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Microsoft SC-900 Practice Test 43

Question 420

A SOC wants a defined alert type to automatically create a ticket and notify an on-call team. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.

  1. Inspect automation rule triggers, Logic Apps playbook runs and action execution outcomes.
  2. Relevant on-premises directory attack behavior generates supported identity threat detections.
  3. Use Sentinel automation rules and supported playbooks to orchestrate defined incident-response tasks.
  4. Inspect session policy scope, controlled activities and matched cloud app session events.
  5. Use Microsoft Defender for Cloud Apps discovery to identify and assess cloud applications used by the organization.

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

Inspect automation rule triggers, Logic Apps playbook runs and action execution outcomes. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. SOAR automates and orchestrates workflows; it complements rather than replaces detection analytics and human judgment.

C:

Use Sentinel automation rules and supported playbooks to orchestrate defined incident-response tasks. This is the directly applicable response. SOAR automates and orchestrates workflows; it complements rather than replaces detection analytics and human judgment.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Relevant on-premises directory attack behavior generates supported identity threat detections. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Identity. Its appropriate purpose is: Defender for Identity monitors on-premises identity threats and domain controller signals; it is not a cloud app SaaS discovery catalog. For the stated case, Microsoft Sentinel SOAR playbooks is the closer match. SOAR automates and orchestrates workflows; it complements rather than replaces detection analytics and human judgment.

D:

Inspect session policy scope, controlled activities and matched cloud app session events. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Cloud Apps session controls. Its appropriate purpose is: Session controls provide real-time governance of supported cloud app activities; discovery alone does not enforce session behaviors. For the stated case, Microsoft Sentinel SOAR playbooks is the closer match. SOAR automates and orchestrates workflows; it complements rather than replaces detection analytics and human judgment.

E:

Use Microsoft Defender for Cloud Apps discovery to identify and assess cloud applications used by the organization. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Cloud Apps discovery. Its appropriate purpose is: Cloud app discovery assesses shadow IT usage, not the same task as investigating on-premises domain controller compromise. For the stated case, Microsoft Sentinel SOAR playbooks is the closer match. SOAR automates and orchestrates workflows; it complements rather than replaces detection analytics and human judgment.

Question 421

An Azure Linux VM requires periodic SSH access but security prohibits a public IP for the workload. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?

  1. Inspect portal incident queues, product-specific alerts, assets and investigation links.
  2. Inspect threat intelligence indicators, associated reports and their links to observed activity.
  3. Inspect Bastion deployment, VM public IP assignments and management connection paths.
  4. Inspect protected resource coverage, workload alerts, enabled plans and alert investigation evidence.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Inspect Bastion deployment, VM public IP assignments and management connection paths. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Bastion supplies browser- or client-mediated secure VM management access; it is not a DDoS service.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect portal incident queues, product-specific alerts, assets and investigation links. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Defender portal. Its appropriate purpose is: The Defender portal provides a unified security operations interface; it is not a replacement for configuring every underlying product. For the stated case, Azure Bastion is the closer match. Bastion supplies browser- or client-mediated secure VM management access; it is not a DDoS service.

B:

Inspect threat intelligence indicators, associated reports and their links to observed activity. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Threat Intelligence. Its appropriate purpose is: Threat intelligence adds context on threats and indicators; it does not by itself implement endpoint blocking or identity authorization. For the stated case, Azure Bastion is the closer match. Bastion supplies browser- or client-mediated secure VM management access; it is not a DDoS service.

D:

Inspect protected resource coverage, workload alerts, enabled plans and alert investigation evidence. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Cloud workload protection. Its appropriate purpose is: Cloud workload protection detects threat signals and suspicious runtime behavior; CSPM primarily addresses configuration posture. For the stated case, Azure Bastion is the closer match. Bastion supplies browser- or client-mediated secure VM management access; it is not a DDoS service.

Question 422

A company repeatedly creates Azure resources with overly permissive network settings. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?

