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Microsoft SC-900 Practice Test 47

Question 460

An organization moves an application to cloud hosting but needs to rely on its established corporate sign-in provider. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?

  1. A modified input produces a different computed digest while an unchanged trusted item passes the comparison.
  2. External identities sign in through the trusted home provider and receive only the application's authorized access.
  3. A controlled test shows protected ciphertext at rest and secure transport during approved client communication.
  4. Risks have assigned treatment decisions and controls have evidence linked to applicable requirements.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

External identities sign in through the trusted home provider and receive only the application's authorized access. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. Federation extends authentication trust across security domains; it does not automatically grant unrestricted permissions.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A modified input produces a different computed digest while an unchanged trusted item passes the comparison. This item belongs to a different control area: Cryptographic hashing. Its appropriate purpose is: Hashing supports integrity checks or password verification when designed correctly; hashing by itself does not provide encryption or confidentiality. For the stated case, Identity federation is the closer match. Federation extends authentication trust across security domains; it does not automatically grant unrestricted permissions.

C:

A controlled test shows protected ciphertext at rest and secure transport during approved client communication. This item belongs to a different control area: Encryption. Its appropriate purpose is: Encryption makes data unreadable to an unauthorized party without the appropriate key; it differs from a one-way hash. For the stated case, Identity federation is the closer match. Federation extends authentication trust across security domains; it does not automatically grant unrestricted permissions.

D:

Risks have assigned treatment decisions and controls have evidence linked to applicable requirements. This item belongs to a different control area: Governance risk and compliance. Its appropriate purpose is: Governance sets direction, risk management evaluates exposure, and compliance verifies obligations against controls. For the stated case, Identity federation is the closer match. Federation extends authentication trust across security domains; it does not automatically grant unrestricted permissions.

Question 461

A contractor can successfully sign in but must not edit finance data outside the assigned role. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?

  1. Maintain documented governance decisions, risk ownership and compliance control evidence.
  2. Protect sensitive information with appropriate encryption at rest and in transit and manage access to keys.
  3. Authenticate the principal first and separately authorize only the permitted resource actions.
  4. Use a suitable one-way cryptographic hash to check integrity rather than recover an original secret.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Authenticate the principal first and separately authorize only the permitted resource actions. This is the directly applicable response. Authentication proves identity or possession of credentials; authorization determines what that identity may do.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Maintain documented governance decisions, risk ownership and compliance control evidence. This item belongs to a different control area: Governance risk and compliance. Its appropriate purpose is: Governance sets direction, risk management evaluates exposure, and compliance verifies obligations against controls. For the stated case, Authentication and authorization is the closer match. Authentication proves identity or possession of credentials; authorization determines what that identity may do.

B:

Protect sensitive information with appropriate encryption at rest and in transit and manage access to keys. This item belongs to a different control area: Encryption. Its appropriate purpose is: Encryption makes data unreadable to an unauthorized party without the appropriate key; it differs from a one-way hash. For the stated case, Authentication and authorization is the closer match. Authentication proves identity or possession of credentials; authorization determines what that identity may do.

D:

Use a suitable one-way cryptographic hash to check integrity rather than recover an original secret. This item belongs to a different control area: Cryptographic hashing. Its appropriate purpose is: Hashing supports integrity checks or password verification when designed correctly; hashing by itself does not provide encryption or confidentiality. For the stated case, Authentication and authorization is the closer match. Authentication proves identity or possession of credentials; authorization determines what that identity may do.

Question 462

A manufacturing firm wants document-based protection to follow files when they leave an internal team. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?

  1. Inspect score breakdown, applicable improvement actions and updates to action completion.
  2. Inspect label settings, publication policy scopes and actual label application to target documents.
  3. Inspect assessments, improvement actions, assigned owners and uploaded evidence.
  4. Examine data handling notices, customer controls and the relevant published privacy commitments.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Inspect label settings, publication policy scopes and actual label application to target documents. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Sensitivity labels classify content and may apply protection; labels must be made available through appropriate policy publishing.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect score breakdown, applicable improvement actions and updates to action completion. This item belongs to a different control area: Compliance score. Its appropriate purpose is: Compliance score measures tracked improvement progress; it is not a universal regulatory certification or breach-risk guarantee. For the stated case, Sensitivity labels is the closer match. Sensitivity labels classify content and may apply protection; labels must be made available through appropriate policy publishing.

