Microsoft SC-900 Practice Test 46
Question 450
A developer wants to confirm that a downloaded installation package matches the publisher's trusted digest. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.
- Authenticate the principal first and separately authorize only the permitted resource actions.
- Compare a securely computed digest with a trusted expected digest or properly managed password verifier.
- Review the federation trust, issuer metadata, accepted tokens and sign-in transaction records.
- Use a suitable one-way cryptographic hash to check integrity rather than recover an original secret.
- The application accepts the intended provider's authenticated users and respects account disablement and configured access.
Explanation
Correct Answers
B:Compare a securely computed digest with a trusted expected digest or properly managed password verifier. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Hashing supports integrity checks or password verification when designed correctly; hashing by itself does not provide encryption or confidentiality.
D:Use a suitable one-way cryptographic hash to check integrity rather than recover an original secret. This is the directly applicable response. Hashing supports integrity checks or password verification when designed correctly; hashing by itself does not provide encryption or confidentiality.
Incorrect Answers
A:Authenticate the principal first and separately authorize only the permitted resource actions. This item belongs to a different control area: Authentication and authorization. Its appropriate purpose is: Authentication proves identity or possession of credentials; authorization determines what that identity may do. For the stated case, Cryptographic hashing is the closer match. Hashing supports integrity checks or password verification when designed correctly; hashing by itself does not provide encryption or confidentiality.
C:Review the federation trust, issuer metadata, accepted tokens and sign-in transaction records. This item belongs to a different control area: Identity federation. Its appropriate purpose is: Federation extends authentication trust across security domains; it does not automatically grant unrestricted permissions. For the stated case, Cryptographic hashing is the closer match. Hashing supports integrity checks or password verification when designed correctly; hashing by itself does not provide encryption or confidentiality.
E:The application accepts the intended provider's authenticated users and respects account disablement and configured access. This item belongs to a different control area: Identity providers and directories. Its appropriate purpose is: An identity provider handles authentication while a directory stores and organizes identities and attributes; neither equals the protected application. For the stated case, Cryptographic hashing is the closer match. Hashing supports integrity checks or password verification when designed correctly; hashing by itself does not provide encryption or confidentiality.
Question 451
An internal investigation must find relevant communication records while avoiding accidental alteration. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?
- Use Microsoft Purview eDiscovery to identify, preserve and collect relevant content for authorized investigations.
- Configure Microsoft Purview data loss prevention policies to detect and control defined sensitive-data sharing in supported workloads.
- Use Microsoft Purview Compliance Manager to organize improvement actions and track regulatory assessment progress.
- Use Microsoft Purview Activity explorer to review events associated with labels and protection activities in supported workloads.
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:Use Microsoft Purview eDiscovery to identify, preserve and collect relevant content for authorized investigations. This is the directly applicable response. eDiscovery supports legal and regulatory evidence workflows; it is distinct from real-time data loss prevention.
Incorrect Answers
B:Configure Microsoft Purview data loss prevention policies to detect and control defined sensitive-data sharing in supported workloads. This item belongs to a different control area: Data loss prevention policies. Its appropriate purpose is: DLP controls risky data movement based on policy conditions; labeling alone does not enforce every transmission restriction. For the stated case, Microsoft Purview eDiscovery is the closer match. eDiscovery supports legal and regulatory evidence workflows; it is distinct from real-time data loss prevention.
C:Use Microsoft Purview Compliance Manager to organize improvement actions and track regulatory assessment progress. This item belongs to a different control area: Compliance Manager. Its appropriate purpose is: Compliance Manager maps control activities and improvements; it does not automatically guarantee legal compliance. For the stated case, Microsoft Purview eDiscovery is the closer match. eDiscovery supports legal and regulatory evidence workflows; it is distinct from real-time data loss prevention.
D:Use Microsoft Purview Activity explorer to review events associated with labels and protection activities in supported workloads. This item belongs to a different control area: Activity explorer. Its appropriate purpose is: Activity explorer focuses on what happened to data, unlike Content explorer's inventory of classified content. For the stated case, Microsoft Purview eDiscovery is the closer match. eDiscovery supports legal and regulatory evidence workflows; it is distinct from real-time data loss prevention.