  1. Inspect Safe Attachments policy scope, file verdicts and attachment detection reports.
  2. Inspect analytic rule query logic, schedule, thresholds and representative matching events.
  3. Inspect data connectors, ingestion status, workspace tables and representative security events.
  4. Inspect policy assignments, noncompliant resources and recommendation-to-remediation mappings.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Inspect policy assignments, noncompliant resources and recommendation-to-remediation mappings. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. A recommendation identifies a technical improvement; a documented policy or assigned standard provides expectations for assessed resources.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect Safe Attachments policy scope, file verdicts and attachment detection reports. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Office 365 Safe Attachments. Its appropriate purpose is: Safe Attachments focuses on file-based email threats, whereas Safe Links protects URLs. For the stated case, Cloud security policies and recommendations is the closer match. A recommendation identifies a technical improvement; a documented policy or assigned standard provides expectations for assessed resources.

B:

Inspect analytic rule query logic, schedule, thresholds and representative matching events. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Sentinel analytics rules. Its appropriate purpose is: Sentinel analytics rules evaluate telemetry to raise detections; collecting logs alone is insufficient to identify a defined pattern. For the stated case, Cloud security policies and recommendations is the closer match. A recommendation identifies a technical improvement; a documented policy or assigned standard provides expectations for assessed resources.

C:

Inspect data connectors, ingestion status, workspace tables and representative security events. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Sentinel SIEM ingestion. Its appropriate purpose is: A SIEM collects and correlates security telemetry; data ingestion is foundational before analytic rules can detect events. For the stated case, Cloud security policies and recommendations is the closer match. A recommendation identifies a technical improvement; a documented policy or assigned standard provides expectations for assessed resources.

Question 423

A cloud team needs a consolidated view of misconfigured resources across subscriptions. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?

  1. Use Defender for Office 365 Safe Attachments to analyze suspicious email attachments with configured protection policies.
  2. Use supported Defender for Cloud Apps Conditional Access App Control session controls for cloud app activity when configured.
  3. Use Microsoft Defender for Cloud to review Azure and multicloud security posture and workload protection recommendations.
  4. Use Microsoft Defender for Identity to detect suspicious identity activity involving supported on-premises Active Directory environments.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Use Microsoft Defender for Cloud to review Azure and multicloud security posture and workload protection recommendations. This is the directly applicable response. Defender for Cloud combines CSPM and cloud workload protection capabilities; it is not the same as a single network security group.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Use Defender for Office 365 Safe Attachments to analyze suspicious email attachments with configured protection policies. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Office 365 Safe Attachments. Its appropriate purpose is: Safe Attachments focuses on file-based email threats, whereas Safe Links protects URLs. For the stated case, Defender for Cloud unified security posture is the closer match. Defender for Cloud combines CSPM and cloud workload protection capabilities; it is not the same as a single network security group.

B:

Use supported Defender for Cloud Apps Conditional Access App Control session controls for cloud app activity when configured. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Cloud Apps session controls. Its appropriate purpose is: Session controls provide real-time governance of supported cloud app activities; discovery alone does not enforce session behaviors. For the stated case, Defender for Cloud unified security posture is the closer match. Defender for Cloud combines CSPM and cloud workload protection capabilities; it is not the same as a single network security group.

D:

Use Microsoft Defender for Identity to detect suspicious identity activity involving supported on-premises Active Directory environments. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Identity. Its appropriate purpose is: Defender for Identity monitors on-premises identity threats and domain controller signals; it is not a cloud app SaaS discovery catalog. For the stated case, Defender for Cloud unified security posture is the closer match. Defender for Cloud combines CSPM and cloud workload protection capabilities; it is not the same as a single network security group.

Question 424

A data team discovers application access granted years ago with no recertification process. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?

  1. Inspect the review scope, reviewer decisions, cadence and application of review results.
  2. Inspect included and excluded users, target apps, conditions and report-only evaluation logs.
  3. Inspect the resource's system- or user-assigned identity and its destination-resource RBAC grants.
  4. Inspect synchronization health, scope filters, matching rules and recent export errors.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Inspect the review scope, reviewer decisions, cadence and application of review results. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Access reviews periodically reassess existing permissions, unlike a new initial access request.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Inspect included and excluded users, target apps, conditions and report-only evaluation logs. This item belongs to a different control area: Conditional Access application targeting. Its appropriate purpose is: A policy should be tested for targeted principals and applications, with emergency-access exclusions where appropriate. For the stated case, Access reviews is the closer match. Access reviews periodically reassess existing permissions, unlike a new initial access request.

