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Microsoft SC-900 Practice Test 40

Question 390

A laptop launches a suspicious executable and the SOC needs process-tree investigation. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?

  1. Inspect posture findings, resource coverage, attack paths where available and suggested remediations.
  2. Inspect firewall policies, rule collections, traffic logs and routed connection paths.
  3. Inspect onboarded device inventory, detection alerts, process timelines and investigation findings.
  4. Inspect vault secrets, access configuration, audit logs and consuming identity permissions.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Inspect onboarded device inventory, detection alerts, process timelines and investigation findings. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Endpoint detection and response targets device-level malicious behavior, not Microsoft 365 document retention.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect posture findings, resource coverage, attack paths where available and suggested remediations. This item belongs to a different control area: Cloud Security Posture Management. Its appropriate purpose is: CSPM evaluates configuration and exposure risk proactively, rather than solely responding to an endpoint malware alert. For the stated case, Defender for Endpoint EDR is the closer match. Endpoint detection and response targets device-level malicious behavior, not Microsoft 365 document retention.

B:

Inspect firewall policies, rule collections, traffic logs and routed connection paths. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure Firewall. Its appropriate purpose is: Azure Firewall is a managed stateful network security service; it is not an identity provider or a retention tool. For the stated case, Defender for Endpoint EDR is the closer match. Endpoint detection and response targets device-level malicious behavior, not Microsoft 365 document retention.

D:

Inspect vault secrets, access configuration, audit logs and consuming identity permissions. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure Key Vault secrets. Its appropriate purpose is: Key Vault manages keys, secrets and certificates; it is not a general-purpose file storage or SIEM service. For the stated case, Defender for Endpoint EDR is the closer match. Endpoint detection and response targets device-level malicious behavior, not Microsoft 365 document retention.

Question 391

An operations group must keep emergency access distinct from ordinary just-in-time privileged activity. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.

  1. Inspect registered passkey credentials, permitted authentication-method settings and sign-in method details.
  2. Use Microsoft Entra Privileged Identity Management to require time-limited activation of eligible privileged roles.
  3. Inspect PIM eligible and active assignments, activation policies and role activation logs.
  4. Require an additional authentication factor for relevant user sign-ins using supported Entra MFA methods.
  5. The engineer can perform the allowed resource action but cannot manage unrelated resources or tenant identity settings.

Explanation

Correct Answers

B:

Use Microsoft Entra Privileged Identity Management to require time-limited activation of eligible privileged roles. This is the directly applicable response. PIM reduces standing privilege and provides just-in-time activation controls for supported roles.

C:

Inspect PIM eligible and active assignments, activation policies and role activation logs. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. PIM reduces standing privilege and provides just-in-time activation controls for supported roles.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect registered passkey credentials, permitted authentication-method settings and sign-in method details. This item belongs to a different control area: Passkeys and FIDO2. Its appropriate purpose is: FIDO2 passkeys bind authentication to the legitimate relying party and resist credential phishing more effectively than SMS codes. For the stated case, Privileged Identity Management eligible roles is the closer match. PIM reduces standing privilege and provides just-in-time activation controls for supported roles.

D:

Require an additional authentication factor for relevant user sign-ins using supported Entra MFA methods. This item belongs to a different control area: Multifactor authentication. Its appropriate purpose is: MFA combines different factor categories to reduce account takeover from a stolen password alone. For the stated case, Privileged Identity Management eligible roles is the closer match. PIM reduces standing privilege and provides just-in-time activation controls for supported roles.

E:

The engineer can perform the allowed resource action but cannot manage unrelated resources or tenant identity settings. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure resource RBAC versus Entra roles. Its appropriate purpose is: Azure RBAC governs Azure resource permissions, whereas Microsoft Entra roles govern directory services. For the stated case, Privileged Identity Management eligible roles is the closer match. PIM reduces standing privilege and provides just-in-time activation controls for supported roles.

Question 392

A small charity adopts a cloud SaaS offering and assumes it no longer needs to manage user access or its own data. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.