C:

Inspect assessments, improvement actions, assigned owners and uploaded evidence. This item belongs to a different control area: Compliance Manager. Its appropriate purpose is: Compliance Manager maps control activities and improvements; it does not automatically guarantee legal compliance. For the stated case, Sensitivity labels is the closer match. Sensitivity labels classify content and may apply protection; labels must be made available through appropriate policy publishing.

D:

Examine data handling notices, customer controls and the relevant published privacy commitments. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft privacy principles. Its appropriate purpose is: Privacy principles guide responsible data handling and transparency; they do not automatically classify every document. For the stated case, Sensitivity labels is the closer match. Sensitivity labels classify content and may apply protection; labels must be made available through appropriate policy publishing.

Question 463

A security operator wants threat detections for cloud resources as part of the Defender for Cloud service. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?

  1. Inspect protected resource coverage, workload alerts, enabled plans and alert investigation evidence.
  2. Inspect portal incident queues, product-specific alerts, assets and investigation links.
  3. Inspect key or certificate versions, permissions and renewal or rotation configuration.
  4. Inspect Safe Attachments policy scope, file verdicts and attachment detection reports.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Inspect protected resource coverage, workload alerts, enabled plans and alert investigation evidence. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Cloud workload protection detects threat signals and suspicious runtime behavior; CSPM primarily addresses configuration posture.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Inspect portal incident queues, product-specific alerts, assets and investigation links. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Defender portal. Its appropriate purpose is: The Defender portal provides a unified security operations interface; it is not a replacement for configuring every underlying product. For the stated case, Defender for Cloud workload protection is the closer match. Cloud workload protection detects threat signals and suspicious runtime behavior; CSPM primarily addresses configuration posture.

C:

Inspect key or certificate versions, permissions and renewal or rotation configuration. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure Key Vault keys and certificates. Its appropriate purpose is: Key Vault supports cryptographic key and certificate lifecycle; secret storage alone is not a substitute for proper key policy. For the stated case, Defender for Cloud workload protection is the closer match. Cloud workload protection detects threat signals and suspicious runtime behavior; CSPM primarily addresses configuration posture.

D:

Inspect Safe Attachments policy scope, file verdicts and attachment detection reports. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Office 365 Safe Attachments. Its appropriate purpose is: Safe Attachments focuses on file-based email threats, whereas Safe Links protects URLs. For the stated case, Defender for Cloud workload protection is the closer match. Cloud workload protection detects threat signals and suspicious runtime behavior; CSPM primarily addresses configuration posture.

Question 464

A staff member forgets a cloud sign-in password while the support desk is closed. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?

  1. Authorized users can reset forgotten passwords after meeting the defined verification requirements.
  2. Approved guests access only shared resources and can be removed without exposing a generic shared account.
  3. Configured controls respond to risky sign-ins or compromised-user signals and investigations track resolution.
  4. The intended application sessions are governed and unrelated apps are not accidentally blocked.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Authorized users can reset forgotten passwords after meeting the defined verification requirements. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. SSPR helps account recovery; it does not grant additional resource authorization or bypass verification.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Approved guests access only shared resources and can be removed without exposing a generic shared account. This item belongs to a different control area: External guest collaboration. Its appropriate purpose is: B2B collaboration supports external users while preserving explicit guest access and tenant policy boundaries. For the stated case, Self-service password reset is the closer match. SSPR helps account recovery; it does not grant additional resource authorization or bypass verification.