Question 452
A company needs enforceable protection against certain sensitive data leaving supported Microsoft 365 locations. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?
- Examine data handling notices, customer controls and the relevant published privacy commitments.
- Inspect DLP policy conditions, targeted locations, match events and user-facing policy outcomes.
- Inspect the relevant Purview solution pages, available roles and enabled features.
- Inspect eDiscovery cases, custodians, holds, search results and export or review actions.
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:Inspect DLP policy conditions, targeted locations, match events and user-facing policy outcomes. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. DLP controls risky data movement based on policy conditions; labeling alone does not enforce every transmission restriction.
Incorrect Answers
A:Examine data handling notices, customer controls and the relevant published privacy commitments. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft privacy principles. Its appropriate purpose is: Privacy principles guide responsible data handling and transparency; they do not automatically classify every document. For the stated case, Data loss prevention policies is the closer match. DLP controls risky data movement based on policy conditions; labeling alone does not enforce every transmission restriction.
C:Inspect the relevant Purview solution pages, available roles and enabled features. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Purview portal. Its appropriate purpose is: The Purview portal is a central interface for multiple compliance and data-governance solutions, not itself a finished compliance certification. For the stated case, Data loss prevention policies is the closer match. DLP controls risky data movement based on policy conditions; labeling alone does not enforce every transmission restriction.
D:Inspect eDiscovery cases, custodians, holds, search results and export or review actions. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Purview eDiscovery. Its appropriate purpose is: eDiscovery supports legal and regulatory evidence workflows; it is distinct from real-time data loss prevention. For the stated case, Data loss prevention policies is the closer match. DLP controls risky data movement based on policy conditions; labeling alone does not enforce every transmission restriction.
Question 453
An integration owner needs to identify which nonhuman principal is making repeated API calls. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.
- Inspect role definitions, active assignments and role audit events for tenant administrators.
- Register an application and control its service principal permissions for unattended application access.
- Test sign-ins from targeted and excluded networks receive the configured location-aware control.
- Deploy Windows Hello for Business for strong device-associated user authentication on supported Windows endpoints.
- Inspect application and service principal objects, consented permissions and authentication credential lifecycle.
Explanation
Correct Answers
B:Register an application and control its service principal permissions for unattended application access. This is the directly applicable response. Service principals represent applications or services rather than individual human users; credentials and consent must be governed.
E:Inspect application and service principal objects, consented permissions and authentication credential lifecycle. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Service principals represent applications or services rather than individual human users; credentials and consent must be governed.
Incorrect Answers
A:Inspect role definitions, active assignments and role audit events for tenant administrators. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Entra role-based access control. Its appropriate purpose is: Entra administrative roles govern directory and identity operations; Azure resource RBAC is a separate scope model. For the stated case, Service principals is the closer match. Service principals represent applications or services rather than individual human users; credentials and consent must be governed.
C:Test sign-ins from targeted and excluded networks receive the configured location-aware control. This item belongs to a different control area: Conditional Access locations. Its appropriate purpose is: Conditional Access can evaluate network locations alongside identities and risk, but location by itself should not be assumed trustworthy. For the stated case, Service principals is the closer match. Service principals represent applications or services rather than individual human users; credentials and consent must be governed.
D:Deploy Windows Hello for Business for strong device-associated user authentication on supported Windows endpoints. This item belongs to a different control area: Windows Hello for Business. Its appropriate purpose is: Windows Hello for Business replaces reusable password use in supported scenarios with device-bound asymmetric credentials and local user verification. For the stated case, Service principals is the closer match. Service principals represent applications or services rather than individual human users; credentials and consent must be governed.
Question 454
A tenant created a sensitivity label but staff cannot see it because no publication policy targets them. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?
- The compliance analyst can access the intended Purview capability under the appropriate permissions.
- Intended users can apply the approved label and the configured protection behaves on labeled content.
- The investigator finds applicable activity events and can document who performed an action and when.
- Assessment owners can see outstanding control work, evidence and completion status for the chosen framework.
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:Intended users can apply the approved label and the configured protection behaves on labeled content. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. Sensitivity labels classify content and may apply protection; labels must be made available through appropriate policy publishing.