  1. Inspect identity records, provider trust configuration, account lifecycle status and application sign-in integration.
  2. A verified sign-in succeeds without automatically allowing operations that the identity has not been granted.
  3. Apply the customer's responsibility for identities, data and cloud configuration rather than assuming the provider performs every control.
  4. Inspect the service model and the tenant's IAM, application, data and guest-OS control assignments.
  5. Protect and verify identities as a primary perimeter for cloud access rather than relying only on a building network.

Explanation

Correct Answers

C:

Apply the customer's responsibility for identities, data and cloud configuration rather than assuming the provider performs every control. This is the directly applicable response. Shared responsibility divides security obligations according to the cloud service model; provider data-center security does not replace tenant controls.

D:

Inspect the service model and the tenant's IAM, application, data and guest-OS control assignments. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Shared responsibility divides security obligations according to the cloud service model; provider data-center security does not replace tenant controls.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect identity records, provider trust configuration, account lifecycle status and application sign-in integration. This item belongs to a different control area: Identity providers and directories. Its appropriate purpose is: An identity provider handles authentication while a directory stores and organizes identities and attributes; neither equals the protected application. For the stated case, Cloud shared responsibility is the closer match. Shared responsibility divides security obligations according to the cloud service model; provider data-center security does not replace tenant controls.

B:

A verified sign-in succeeds without automatically allowing operations that the identity has not been granted. This item belongs to a different control area: Authentication and authorization. Its appropriate purpose is: Authentication proves identity or possession of credentials; authorization determines what that identity may do. For the stated case, Cloud shared responsibility is the closer match. Shared responsibility divides security obligations according to the cloud service model; provider data-center security does not replace tenant controls.

E:

Protect and verify identities as a primary perimeter for cloud access rather than relying only on a building network. This item belongs to a different control area: Identity as security perimeter. Its appropriate purpose is: Cloud users and workloads access resources from varied networks, making authenticated identity and authorization central boundaries. For the stated case, Cloud shared responsibility is the closer match. Shared responsibility divides security obligations according to the cloud service model; provider data-center security does not replace tenant controls.

Question 393

A compliance program needs standard security configuration expectations across multiple cloud subscriptions. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.

  1. Use Defender for Office 365 Safe Links policies to evaluate and protect users from malicious links in supported email and collaboration scenarios.
  2. Use security policies, standards and recommendations to drive governed cloud configuration hardening.
  3. Inspect NSG effective rules, priority ordering and flow evaluation for the affected network interface.
  4. Inspect policy assignments, noncompliant resources and recommendation-to-remediation mappings.
  5. A qualifying incident triggers the approved response steps with auditable execution results.

Explanation

Correct Answers

B:

Use security policies, standards and recommendations to drive governed cloud configuration hardening. This is the directly applicable response. A recommendation identifies a technical improvement; a documented policy or assigned standard provides expectations for assessed resources.

D:

Inspect policy assignments, noncompliant resources and recommendation-to-remediation mappings. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. A recommendation identifies a technical improvement; a documented policy or assigned standard provides expectations for assessed resources.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Use Defender for Office 365 Safe Links policies to evaluate and protect users from malicious links in supported email and collaboration scenarios. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Office 365 Safe Links. Its appropriate purpose is: Safe Links addresses URL-based threats; it does not inspect attached files for malware. For the stated case, Cloud security policies and recommendations is the closer match. A recommendation identifies a technical improvement; a documented policy or assigned standard provides expectations for assessed resources.

C:

Inspect NSG effective rules, priority ordering and flow evaluation for the affected network interface. This item belongs to a different control area: Network security groups. Its appropriate purpose is: NSGs provide ordered L3/L4 traffic filtering in Azure, not deep web-request inspection. For the stated case, Cloud security policies and recommendations is the closer match. A recommendation identifies a technical improvement; a documented policy or assigned standard provides expectations for assessed resources.

E:

A qualifying incident triggers the approved response steps with auditable execution results. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Sentinel SOAR playbooks. Its appropriate purpose is: SOAR automates and orchestrates workflows; it complements rather than replaces detection analytics and human judgment. For the stated case, Cloud security policies and recommendations is the closer match. A recommendation identifies a technical improvement; a documented policy or assigned standard provides expectations for assessed resources.

Question 394

An integration owner needs to identify which nonhuman principal is making repeated API calls. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?

