purpose is: MFA combines different factor categories to reduce account takeover from a stolen password alone. For the stated case, Service principals is the closer match. Service principals represent applications or services rather than individual human users; credentials and consent must be governed.
B:Inspect subscription or resource role assignments and effective permissions for the target resource. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure resource RBAC versus Entra roles. Its appropriate purpose is: Azure RBAC governs Azure resource permissions, whereas Microsoft Entra roles govern directory services. For the stated case, Service principals is the closer match. Service principals represent applications or services rather than individual human users; credentials and consent must be governed.
D:Inspect included and excluded users, target apps, conditions and report-only evaluation logs. This item belongs to a different control area: Conditional Access application targeting. Its appropriate purpose is: A policy should be tested for targeted principals and applications, with emergency-access exclusions where appropriate. For the stated case, Service principals is the closer match. Service principals represent applications or services rather than individual human users; credentials and consent must be governed.
Question 445
A law firm wants confidential documents marked and protected with an approved sensitivity label. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?
- The investigator finds applicable activity events and can document who performed an action and when.
- Authorized investigators can preserve and retrieve relevant evidence with traceable case handling.
- Intended users can apply the approved label and the configured protection behaves on labeled content.
- Assessment owners can see outstanding control work, evidence and completion status for the chosen framework.
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:Intended users can apply the approved label and the configured protection behaves on labeled content. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. Sensitivity labels classify content and may apply protection; labels must be made available through appropriate policy publishing.
Incorrect Answers
A:The investigator finds applicable activity events and can document who performed an action and when. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Purview Audit. Its appropriate purpose is: Audit provides activity logging and search, not a tool to classify documents or automatically enforce retention. For the stated case, Sensitivity labels is the closer match. Sensitivity labels classify content and may apply protection; labels must be made available through appropriate policy publishing.
B:Authorized investigators can preserve and retrieve relevant evidence with traceable case handling. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Purview eDiscovery. Its appropriate purpose is: eDiscovery supports legal and regulatory evidence workflows; it is distinct from real-time data loss prevention. For the stated case, Sensitivity labels is the closer match. Sensitivity labels classify content and may apply protection; labels must be made available through appropriate policy publishing.
D:Assessment owners can see outstanding control work, evidence and completion status for the chosen framework. This item belongs to a different control area: Compliance Manager. Its appropriate purpose is: Compliance Manager maps control activities and improvements; it does not automatically guarantee legal compliance. For the stated case, Sensitivity labels is the closer match. Sensitivity labels classify content and may apply protection; labels must be made available through appropriate policy publishing.
Question 446
An architecture review finds a privileged administrator account that can bypass all network restrictions and read exports without additional checks. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?
- Review the federation trust, issuer metadata, accepted tokens and sign-in transaction records.
- Inspect whether access policies, segmentation, application safeguards and encryption operate at independent layers.
- Compare authentication records with resource permission grants and denied-operation logs.
- Review identities, sign-in activity, access entitlements and whether resource decisions use identity signals.
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:Inspect whether access policies, segmentation, application safeguards and encryption operate at independent layers. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Defense in depth reduces reliance on any one protection; it is not a claim that all risks can be eliminated.
Incorrect Answers
A:Review the federation trust, issuer metadata, accepted tokens and sign-in transaction records. This item belongs to a different control area: Identity federation. Its appropriate purpose is: Federation extends authentication trust across security domains; it does not automatically grant unrestricted permissions. For the stated case, Defense in depth is the closer match. Defense in depth reduces reliance on any one protection; it is not a claim that all risks can be eliminated.
C:Compare authentication records with resource permission grants and denied-operation logs. This item belongs to a different control area: Authentication and authorization. Its appropriate purpose is: Authentication proves identity or possession of credentials; authorization determines what that identity may do. For the stated case, Defense in depth is the closer match. Defense in depth reduces reliance on any one protection; it is not a claim that all risks can be eliminated.
D:Review identities, sign-in activity, access entitlements and whether resource decisions use identity signals. This item belongs to a different control area: Identity as security perimeter. Its appropriate purpose is: Cloud users and workloads access resources from varied networks, making authenticated identity and authorization central boundaries. For the stated case, Defense in depth is the closer match. Defense in depth reduces reliance on any one protection; it is not a claim that all risks can be eliminated.
Question 447
A regional workforce connects to cloud applications from home networks and unmanaged locations. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?
- Access decisions re-evaluate context and give only the privileges required for an approved task.
- Risks have assigned treatment decisions and controls have evidence linked to applicable requirements.
- An exercise demonstrates that a single failed control does not expose the protected data without further safeguards.
- Only validated principals with appropriate entitlements can reach sensitive cloud resources regardless of location.
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:Only validated principals with appropriate entitlements can reach sensitive cloud resources regardless of location. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. Cloud users and workloads access resources from varied networks, making authenticated identity and authorization central boundaries.
Incorrect Answers
A:Access decisions re-evaluate context and give only the privileges required for an approved task. This item belongs to a different control area: Zero Trust. Its appropriate purpose is: Zero Trust does not automatically trust a user, device or connection because it originates on a corporate network. For the stated case, Identity as security perimeter is the closer match. Cloud users and workloads access resources from varied networks, making authenticated identity and authorization central boundaries.
B:Risks have assigned treatment decisions and controls have evidence linked to applicable requirements. This item belongs to a different control area: Governance risk and compliance. Its appropriate purpose is: Governance sets direction, risk management evaluates exposure, and compliance verifies obligations against controls. For the stated case, Identity as security perimeter is the closer match. Cloud users and workloads access resources from varied networks, making authenticated identity and authorization central boundaries.