C:

Inspect the resource's system- or user-assigned identity and its destination-resource RBAC grants. This item belongs to a different control area: Managed identities. Its appropriate purpose is: Managed identities remove workload credential handling for supported Azure resources but still require appropriate authorization. For the stated case, Access reviews is the closer match. Access reviews periodically reassess existing permissions, unlike a new initial access request.

D:

Inspect synchronization health, scope filters, matching rules and recent export errors. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Entra Connect synchronization. Its appropriate purpose is: Directory synchronization must be scoped and observed; enabling it without verifying source objects can create identity drift. For the stated case, Access reviews is the closer match. Access reviews periodically reassess existing permissions, unlike a new initial access request.

Question 425

An application needs to retrieve an API token at runtime without storing it in a configuration file. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?

  1. An analyst can reconstruct the incident sequence and document an evidence-based disposition.
  2. An authorized workload retrieves the secret while unauthorized principals are denied and access is logged.
  3. Malicious attachments are blocked or handled according to the configured action before users consume them.
  4. The compliance dashboard reflects assessment status and supporting remediation evidence for selected standards.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

An authorized workload retrieves the secret while unauthorized principals are denied and access is logged. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. Key Vault manages keys, secrets and certificates; it is not a general-purpose file storage or SIEM service.

Incorrect Answers

A:

An analyst can reconstruct the incident sequence and document an evidence-based disposition. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Sentinel incident investigation. Its appropriate purpose is: Incident management helps investigate and coordinate alerts; it differs from automatic enforcement through a playbook. For the stated case, Azure Key Vault secrets is the closer match. Key Vault manages keys, secrets and certificates; it is not a general-purpose file storage or SIEM service.

C:

Malicious attachments are blocked or handled according to the configured action before users consume them. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Office 365 Safe Attachments. Its appropriate purpose is: Safe Attachments focuses on file-based email threats, whereas Safe Links protects URLs. For the stated case, Azure Key Vault secrets is the closer match. Key Vault manages keys, secrets and certificates; it is not a general-purpose file storage or SIEM service.

D:

The compliance dashboard reflects assessment status and supporting remediation evidence for selected standards. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Cloud regulatory compliance. Its appropriate purpose is: Regulatory compliance views relate assessed technical controls to frameworks; they do not by themselves certify organizational legal compliance. For the stated case, Azure Key Vault secrets is the closer match. Key Vault manages keys, secrets and certificates; it is not a general-purpose file storage or SIEM service.

Question 426

A small charity adopts a cloud SaaS offering and assumes it no longer needs to manage user access or its own data. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?

  1. Apply the customer's responsibility for identities, data and cloud configuration rather than assuming the provider performs every control.
  2. Authenticate the principal first and separately authorize only the permitted resource actions.
  3. Protect and verify identities as a primary perimeter for cloud access rather than relying only on a building network.
  4. Use a trusted identity provider and directory to manage identities and support application sign-in.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Apply the customer's responsibility for identities, data and cloud configuration rather than assuming the provider performs every control. This is the directly applicable response. Shared responsibility divides security obligations according to the cloud service model; provider data-center security does not replace tenant controls.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Authenticate the principal first and separately authorize only the permitted resource actions. This item belongs to a different control area: Authentication and authorization. Its appropriate purpose is: Authentication proves identity or possession of credentials; authorization determines what that identity may do. For the stated case, Cloud shared responsibility is the closer match. Shared responsibility divides security obligations according to the cloud service model; provider data-center security does not replace tenant controls.

C:

Protect and verify identities as a primary perimeter for cloud access rather than relying only on a building network. This item belongs to a different control area: Identity as security perimeter. Its appropriate purpose is: Cloud users and workloads access resources from varied networks, making authenticated identity and authorization central boundaries. For the stated case, Cloud shared responsibility is the closer match. Shared responsibility divides security obligations according to the cloud service model; provider data-center security does not replace tenant controls.