  1. The automation receives only its consented permissions and unused credentials are removed or rotated.
  2. Users unlock or authenticate with a local gesture backed by a device-bound cryptographic credential.
  3. The operator can perform the approved directory task without access to unrelated privileged functions.
  4. Test sign-ins from targeted and excluded networks receive the configured location-aware control.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

The automation receives only its consented permissions and unused credentials are removed or rotated. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. Service principals represent applications or services rather than individual human users; credentials and consent must be governed.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Users unlock or authenticate with a local gesture backed by a device-bound cryptographic credential. This item belongs to a different control area: Windows Hello for Business. Its appropriate purpose is: Windows Hello for Business replaces reusable password use in supported scenarios with device-bound asymmetric credentials and local user verification. For the stated case, Service principals is the closer match. Service principals represent applications or services rather than individual human users; credentials and consent must be governed.

C:

The operator can perform the approved directory task without access to unrelated privileged functions. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Entra role-based access control. Its appropriate purpose is: Entra administrative roles govern directory and identity operations; Azure resource RBAC is a separate scope model. For the stated case, Service principals is the closer match. Service principals represent applications or services rather than individual human users; credentials and consent must be governed.

D:

Test sign-ins from targeted and excluded networks receive the configured location-aware control. This item belongs to a different control area: Conditional Access locations. Its appropriate purpose is: Conditional Access can evaluate network locations alongside identities and risk, but location by itself should not be assumed trustworthy. For the stated case, Service principals is the closer match. Service principals represent applications or services rather than individual human users; credentials and consent must be governed.

Question 395

A quarterly audit asks department owners to attest that privileged group memberships are still justified. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?

  1. Inspect the review scope, reviewer decisions, cadence and application of review results.
  2. Inspect application and service principal objects, consented permissions and authentication credential lifecycle.
  3. Inspect the resource's system- or user-assigned identity and its destination-resource RBAC grants.
  4. Inspect banned-password lists, password change results and protection audit or enforcement events.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Inspect the review scope, reviewer decisions, cadence and application of review results. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Access reviews periodically reassess existing permissions, unlike a new initial access request.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Inspect application and service principal objects, consented permissions and authentication credential lifecycle. This item belongs to a different control area: Service principals. Its appropriate purpose is: Service principals represent applications or services rather than individual human users; credentials and consent must be governed. For the stated case, Access reviews is the closer match. Access reviews periodically reassess existing permissions, unlike a new initial access request.

C:

Inspect the resource's system- or user-assigned identity and its destination-resource RBAC grants. This item belongs to a different control area: Managed identities. Its appropriate purpose is: Managed identities remove workload credential handling for supported Azure resources but still require appropriate authorization. For the stated case, Access reviews is the closer match. Access reviews periodically reassess existing permissions, unlike a new initial access request.

D:

Inspect banned-password lists, password change results and protection audit or enforcement events. This item belongs to a different control area: Password protection. Its appropriate purpose is: Password protection blocks weak password choices; it does not replace MFA or a full identity risk policy. For the stated case, Access reviews is the closer match. Access reviews periodically reassess existing permissions, unlike a new initial access request.

Question 396

An accounts clerk receives invoice attachments that may contain malware. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.

  1. Inspect Safe Attachments policy scope, file verdicts and attachment detection reports.
  2. Use Azure Firewall to centrally apply managed network and application traffic rules for Azure workloads.
  3. Test events meeting detection criteria produce expected alerts or incidents without overwhelming false positives.
  4. Use Defender for Office 365 Safe Attachments to analyze suspicious email attachments with configured protection policies.
  5. Inspect Bastion deployment, VM public IP assignments and management connection paths.

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

Inspect Safe Attachments policy scope, file verdicts and attachment detection reports. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Safe Attachments focuses on file-based email threats, whereas Safe Links protects URLs.

D:

Use Defender for Office 365 Safe Attachments to analyze suspicious email attachments with configured protection policies. This is the directly applicable response. Safe Attachments focuses on file-based email threats, whereas Safe Links protects URLs.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Use Azure Firewall to centrally apply managed network and application traffic rules for Azure workloads. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure Firewall. Its appropriate purpose is: Azure Firewall is a managed stateful network security service; it is not an identity provider or a retention tool. For the stated case, Defender for Office 365 Safe Attachments is the closer match. Safe Attachments focuses on file-based email threats, whereas Safe Links protects URLs.

