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Microsoft SC-900 Practice Test 39

Question 380

A department transfer should trigger specified account and group handling rather than manual email tickets. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?

  1. Authorized users can reset forgotten passwords after meeting the defined verification requirements.
  2. On-premises identity changes are reflected in Entra ID according to the configured sync topology.
  3. The specified lifecycle event triggers consistent identity tasks and leaves auditable results.
  4. Users unlock or authenticate with a local gesture backed by a device-bound cryptographic credential.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

The specified lifecycle event triggers consistent identity tasks and leaves auditable results. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. Lifecycle workflows automate repeatable identity onboarding and offboarding tasks; review of ongoing entitlements remains a separate control.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Authorized users can reset forgotten passwords after meeting the defined verification requirements. This item belongs to a different control area: Self-service password reset. Its appropriate purpose is: SSPR helps account recovery; it does not grant additional resource authorization or bypass verification. For the stated case, Lifecycle workflows is the closer match. Lifecycle workflows automate repeatable identity onboarding and offboarding tasks; review of ongoing entitlements remains a separate control.

B:

On-premises identity changes are reflected in Entra ID according to the configured sync topology. This item belongs to a different control area: Hybrid identity. Its appropriate purpose is: Hybrid identity coordinates on-premises and cloud identity management; it does not automatically move every workload to Azure. For the stated case, Lifecycle workflows is the closer match. Lifecycle workflows automate repeatable identity onboarding and offboarding tasks; review of ongoing entitlements remains a separate control.

D:

Users unlock or authenticate with a local gesture backed by a device-bound cryptographic credential. This item belongs to a different control area: Windows Hello for Business. Its appropriate purpose is: Windows Hello for Business replaces reusable password use in supported scenarios with device-bound asymmetric credentials and local user verification. For the stated case, Lifecycle workflows is the closer match. Lifecycle workflows automate repeatable identity onboarding and offboarding tasks; review of ongoing entitlements remains a separate control.

Question 381

A supplier wants its own identity system to authenticate staff to a partner's ordering portal. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?

  1. Review the federation trust, issuer metadata, accepted tokens and sign-in transaction records.
  2. Examine risk registers, accountable owners, policies, regulatory mappings and control test records.
  3. Identify storage encryption state, TLS connection settings and custody of cryptographic keys.
  4. Review the sign-in context, permissions granted and enforcement of checks even for internal network requests.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Review the federation trust, issuer metadata, accepted tokens and sign-in transaction records. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Federation extends authentication trust across security domains; it does not automatically grant unrestricted permissions.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Examine risk registers, accountable owners, policies, regulatory mappings and control test records. This item belongs to a different control area: Governance risk and compliance. Its appropriate purpose is: Governance sets direction, risk management evaluates exposure, and compliance verifies obligations against controls. For the stated case, Identity federation is the closer match. Federation extends authentication trust across security domains; it does not automatically grant unrestricted permissions.

C:

Identify storage encryption state, TLS connection settings and custody of cryptographic keys. This item belongs to a different control area: Encryption. Its appropriate purpose is: Encryption makes data unreadable to an unauthorized party without the appropriate key; it differs from a one-way hash. For the stated case, Identity federation is the closer match. Federation extends authentication trust across security domains; it does not automatically grant unrestricted permissions.

D:

Review the sign-in context, permissions granted and enforcement of checks even for internal network requests. This item belongs to a different control area: Zero Trust. Its appropriate purpose is: Zero Trust does not automatically trust a user, device or connection because it originates on a corporate network. For the stated case, Identity federation is the closer match. Federation extends authentication trust across security domains; it does not automatically grant unrestricted permissions.

Question 382

A laptop fleet wants workers to sign in with biometrics or PIN without sending those gestures to a remote server. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?

  1. Test sign-ins from targeted and excluded networks receive the configured location-aware control.
  2. Users unlock or authenticate with a local gesture backed by a device-bound cryptographic credential.
  3. The engineer can perform the allowed resource action but cannot manage unrelated resources or tenant identity settings.
  4. The automation receives only its consented permissions and unused credentials are removed or rotated.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Users unlock or authenticate with a local gesture backed by a device-bound cryptographic credential. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. Windows Hello for Business replaces reusable password use in supported scenarios with device-bound asymmetric credentials and local user verification.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Test sign-ins from targeted and excluded networks receive the configured location-aware control. This item belongs to a different control area: Conditional Access locations. Its appropriate purpose is: Conditional Access can evaluate network locations alongside identities and risk, but location by itself should not be assumed trustworthy. For the stated case, Windows Hello for Business is the closer match. Windows Hello for Business replaces reusable password use in supported scenarios with device-bound asymmetric credentials and local user verification.