D:

Use a trusted identity provider and directory to manage identities and support application sign-in. This item belongs to a different control area: Identity providers and directories. Its appropriate purpose is: An identity provider handles authentication while a directory stores and organizes identities and attributes; neither equals the protected application. For the stated case, Cloud shared responsibility is the closer match. Shared responsibility divides security obligations according to the cloud service model; provider data-center security does not replace tenant controls.

Question 427

A retiring employee's departure date should initiate consistent access removal and notification tasks. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?

  1. Inspect banned-password lists, password change results and protection audit or enforcement events.
  2. Inspect synchronization health, scope filters, matching rules and recent export errors.
  3. Inspect SSPR policy scope, method registration, registration status and reset audit logs.
  4. Inspect workflow triggers, task execution history and resulting group or access changes.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Inspect workflow triggers, task execution history and resulting group or access changes. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Lifecycle workflows automate repeatable identity onboarding and offboarding tasks; review of ongoing entitlements remains a separate control.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect banned-password lists, password change results and protection audit or enforcement events. This item belongs to a different control area: Password protection. Its appropriate purpose is: Password protection blocks weak password choices; it does not replace MFA or a full identity risk policy. For the stated case, Lifecycle workflows is the closer match. Lifecycle workflows automate repeatable identity onboarding and offboarding tasks; review of ongoing entitlements remains a separate control.

B:

Inspect synchronization health, scope filters, matching rules and recent export errors. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Entra Connect synchronization. Its appropriate purpose is: Directory synchronization must be scoped and observed; enabling it without verifying source objects can create identity drift. For the stated case, Lifecycle workflows is the closer match. Lifecycle workflows automate repeatable identity onboarding and offboarding tasks; review of ongoing entitlements remains a separate control.

C:

Inspect SSPR policy scope, method registration, registration status and reset audit logs. This item belongs to a different control area: Self-service password reset. Its appropriate purpose is: SSPR helps account recovery; it does not grant additional resource authorization or bypass verification. For the stated case, Lifecycle workflows is the closer match. Lifecycle workflows automate repeatable identity onboarding and offboarding tasks; review of ongoing entitlements remains a separate control.

Question 428

A security team wants to reject common compromised-style passwords during password changes. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.

  1. Inspect synchronization status, source directories and matching cloud user identities.
  2. Inspect banned-password lists, password change results and protection audit or enforcement events.
  3. Apply Microsoft Entra Password Protection policies and custom banned-password screening where supported.
  4. The intended application sessions are governed and unrelated apps are not accidentally blocked.
  5. Automate defined joiner, mover and leaver identity tasks using Microsoft Entra Lifecycle Workflows where supported.

Explanation

Correct Answers

B:

Inspect banned-password lists, password change results and protection audit or enforcement events. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Password protection blocks weak password choices; it does not replace MFA or a full identity risk policy.

C:

Apply Microsoft Entra Password Protection policies and custom banned-password screening where supported. This is the directly applicable response. Password protection blocks weak password choices; it does not replace MFA or a full identity risk policy.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect synchronization status, source directories and matching cloud user identities. This item belongs to a different control area: Hybrid identity. Its appropriate purpose is: Hybrid identity coordinates on-premises and cloud identity management; it does not automatically move every workload to Azure. For the stated case, Password protection is the closer match. Password protection blocks weak password choices; it does not replace MFA or a full identity risk policy.

D:

The intended application sessions are governed and unrelated apps are not accidentally blocked. This item belongs to a different control area: Conditional Access application targeting. Its appropriate purpose is: A policy should be tested for targeted principals and applications, with emergency-access exclusions where appropriate. For the stated case, Password protection is the closer match. Password protection blocks weak password choices; it does not replace MFA or a full identity risk policy.

E:

Automate defined joiner, mover and leaver identity tasks using Microsoft Entra Lifecycle Workflows where supported. This item belongs to a different control area: Lifecycle workflows. Its appropriate purpose is: Lifecycle workflows automate repeatable identity onboarding and offboarding tasks; review of ongoing entitlements remains a separate control. For the stated case, Password protection is the closer match. Password protection blocks weak password choices; it does not replace MFA or a full identity risk policy.