C:

Test events meeting detection criteria produce expected alerts or incidents without overwhelming false positives. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Sentinel analytics rules. Its appropriate purpose is: Sentinel analytics rules evaluate telemetry to raise detections; collecting logs alone is insufficient to identify a defined pattern. For the stated case, Defender for Office 365 Safe Attachments is the closer match. Safe Attachments focuses on file-based email threats, whereas Safe Links protects URLs.

E:

Inspect Bastion deployment, VM public IP assignments and management connection paths. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure Bastion. Its appropriate purpose is: Bastion supplies browser- or client-mediated secure VM management access; it is not a DDoS service. For the stated case, Defender for Office 365 Safe Attachments is the closer match. Safe Attachments focuses on file-based email threats, whereas Safe Links protects URLs.

Question 397

A regulated workload must limit which service identities can operate on a sensitive cryptographic key. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?

  1. Analysts can connect relevant observed indicators with contextualized threat information to guide investigation.
  2. The approved service can use the intended material and unauthorized key operations are refused.
  3. Supported malicious link access is blocked or warned according to the configured policy.
  4. A qualifying incident triggers the approved response steps with auditable execution results.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

The approved service can use the intended material and unauthorized key operations are refused. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. Key Vault supports cryptographic key and certificate lifecycle; secret storage alone is not a substitute for proper key policy.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Analysts can connect relevant observed indicators with contextualized threat information to guide investigation. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Threat Intelligence. Its appropriate purpose is: Threat intelligence adds context on threats and indicators; it does not by itself implement endpoint blocking or identity authorization. For the stated case, Azure Key Vault keys and certificates is the closer match. Key Vault supports cryptographic key and certificate lifecycle; secret storage alone is not a substitute for proper key policy.

C:

Supported malicious link access is blocked or warned according to the configured policy. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Office 365 Safe Links. Its appropriate purpose is: Safe Links addresses URL-based threats; it does not inspect attached files for malware. For the stated case, Azure Key Vault keys and certificates is the closer match. Key Vault supports cryptographic key and certificate lifecycle; secret storage alone is not a substitute for proper key policy.

D:

A qualifying incident triggers the approved response steps with auditable execution results. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Sentinel SOAR playbooks. Its appropriate purpose is: SOAR automates and orchestrates workflows; it complements rather than replaces detection analytics and human judgment. For the stated case, Azure Key Vault keys and certificates is the closer match. Key Vault supports cryptographic key and certificate lifecycle; secret storage alone is not a substitute for proper key policy.

Question 398

A SOC needs to distinguish risky authentication events from normal failed passwords when prioritizing account protection. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?

  1. The automation receives only its consented permissions and unused credentials are removed or rotated.
  2. Configured controls respond to risky sign-ins or compromised-user signals and investigations track resolution.
  3. Users sign in with the intended phishing-resistant cryptographic authentication method instead of sharing reusable secrets.
  4. The operator can perform the approved directory task without access to unrelated privileged functions.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Configured controls respond to risky sign-ins or compromised-user signals and investigations track resolution. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. Identity Protection detects identity-related risk signals; a generic role assignment alone does not assess risk.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The automation receives only its consented permissions and unused credentials are removed or rotated. This item belongs to a different control area: Service principals. Its appropriate purpose is: Service principals represent applications or services rather than individual human users; credentials and consent must be governed. For the stated case, Identity Protection risk detection is the closer match. Identity Protection detects identity-related risk signals; a generic role assignment alone does not assess risk.

C:

Users sign in with the intended phishing-resistant cryptographic authentication method instead of sharing reusable secrets. This item belongs to a different control area: Passkeys and FIDO2. Its appropriate purpose is: FIDO2 passkeys bind authentication to the legitimate relying party and resist credential phishing more effectively than SMS codes. For the stated case, Identity Protection risk detection is the closer match. Identity Protection detects identity-related risk signals; a generic role assignment alone does not assess risk.

D:

The operator can perform the approved directory task without access to unrelated privileged functions. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Entra role-based access control. Its appropriate purpose is: Entra administrative roles govern directory and identity operations; Azure resource RBAC is a separate scope model. For the stated case, Identity Protection risk detection is the closer match. Identity Protection detects identity-related risk signals; a generic role assignment alone does not assess risk.