C:

The engineer can perform the allowed resource action but cannot manage unrelated resources or tenant identity settings. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure resource RBAC versus Entra roles. Its appropriate purpose is: Azure RBAC governs Azure resource permissions, whereas Microsoft Entra roles govern directory services. For the stated case, Windows Hello for Business is the closer match. Windows Hello for Business replaces reusable password use in supported scenarios with device-bound asymmetric credentials and local user verification.

D:

The automation receives only its consented permissions and unused credentials are removed or rotated. This item belongs to a different control area: Service principals. Its appropriate purpose is: Service principals represent applications or services rather than individual human users; credentials and consent must be governed. For the stated case, Windows Hello for Business is the closer match. Windows Hello for Business replaces reusable password use in supported scenarios with device-bound asymmetric credentials and local user verification.

Question 383

A security review asks how to enforce approved session restrictions for a supported application. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.

  1. Use supported Defender for Cloud Apps Conditional Access App Control session controls for cloud app activity when configured.
  2. Use Sentinel automation rules and supported playbooks to orchestrate defined incident-response tasks.
  3. Inspect vault secrets, access configuration, audit logs and consuming identity permissions.
  4. Inspect session policy scope, controlled activities and matched cloud app session events.
  5. Expected source events are searchable in the intended workspace and support threat analytics.

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

Use supported Defender for Cloud Apps Conditional Access App Control session controls for cloud app activity when configured. This is the directly applicable response. Session controls provide real-time governance of supported cloud app activities; discovery alone does not enforce session behaviors.

D:

Inspect session policy scope, controlled activities and matched cloud app session events. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Session controls provide real-time governance of supported cloud app activities; discovery alone does not enforce session behaviors.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Use Sentinel automation rules and supported playbooks to orchestrate defined incident-response tasks. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Sentinel SOAR playbooks. Its appropriate purpose is: SOAR automates and orchestrates workflows; it complements rather than replaces detection analytics and human judgment. For the stated case, Defender for Cloud Apps session controls is the closer match. Session controls provide real-time governance of supported cloud app activities; discovery alone does not enforce session behaviors.

C:

Inspect vault secrets, access configuration, audit logs and consuming identity permissions. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure Key Vault secrets. Its appropriate purpose is: Key Vault manages keys, secrets and certificates; it is not a general-purpose file storage or SIEM service. For the stated case, Defender for Cloud Apps session controls is the closer match. Session controls provide real-time governance of supported cloud app activities; discovery alone does not enforce session behaviors.

E:

Expected source events are searchable in the intended workspace and support threat analytics. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Sentinel SIEM ingestion. Its appropriate purpose is: A SIEM collects and correlates security telemetry; data ingestion is foundational before analytic rules can detect events. For the stated case, Defender for Cloud Apps session controls is the closer match. Session controls provide real-time governance of supported cloud app activities; discovery alone does not enforce session behaviors.

Question 384

A security team wants to reject common compromised-style passwords during password changes. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?

  1. Known weak or organization-specific passwords are rejected where the configured protection is enforced.
  2. The specified lifecycle event triggers consistent identity tasks and leaves auditable results.
  3. The intended application sessions are governed and unrelated apps are not accidentally blocked.
  4. On-premises identity changes are reflected in Entra ID according to the configured sync topology.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Known weak or organization-specific passwords are rejected where the configured protection is enforced. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. Password protection blocks weak password choices; it does not replace MFA or a full identity risk policy.

Incorrect Answers

B:

The specified lifecycle event triggers consistent identity tasks and leaves auditable results. This item belongs to a different control area: Lifecycle workflows. Its appropriate purpose is: Lifecycle workflows automate repeatable identity onboarding and offboarding tasks; review of ongoing entitlements remains a separate control. For the stated case, Password protection is the closer match. Password protection blocks weak password choices; it does not replace MFA or a full identity risk policy.

C:

The intended application sessions are governed and unrelated apps are not accidentally blocked. This item belongs to a different control area: Conditional Access application targeting. Its appropriate purpose is: A policy should be tested for targeted principals and applications, with emergency-access exclusions where appropriate. For the stated case, Password protection is the closer match. Password protection blocks weak password choices; it does not replace MFA or a full identity risk policy.