C:

Configured controls respond to risky sign-ins or compromised-user signals and investigations track resolution. This item belongs to a different control area: Identity Protection risk detection. Its appropriate purpose is: Identity Protection detects identity-related risk signals; a generic role assignment alone does not assess risk. For the stated case, Self-service password reset is the closer match. SSPR helps account recovery; it does not grant additional resource authorization or bypass verification.

D:

The intended application sessions are governed and unrelated apps are not accidentally blocked. This item belongs to a different control area: Conditional Access application targeting. Its appropriate purpose is: A policy should be tested for targeted principals and applications, with emergency-access exclusions where appropriate. For the stated case, Self-service password reset is the closer match. SSPR helps account recovery; it does not grant additional resource authorization or bypass verification.

Question 465

A data team discovers application access granted years ago with no recertification process. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.

  1. Expected in-scope users and attribute updates appear in Entra ID without duplicate cloud accounts.
  2. Inspect the review scope, reviewer decisions, cadence and application of review results.
  3. Inspect the resource's system- or user-assigned identity and its destination-resource RBAC grants.
  4. Scope Conditional Access to selected cloud applications and test policy results before enforcement.
  5. Schedule Microsoft Entra access reviews to let owners recertify whether users still need access.

Explanation

Correct Answers

B:

Inspect the review scope, reviewer decisions, cadence and application of review results. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Access reviews periodically reassess existing permissions, unlike a new initial access request.

E:

Schedule Microsoft Entra access reviews to let owners recertify whether users still need access. This is the directly applicable response. Access reviews periodically reassess existing permissions, unlike a new initial access request.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Expected in-scope users and attribute updates appear in Entra ID without duplicate cloud accounts. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Entra Connect synchronization. Its appropriate purpose is: Directory synchronization must be scoped and observed; enabling it without verifying source objects can create identity drift. For the stated case, Access reviews is the closer match. Access reviews periodically reassess existing permissions, unlike a new initial access request.

C:

Inspect the resource's system- or user-assigned identity and its destination-resource RBAC grants. This item belongs to a different control area: Managed identities. Its appropriate purpose is: Managed identities remove workload credential handling for supported Azure resources but still require appropriate authorization. For the stated case, Access reviews is the closer match. Access reviews periodically reassess existing permissions, unlike a new initial access request.

D:

Scope Conditional Access to selected cloud applications and test policy results before enforcement. This item belongs to a different control area: Conditional Access application targeting. Its appropriate purpose is: A policy should be tested for targeted principals and applications, with emergency-access exclusions where appropriate. For the stated case, Access reviews is the closer match. Access reviews periodically reassess existing permissions, unlike a new initial access request.

Question 466

A security manager wants to trace cloud technical findings into a compliance framework dashboard. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?

  1. Use Microsoft Defender for Cloud Apps discovery to identify and assess cloud applications used by the organization.
  2. Use Defender for Cloud regulatory compliance views to map cloud resource findings to applicable standards.
  3. Use Microsoft Sentinel incidents and investigation context to triage related alerts and affected entities.
  4. Use Microsoft Defender for Identity to detect suspicious identity activity involving supported on-premises Active Directory environments.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Use Defender for Cloud regulatory compliance views to map cloud resource findings to applicable standards. This is the directly applicable response. Regulatory compliance views relate assessed technical controls to frameworks; they do not by themselves certify organizational legal compliance.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Use Microsoft Defender for Cloud Apps discovery to identify and assess cloud applications used by the organization. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Cloud Apps discovery. Its appropriate purpose is: Cloud app discovery assesses shadow IT usage, not the same task as investigating on-premises domain controller compromise. For the stated case, Defender for Cloud regulatory compliance is the closer match. Regulatory compliance views relate assessed technical controls to frameworks; they do not by themselves certify organizational legal compliance.

C:

Use Microsoft Sentinel incidents and investigation context to triage related alerts and affected entities. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Sentinel incident investigation. Its appropriate purpose is: Incident management helps investigate and coordinate alerts; it differs from automatic enforcement through a playbook. For the stated case, Defender for Cloud regulatory compliance is the closer match. Regulatory compliance views relate assessed technical controls to frameworks; they do not by themselves certify organizational legal compliance.