Incorrect Answers
A:The compliance analyst can access the intended Purview capability under the appropriate permissions. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Purview portal. Its appropriate purpose is: The Purview portal is a central interface for multiple compliance and data-governance solutions, not itself a finished compliance certification. For the stated case, Sensitivity labels is the closer match. Sensitivity labels classify content and may apply protection; labels must be made available through appropriate policy publishing.
C:The investigator finds applicable activity events and can document who performed an action and when. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Purview Audit. Its appropriate purpose is: Audit provides activity logging and search, not a tool to classify documents or automatically enforce retention. For the stated case, Sensitivity labels is the closer match. Sensitivity labels classify content and may apply protection; labels must be made available through appropriate policy publishing.
D:Assessment owners can see outstanding control work, evidence and completion status for the chosen framework. This item belongs to a different control area: Compliance Manager. Its appropriate purpose is: Compliance Manager maps control activities and improvements; it does not automatically guarantee legal compliance. For the stated case, Sensitivity labels is the closer match. Sensitivity labels classify content and may apply protection; labels must be made available through appropriate policy publishing.
Question 455
A compliance team wants privacy-conscious investigation of repeated risky data transfer patterns by authorized employees. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.
- Inspect policy indicators, generated alerts, case evidence and role-controlled access.
- Completed validated actions appropriately change the calculated progress score while gaps remain visible.
- Use Microsoft Purview retention labels and publishing or auto-application policies for item-level lifecycle handling.
- Use Microsoft Purview Insider Risk Management to investigate configured potentially risky user activities under approved privacy safeguards.
- Examine data handling notices, customer controls and the relevant published privacy commitments.
Explanation
Correct Answers
A:Inspect policy indicators, generated alerts, case evidence and role-controlled access. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Insider risk policies correlate relevant insider indicators; they do not authorize indiscriminate surveillance or replace privacy and employment policy.
D:Use Microsoft Purview Insider Risk Management to investigate configured potentially risky user activities under approved privacy safeguards. This is the directly applicable response. Insider risk policies correlate relevant insider indicators; they do not authorize indiscriminate surveillance or replace privacy and employment policy.
Incorrect Answers
B:Completed validated actions appropriately change the calculated progress score while gaps remain visible. This item belongs to a different control area: Compliance score. Its appropriate purpose is: Compliance score measures tracked improvement progress; it is not a universal regulatory certification or breach-risk guarantee. For the stated case, Insider risk management is the closer match. Insider risk policies correlate relevant insider indicators; they do not authorize indiscriminate surveillance or replace privacy and employment policy.
C:Use Microsoft Purview retention labels and publishing or auto-application policies for item-level lifecycle handling. This item belongs to a different control area: Retention labels. Its appropriate purpose is: Retention labels govern specific items; a broad location-level retention policy does not provide the same fine-grained labeling behavior. For the stated case, Insider risk management is the closer match. Insider risk policies correlate relevant insider indicators; they do not authorize indiscriminate surveillance or replace privacy and employment policy.
E:Examine data handling notices, customer controls and the relevant published privacy commitments. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft privacy principles. Its appropriate purpose is: Privacy principles guide responsible data handling and transparency; they do not automatically classify every document. For the stated case, Insider risk management is the closer match. Insider risk policies correlate relevant insider indicators; they do not authorize indiscriminate surveillance or replace privacy and employment policy.
Question 456
An accounts clerk receives invoice attachments that may contain malware. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?
- Configure Microsoft Sentinel analytics rules to detect defined suspicious patterns in ingested security data.
- Use Azure Bastion to reach supported Azure VMs over RDP or SSH without exposing public management ports directly.
- Use Azure Firewall to centrally apply managed network and application traffic rules for Azure workloads.
- Use Defender for Office 365 Safe Attachments to analyze suspicious email attachments with configured protection policies.
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:Use Defender for Office 365 Safe Attachments to analyze suspicious email attachments with configured protection policies. This is the directly applicable response. Safe Attachments focuses on file-based email threats, whereas Safe Links protects URLs.
Incorrect Answers
A:Configure Microsoft Sentinel analytics rules to detect defined suspicious patterns in ingested security data. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Sentinel analytics rules. Its appropriate purpose is: Sentinel analytics rules evaluate telemetry to raise detections; collecting logs alone is insufficient to identify a defined pattern. For the stated case, Defender for Office 365 Safe Attachments is the closer match. Safe Attachments focuses on file-based email threats, whereas Safe Links protects URLs.