C:An exercise demonstrates that a single failed control does not expose the protected data without further safeguards. This item belongs to a different control area: Defense in depth. Its appropriate purpose is: Defense in depth reduces reliance on any one protection; it is not a claim that all risks can be eliminated. For the stated case, Identity as security perimeter is the closer match. Cloud users and workloads access resources from varied networks, making authenticated identity and authorization central boundaries.
Question 448
An integration owner needs to identify which nonhuman principal is making repeated API calls. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?
- Inspect device enrollment, configured Windows Hello credentials and successful intended authentication method.
- Inspect application and service principal objects, consented permissions and authentication credential lifecycle.
- Inspect role definitions, active assignments and role audit events for tenant administrators.
- Inspect named locations, policy exclusions, targeting and sign-in location evaluation.
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:Inspect application and service principal objects, consented permissions and authentication credential lifecycle. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Service principals represent applications or services rather than individual human users; credentials and consent must be governed.
Incorrect Answers
A:Inspect device enrollment, configured Windows Hello credentials and successful intended authentication method. This item belongs to a different control area: Windows Hello for Business. Its appropriate purpose is: Windows Hello for Business replaces reusable password use in supported scenarios with device-bound asymmetric credentials and local user verification. For the stated case, Service principals is the closer match. Service principals represent applications or services rather than individual human users; credentials and consent must be governed.
C:Inspect role definitions, active assignments and role audit events for tenant administrators. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Entra role-based access control. Its appropriate purpose is: Entra administrative roles govern directory and identity operations; Azure resource RBAC is a separate scope model. For the stated case, Service principals is the closer match. Service principals represent applications or services rather than individual human users; credentials and consent must be governed.
D:Inspect named locations, policy exclusions, targeting and sign-in location evaluation. This item belongs to a different control area: Conditional Access locations. Its appropriate purpose is: Conditional Access can evaluate network locations alongside identities and risk, but location by itself should not be assumed trustworthy. For the stated case, Service principals is the closer match. Service principals represent applications or services rather than individual human users; credentials and consent must be governed.
Question 449
Two organizations collaborate while keeping independent identity directories and avoiding shared static passwords. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?
- Establish a standards-based trust between identity providers so one organization can authenticate users for a relying application.
- Use a suitable one-way cryptographic hash to check integrity rather than recover an original secret.
- Maintain documented governance decisions, risk ownership and compliance control evidence.
- Use the Zero Trust principles of verify explicitly, least privilege and assume breach.
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:Establish a standards-based trust between identity providers so one organization can authenticate users for a relying application. This is the directly applicable response. Federation extends authentication trust across security domains; it does not automatically grant unrestricted permissions.
Incorrect Answers
B:Use a suitable one-way cryptographic hash to check integrity rather than recover an original secret. This item belongs to a different control area: Cryptographic hashing. Its appropriate purpose is: Hashing supports integrity checks or password verification when designed correctly; hashing by itself does not provide encryption or confidentiality. For the stated case, Identity federation is the closer match. Federation extends authentication trust across security domains; it does not automatically grant unrestricted permissions.
C:Maintain documented governance decisions, risk ownership and compliance control evidence. This item belongs to a different control area: Governance risk and compliance. Its appropriate purpose is: Governance sets direction, risk management evaluates exposure, and compliance verifies obligations against controls. For the stated case, Identity federation is the closer match. Federation extends authentication trust across security domains; it does not automatically grant unrestricted permissions.
D:Use the Zero Trust principles of verify explicitly, least privilege and assume breach. This item belongs to a different control area: Zero Trust. Its appropriate purpose is: Zero Trust does not automatically trust a user, device or connection because it originates on a corporate network. For the stated case, Identity federation is the closer match. Federation extends authentication trust across security domains; it does not automatically grant unrestricted permissions.
Question 450
A developer wants to confirm that a downloaded installation package matches the publisher's trusted digest. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.
- Authenticate the principal first and separately authorize only the permitted resource actions.
- Compare a securely computed digest with a trusted expected digest or properly managed password verifier.
- Review the federation trust, issuer metadata, accepted tokens and sign-in transaction records.
- Use a suitable one-way cryptographic hash to check integrity rather than recover an original secret.
- The application accepts the intended provider's authenticated users and respects account disablement and configured access.
Explanation
Correct Answers
B:Compare a securely computed digest with a trusted expected digest or properly managed password verifier. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Hashing supports integrity checks or password verification when designed correctly; hashing by itself does not provide encryption or confidentiality.
D:Use a suitable one-way cryptographic hash to check integrity rather than recover an original secret. This is the directly applicable response. Hashing supports integrity checks or password verification when designed correctly; hashing by itself does not provide encryption or confidentiality.
Incorrect Answers
A:Authenticate the principal first and separately authorize only the permitted resource actions. This item belongs to a different control area: Authentication and authorization. Its appropriate purpose is: Authentication proves identity or possession of credentials; authorization determines what that identity may do. For the stated case, Cryptographic hashing is the closer match. Hashing supports integrity checks or password verification when designed correctly; hashing by itself does not provide encryption or confidentiality.
C:Review the federation trust, issuer metadata, accepted tokens and sign-in transaction records. This item belongs to a different control area: Identity federation. Its appropriate purpose is: Federation extends authentication trust across security domains; it does not automatically grant unrestricted permissions. For the stated case, Cryptographic hashing is the closer match. Hashing supports integrity checks or password verification when designed correctly; hashing by itself does not provide encryption or confidentiality.
E:The application accepts the intended provider's authenticated users and respects account disablement and configured access. This item belongs to a different control area: Identity providers and directories. Its appropriate purpose is: An identity provider handles authentication while a directory stores and organizes identities and attributes; neither equals the protected application. For the stated case, Cryptographic hashing is the closer match. Hashing supports integrity checks or password verification when designed correctly; hashing by itself does not provide encryption or confidentiality.