D:

Use Microsoft Defender for Identity to detect suspicious identity activity involving supported on-premises Active Directory environments. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Identity. Its appropriate purpose is: Defender for Identity monitors on-premises identity threats and domain controller signals; it is not a cloud app SaaS discovery catalog. For the stated case, Defender for Cloud regulatory compliance is the closer match. Regulatory compliance views relate assessed technical controls to frameworks; they do not by themselves certify organizational legal compliance.

Question 467

A service desk agent must manage user passwords but should not manage tenantwide security configurations. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?

  1. Apply Microsoft Entra Password Protection policies and custom banned-password screening where supported.
  2. Offer phishing-resistant FIDO2 passkey authentication with supported Microsoft Entra methods.
  3. Enable self-service password reset with verified registration and appropriate identity checks for eligible users.
  4. Assign the least-privileged supported Microsoft Entra administrative role for a directory task.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Assign the least-privileged supported Microsoft Entra administrative role for a directory task. This is the directly applicable response. Entra administrative roles govern directory and identity operations; Azure resource RBAC is a separate scope model.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Apply Microsoft Entra Password Protection policies and custom banned-password screening where supported. This item belongs to a different control area: Password protection. Its appropriate purpose is: Password protection blocks weak password choices; it does not replace MFA or a full identity risk policy. For the stated case, Microsoft Entra role-based access control is the closer match. Entra administrative roles govern directory and identity operations; Azure resource RBAC is a separate scope model.

B:

Offer phishing-resistant FIDO2 passkey authentication with supported Microsoft Entra methods. This item belongs to a different control area: Passkeys and FIDO2. Its appropriate purpose is: FIDO2 passkeys bind authentication to the legitimate relying party and resist credential phishing more effectively than SMS codes. For the stated case, Microsoft Entra role-based access control is the closer match. Entra administrative roles govern directory and identity operations; Azure resource RBAC is a separate scope model.

C:

Enable self-service password reset with verified registration and appropriate identity checks for eligible users. This item belongs to a different control area: Self-service password reset. Its appropriate purpose is: SSPR helps account recovery; it does not grant additional resource authorization or bypass verification. For the stated case, Microsoft Entra role-based access control is the closer match. Entra administrative roles govern directory and identity operations; Azure resource RBAC is a separate scope model.

Question 468

An Azure function reads secrets from a vault and the developer wants to eliminate a client secret in configuration. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?

  1. The workload accesses only the granted resource and no static application credential is embedded in code.
  2. Stale access is removed or explicitly reaffirmed according to the completed review decisions.
  3. Privileged permissions become active for approved windows and do not remain permanently assigned without need.
  4. The specified lifecycle event triggers consistent identity tasks and leaves auditable results.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

The workload accesses only the granted resource and no static application credential is embedded in code. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. Managed identities remove workload credential handling for supported Azure resources but still require appropriate authorization.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Stale access is removed or explicitly reaffirmed according to the completed review decisions. This item belongs to a different control area: Access reviews. Its appropriate purpose is: Access reviews periodically reassess existing permissions, unlike a new initial access request. For the stated case, Managed identities is the closer match. Managed identities remove workload credential handling for supported Azure resources but still require appropriate authorization.

C:

Privileged permissions become active for approved windows and do not remain permanently assigned without need. This item belongs to a different control area: Privileged Identity Management eligible roles. Its appropriate purpose is: PIM reduces standing privilege and provides just-in-time activation controls for supported roles. For the stated case, Managed identities is the closer match. Managed identities remove workload credential handling for supported Azure resources but still require appropriate authorization.

D:

The specified lifecycle event triggers consistent identity tasks and leaves auditable results. This item belongs to a different control area: Lifecycle workflows. Its appropriate purpose is: Lifecycle workflows automate repeatable identity onboarding and offboarding tasks; review of ongoing entitlements remains a separate control. For the stated case, Managed identities is the closer match. Managed identities remove workload credential handling for supported Azure resources but still require appropriate authorization.