B:Use Azure Bastion to reach supported Azure VMs over RDP or SSH without exposing public management ports directly. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure Bastion. Its appropriate purpose is: Bastion supplies browser- or client-mediated secure VM management access; it is not a DDoS service. For the stated case, Defender for Office 365 Safe Attachments is the closer match. Safe Attachments focuses on file-based email threats, whereas Safe Links protects URLs.
C:Use Azure Firewall to centrally apply managed network and application traffic rules for Azure workloads. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure Firewall. Its appropriate purpose is: Azure Firewall is a managed stateful network security service; it is not an identity provider or a retention tool. For the stated case, Defender for Office 365 Safe Attachments is the closer match. Safe Attachments focuses on file-based email threats, whereas Safe Links protects URLs.
Question 457
An administrator wants to replace network-location trust with identity-based gates for a SaaS portal. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?
- The responsibility matrix explicitly assigns customer-managed safeguards and those settings have accountable owners.
- Only validated principals with appropriate entitlements can reach sensitive cloud resources regardless of location.
- A modified input produces a different computed digest while an unchanged trusted item passes the comparison.
- Access decisions re-evaluate context and give only the privileges required for an approved task.
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:Only validated principals with appropriate entitlements can reach sensitive cloud resources regardless of location. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. Cloud users and workloads access resources from varied networks, making authenticated identity and authorization central boundaries.
Incorrect Answers
A:The responsibility matrix explicitly assigns customer-managed safeguards and those settings have accountable owners. This item belongs to a different control area: Cloud shared responsibility. Its appropriate purpose is: Shared responsibility divides security obligations according to the cloud service model; provider data-center security does not replace tenant controls. For the stated case, Identity as security perimeter is the closer match. Cloud users and workloads access resources from varied networks, making authenticated identity and authorization central boundaries.
C:A modified input produces a different computed digest while an unchanged trusted item passes the comparison. This item belongs to a different control area: Cryptographic hashing. Its appropriate purpose is: Hashing supports integrity checks or password verification when designed correctly; hashing by itself does not provide encryption or confidentiality. For the stated case, Identity as security perimeter is the closer match. Cloud users and workloads access resources from varied networks, making authenticated identity and authorization central boundaries.
D:Access decisions re-evaluate context and give only the privileges required for an approved task. This item belongs to a different control area: Zero Trust. Its appropriate purpose is: Zero Trust does not automatically trust a user, device or connection because it originates on a corporate network. For the stated case, Identity as security perimeter is the closer match. Cloud users and workloads access resources from varied networks, making authenticated identity and authorization central boundaries.
Question 458
A security team wants consistent logging and managed policy for traffic leaving multiple VNets. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?
- The targeted risky process behavior is blocked without unnecessarily disrupting approved workloads.
- Only approved flows traverse the central firewall while prohibited traffic is logged or denied.
- The compliance dashboard reflects assessment status and supporting remediation evidence for selected standards.
- The intended risky session action is monitored or restricted according to configured controls.
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:Only approved flows traverse the central firewall while prohibited traffic is logged or denied. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. Azure Firewall is a managed stateful network security service; it is not an identity provider or a retention tool.
Incorrect Answers
A:The targeted risky process behavior is blocked without unnecessarily disrupting approved workloads. This item belongs to a different control area: Endpoint attack surface reduction. Its appropriate purpose is: ASR rules reduce common exploit paths on endpoints and can be tested in audit mode before enforcement. For the stated case, Azure Firewall is the closer match. Azure Firewall is a managed stateful network security service; it is not an identity provider or a retention tool.
C:The compliance dashboard reflects assessment status and supporting remediation evidence for selected standards. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Cloud regulatory compliance. Its appropriate purpose is: Regulatory compliance views relate assessed technical controls to frameworks; they do not by themselves certify organizational legal compliance. For the stated case, Azure Firewall is the closer match. Azure Firewall is a managed stateful network security service; it is not an identity provider or a retention tool.