Question 429

A SOC needs cloud authentication logs and firewall events in a central detection environment. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?

  1. Inspect data connectors, ingestion status, workspace tables and representative security events.
  2. Inspect assigned compliance standards, evaluated controls and their associated resource assessments.
  3. Inspect threat intelligence indicators, associated reports and their links to observed activity.
  4. Inspect policy assignments, noncompliant resources and recommendation-to-remediation mappings.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Inspect data connectors, ingestion status, workspace tables and representative security events. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. A SIEM collects and correlates security telemetry; data ingestion is foundational before analytic rules can detect events.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Inspect assigned compliance standards, evaluated controls and their associated resource assessments. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Cloud regulatory compliance. Its appropriate purpose is: Regulatory compliance views relate assessed technical controls to frameworks; they do not by themselves certify organizational legal compliance. For the stated case, Microsoft Sentinel SIEM ingestion is the closer match. A SIEM collects and correlates security telemetry; data ingestion is foundational before analytic rules can detect events.

C:

Inspect threat intelligence indicators, associated reports and their links to observed activity. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Threat Intelligence. Its appropriate purpose is: Threat intelligence adds context on threats and indicators; it does not by itself implement endpoint blocking or identity authorization. For the stated case, Microsoft Sentinel SIEM ingestion is the closer match. A SIEM collects and correlates security telemetry; data ingestion is foundational before analytic rules can detect events.

D:

Inspect policy assignments, noncompliant resources and recommendation-to-remediation mappings. This item belongs to a different control area: Cloud security policies and recommendations. Its appropriate purpose is: A recommendation identifies a technical improvement; a documented policy or assigned standard provides expectations for assessed resources. For the stated case, Microsoft Sentinel SIEM ingestion is the closer match. A SIEM collects and correlates security telemetry; data ingestion is foundational before analytic rules can detect events.

Question 430

A project team wants scoped access to a resource group without granting privileged identity-management capabilities. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.

  1. Expected in-scope users and attribute updates appear in Entra ID without duplicate cloud accounts.
  2. Inspect access package catalogs, eligibility, request policy and expiration configuration.
  3. Assign an Azure managed identity to a supported workload so it obtains Entra tokens without storing app passwords.
  4. Inspect subscription or resource role assignments and effective permissions for the target resource.
  5. Assign Azure resource RBAC at the smallest practical resource scope for resource management operations.

Explanation

Correct Answers

D:

Inspect subscription or resource role assignments and effective permissions for the target resource. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Azure RBAC governs Azure resource permissions, whereas Microsoft Entra roles govern directory services.

E:

Assign Azure resource RBAC at the smallest practical resource scope for resource management operations. This is the directly applicable response. Azure RBAC governs Azure resource permissions, whereas Microsoft Entra roles govern directory services.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Expected in-scope users and attribute updates appear in Entra ID without duplicate cloud accounts. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Entra Connect synchronization. Its appropriate purpose is: Directory synchronization must be scoped and observed; enabling it without verifying source objects can create identity drift. For the stated case, Azure resource RBAC versus Entra roles is the closer match. Azure RBAC governs Azure resource permissions, whereas Microsoft Entra roles govern directory services.

B:

Inspect access package catalogs, eligibility, request policy and expiration configuration. This item belongs to a different control area: Entitlement management access packages. Its appropriate purpose is: Entitlement management standardizes access bundles and access-request governance for groups, apps and sites. For the stated case, Azure resource RBAC versus Entra roles is the closer match. Azure RBAC governs Azure resource permissions, whereas Microsoft Entra roles govern directory services.

C:

Assign an Azure managed identity to a supported workload so it obtains Entra tokens without storing app passwords. This item belongs to a different control area: Managed identities. Its appropriate purpose is: Managed identities remove workload credential handling for supported Azure resources but still require appropriate authorization. For the stated case, Azure resource RBAC versus Entra roles is the closer match. Azure RBAC governs Azure resource permissions, whereas Microsoft Entra roles govern directory services.

Microsoft Security, Compliance, and Identity Fundamentals (SC-900) Practice Tests