Question 469

A security operator wants one console to triage Defender endpoint and email alerts. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.

  1. Use the Microsoft Defender portal to review integrated Defender alerts, incidents and security investigations.
  2. Inspect key or certificate versions, permissions and renewal or rotation configuration.
  3. Security owners see prioritized exposures and applicable workload detections in the expected scope.
  4. Inspect portal incident queues, product-specific alerts, assets and investigation links.
  5. Configure Microsoft Sentinel analytics rules to detect defined suspicious patterns in ingested security data.

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

Use the Microsoft Defender portal to review integrated Defender alerts, incidents and security investigations. This is the directly applicable response. The Defender portal provides a unified security operations interface; it is not a replacement for configuring every underlying product.

D:

Inspect portal incident queues, product-specific alerts, assets and investigation links. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. The Defender portal provides a unified security operations interface; it is not a replacement for configuring every underlying product.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Inspect key or certificate versions, permissions and renewal or rotation configuration. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure Key Vault keys and certificates. Its appropriate purpose is: Key Vault supports cryptographic key and certificate lifecycle; secret storage alone is not a substitute for proper key policy. For the stated case, Microsoft Defender portal is the closer match. The Defender portal provides a unified security operations interface; it is not a replacement for configuring every underlying product.

C:

Security owners see prioritized exposures and applicable workload detections in the expected scope. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Cloud unified security posture. Its appropriate purpose is: Defender for Cloud combines CSPM and cloud workload protection capabilities; it is not the same as a single network security group. For the stated case, Microsoft Defender portal is the closer match. The Defender portal provides a unified security operations interface; it is not a replacement for configuring every underlying product.

E:

Configure Microsoft Sentinel analytics rules to detect defined suspicious patterns in ingested security data. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Sentinel analytics rules. Its appropriate purpose is: Sentinel analytics rules evaluate telemetry to raise detections; collecting logs alone is insufficient to identify a defined pattern. For the stated case, Microsoft Defender portal is the closer match. The Defender portal provides a unified security operations interface; it is not a replacement for configuring every underlying product.

Question 470

A finance team must stop accidental sharing of payment card information through corporate email. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?

  1. A privacy review can explain how personal information is governed and how customers exercise supported data controls.
  2. Test sharing of covered sensitive data triggers the intended warning, block or audit action as configured.
  3. Completed validated actions appropriately change the calculated progress score while gaps remain visible.
  4. Assessment owners can see outstanding control work, evidence and completion status for the chosen framework.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Test sharing of covered sensitive data triggers the intended warning, block or audit action as configured. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. DLP controls risky data movement based on policy conditions; labeling alone does not enforce every transmission restriction.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A privacy review can explain how personal information is governed and how customers exercise supported data controls. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft privacy principles. Its appropriate purpose is: Privacy principles guide responsible data handling and transparency; they do not automatically classify every document. For the stated case, Data loss prevention policies is the closer match. DLP controls risky data movement based on policy conditions; labeling alone does not enforce every transmission restriction.

C:

Completed validated actions appropriately change the calculated progress score while gaps remain visible. This item belongs to a different control area: Compliance score. Its appropriate purpose is: Compliance score measures tracked improvement progress; it is not a universal regulatory certification or breach-risk guarantee. For the stated case, Data loss prevention policies is the closer match. DLP controls risky data movement based on policy conditions; labeling alone does not enforce every transmission restriction.

D:

Assessment owners can see outstanding control work, evidence and completion status for the chosen framework. This item belongs to a different control area: Compliance Manager. Its appropriate purpose is: Compliance Manager maps control activities and improvements; it does not automatically guarantee legal compliance. For the stated case, Data loss prevention policies is the closer match. DLP controls risky data movement based on policy conditions; labeling alone does not enforce every transmission restriction.

Microsoft Security, Compliance, and Identity Fundamentals (SC-900) Practice Tests