D:The intended risky session action is monitored or restricted according to configured controls. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Cloud Apps session controls. Its appropriate purpose is: Session controls provide real-time governance of supported cloud app activities; discovery alone does not enforce session behaviors. For the stated case, Azure Firewall is the closer match. Azure Firewall is a managed stateful network security service; it is not an identity provider or a retention tool.
Question 459
A project needs automatic tagging of selected content with an appropriate lifecycle rule where supported. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.
- Inspect score breakdown, applicable improvement actions and updates to action completion.
- A qualifying risky activity is triaged through the authorized insider-risk workflow with documented disposition.
- Inspect label configuration, policy publication or auto-application scope and labeled item status.
- Use Microsoft Purview eDiscovery to identify, preserve and collect relevant content for authorized investigations.
- Use Microsoft Purview retention labels and publishing or auto-application policies for item-level lifecycle handling.
Explanation
Correct Answers
C:Inspect label configuration, policy publication or auto-application scope and labeled item status. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Retention labels govern specific items; a broad location-level retention policy does not provide the same fine-grained labeling behavior.
E:Use Microsoft Purview retention labels and publishing or auto-application policies for item-level lifecycle handling. This is the directly applicable response. Retention labels govern specific items; a broad location-level retention policy does not provide the same fine-grained labeling behavior.
Incorrect Answers
A:Inspect score breakdown, applicable improvement actions and updates to action completion. This item belongs to a different control area: Compliance score. Its appropriate purpose is: Compliance score measures tracked improvement progress; it is not a universal regulatory certification or breach-risk guarantee. For the stated case, Retention labels is the closer match. Retention labels govern specific items; a broad location-level retention policy does not provide the same fine-grained labeling behavior.
B:A qualifying risky activity is triaged through the authorized insider-risk workflow with documented disposition. This item belongs to a different control area: Insider risk management. Its appropriate purpose is: Insider risk policies correlate relevant insider indicators; they do not authorize indiscriminate surveillance or replace privacy and employment policy. For the stated case, Retention labels is the closer match. Retention labels govern specific items; a broad location-level retention policy does not provide the same fine-grained labeling behavior.
D:Use Microsoft Purview eDiscovery to identify, preserve and collect relevant content for authorized investigations. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Purview eDiscovery. Its appropriate purpose is: eDiscovery supports legal and regulatory evidence workflows; it is distinct from real-time data loss prevention. For the stated case, Retention labels is the closer match. Retention labels govern specific items; a broad location-level retention policy does not provide the same fine-grained labeling behavior.
Question 460
An organization moves an application to cloud hosting but needs to rely on its established corporate sign-in provider. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?
- A modified input produces a different computed digest while an unchanged trusted item passes the comparison.
- External identities sign in through the trusted home provider and receive only the application's authorized access.
- A controlled test shows protected ciphertext at rest and secure transport during approved client communication.
- Risks have assigned treatment decisions and controls have evidence linked to applicable requirements.
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:External identities sign in through the trusted home provider and receive only the application's authorized access. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. Federation extends authentication trust across security domains; it does not automatically grant unrestricted permissions.
Incorrect Answers
A:A modified input produces a different computed digest while an unchanged trusted item passes the comparison. This item belongs to a different control area: Cryptographic hashing. Its appropriate purpose is: Hashing supports integrity checks or password verification when designed correctly; hashing by itself does not provide encryption or confidentiality. For the stated case, Identity federation is the closer match. Federation extends authentication trust across security domains; it does not automatically grant unrestricted permissions.
C:A controlled test shows protected ciphertext at rest and secure transport during approved client communication. This item belongs to a different control area: Encryption. Its appropriate purpose is: Encryption makes data unreadable to an unauthorized party without the appropriate key; it differs from a one-way hash. For the stated case, Identity federation is the closer match. Federation extends authentication trust across security domains; it does not automatically grant unrestricted permissions.
D:Risks have assigned treatment decisions and controls have evidence linked to applicable requirements. This item belongs to a different control area: Governance risk and compliance. Its appropriate purpose is: Governance sets direction, risk management evaluates exposure, and compliance verifies obligations against controls. For the stated case, Identity federation is the closer match. Federation extends authentication trust across security domains; it does not automatically grant unrestricted permissions.