Question 399

An auditor asks who changed a key sharing permission in a Microsoft 365 site. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.

  1. Use supported Microsoft Purview sensitive information types or classifiers to identify defined sensitive data patterns.
  2. Inspect DLP policy conditions, targeted locations, match events and user-facing policy outcomes.
  3. Completed validated actions appropriately change the calculated progress score while gaps remain visible.
  4. Use Microsoft Purview Audit to search supported Microsoft 365 audit events for accountability and investigations.
  5. Inspect audit search parameters, event operations, actors and timestamps for the relevant workload.

Explanation

Correct Answers

D:

Use Microsoft Purview Audit to search supported Microsoft 365 audit events for accountability and investigations. This is the directly applicable response. Audit provides activity logging and search, not a tool to classify documents or automatically enforce retention.

E:

Inspect audit search parameters, event operations, actors and timestamps for the relevant workload. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Audit provides activity logging and search, not a tool to classify documents or automatically enforce retention.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Use supported Microsoft Purview sensitive information types or classifiers to identify defined sensitive data patterns. This item belongs to a different control area: Sensitive information type classification. Its appropriate purpose is: Classification identifies content characteristics to support protection policies; classifying alone does not block exfiltration. For the stated case, Microsoft Purview Audit is the closer match. Audit provides activity logging and search, not a tool to classify documents or automatically enforce retention.

B:

Inspect DLP policy conditions, targeted locations, match events and user-facing policy outcomes. This item belongs to a different control area: Data loss prevention policies. Its appropriate purpose is: DLP controls risky data movement based on policy conditions; labeling alone does not enforce every transmission restriction. For the stated case, Microsoft Purview Audit is the closer match. Audit provides activity logging and search, not a tool to classify documents or automatically enforce retention.

C:

Completed validated actions appropriately change the calculated progress score while gaps remain visible. This item belongs to a different control area: Compliance score. Its appropriate purpose is: Compliance score measures tracked improvement progress; it is not a universal regulatory certification or breach-risk guarantee. For the stated case, Microsoft Purview Audit is the closer match. Audit provides activity logging and search, not a tool to classify documents or automatically enforce retention.

Question 400

An IT team wants one cloud directory for employee groups and enterprise application access. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?

  1. Use Microsoft Entra entitlement management access packages with governed request, approval and expiration rules.
  2. Use Microsoft Entra ID as the cloud identity and access-management service for users, groups and applications.
  3. Offer phishing-resistant FIDO2 passkey authentication with supported Microsoft Entra methods.
  4. Scope Conditional Access to selected cloud applications and test policy results before enforcement.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Use Microsoft Entra ID as the cloud identity and access-management service for users, groups and applications. This is the directly applicable response. Microsoft Entra ID provides cloud directory and identity services, not network packet filtering or document retention.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Use Microsoft Entra entitlement management access packages with governed request, approval and expiration rules. This item belongs to a different control area: Entitlement management access packages. Its appropriate purpose is: Entitlement management standardizes access bundles and access-request governance for groups, apps and sites. For the stated case, Microsoft Entra ID cloud identity is the closer match. Microsoft Entra ID provides cloud directory and identity services, not network packet filtering or document retention.

C:

Offer phishing-resistant FIDO2 passkey authentication with supported Microsoft Entra methods. This item belongs to a different control area: Passkeys and FIDO2. Its appropriate purpose is: FIDO2 passkeys bind authentication to the legitimate relying party and resist credential phishing more effectively than SMS codes. For the stated case, Microsoft Entra ID cloud identity is the closer match. Microsoft Entra ID provides cloud directory and identity services, not network packet filtering or document retention.

D:

Scope Conditional Access to selected cloud applications and test policy results before enforcement. This item belongs to a different control area: Conditional Access application targeting. Its appropriate purpose is: A policy should be tested for targeted principals and applications, with emergency-access exclusions where appropriate. For the stated case, Microsoft Entra ID cloud identity is the closer match. Microsoft Entra ID provides cloud directory and identity services, not network packet filtering or document retention.

Microsoft Security, Compliance, and Identity Fundamentals (SC-900) Practice Tests