D:

On-premises identity changes are reflected in Entra ID according to the configured sync topology. This item belongs to a different control area: Hybrid identity. Its appropriate purpose is: Hybrid identity coordinates on-premises and cloud identity management; it does not automatically move every workload to Azure. For the stated case, Password protection is the closer match. Password protection blocks weak password choices; it does not replace MFA or a full identity risk policy.

Question 385

A government agency requires stronger verification before allowing staff to open sensitive cloud apps. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?

  1. Inspect policy targeting, device compliance information and sign-in evaluation details.
  2. Inspect workflow triggers, task execution history and resulting group or access changes.
  3. Inspect authentication method registration, authentication details and MFA satisfaction in sign-in logs.
  4. Inspect guest account records, cross-tenant access settings and assigned resource permissions.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Inspect authentication method registration, authentication details and MFA satisfaction in sign-in logs. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. MFA combines different factor categories to reduce account takeover from a stolen password alone.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect policy targeting, device compliance information and sign-in evaluation details. This item belongs to a different control area: Conditional Access compliant devices. Its appropriate purpose is: Conditional Access combines signals and access controls; device compliance comes from the supported management and enrollment state. For the stated case, Multifactor authentication is the closer match. MFA combines different factor categories to reduce account takeover from a stolen password alone.

B:

Inspect workflow triggers, task execution history and resulting group or access changes. This item belongs to a different control area: Lifecycle workflows. Its appropriate purpose is: Lifecycle workflows automate repeatable identity onboarding and offboarding tasks; review of ongoing entitlements remains a separate control. For the stated case, Multifactor authentication is the closer match. MFA combines different factor categories to reduce account takeover from a stolen password alone.

D:

Inspect guest account records, cross-tenant access settings and assigned resource permissions. This item belongs to a different control area: External guest collaboration. Its appropriate purpose is: B2B collaboration supports external users while preserving explicit guest access and tenant policy boundaries. For the stated case, Multifactor authentication is the closer match. MFA combines different factor categories to reduce account takeover from a stolen password alone.

Question 386

A regulated company needs to view Azure configuration gaps grouped against a recognized control standard. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?

  1. Use Defender for Office 365 Safe Attachments to analyze suspicious email attachments with configured protection policies.
  2. Use the Microsoft Defender portal to review integrated Defender alerts, incidents and security investigations.
  3. Use Azure Firewall to centrally apply managed network and application traffic rules for Azure workloads.
  4. Use Defender for Cloud regulatory compliance views to map cloud resource findings to applicable standards.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Use Defender for Cloud regulatory compliance views to map cloud resource findings to applicable standards. This is the directly applicable response. Regulatory compliance views relate assessed technical controls to frameworks; they do not by themselves certify organizational legal compliance.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Use Defender for Office 365 Safe Attachments to analyze suspicious email attachments with configured protection policies. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Office 365 Safe Attachments. Its appropriate purpose is: Safe Attachments focuses on file-based email threats, whereas Safe Links protects URLs. For the stated case, Defender for Cloud regulatory compliance is the closer match. Regulatory compliance views relate assessed technical controls to frameworks; they do not by themselves certify organizational legal compliance.

B:

Use the Microsoft Defender portal to review integrated Defender alerts, incidents and security investigations. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Defender portal. Its appropriate purpose is: The Defender portal provides a unified security operations interface; it is not a replacement for configuring every underlying product. For the stated case, Defender for Cloud regulatory compliance is the closer match. Regulatory compliance views relate assessed technical controls to frameworks; they do not by themselves certify organizational legal compliance.

C:

Use Azure Firewall to centrally apply managed network and application traffic rules for Azure workloads. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure Firewall. Its appropriate purpose is: Azure Firewall is a managed stateful network security service; it is not an identity provider or a retention tool. For the stated case, Defender for Cloud regulatory compliance is the closer match. Regulatory compliance views relate assessed technical controls to frameworks; they do not by themselves certify organizational legal compliance.

Question 387

A governance administrator is consolidating tool navigation for data lifecycle and compliance processes. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?

  1. Covered content is retained or disposed of according to the policy and location configuration.
  2. Known matching test content is detected and nonmatching benign content is not broadly misclassified.
  3. Target items receive the correct retention label and follow the configured item-level lifecycle behavior.
  4. The compliance analyst can access the intended Purview capability under the appropriate permissions.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

The compliance analyst can access the intended Purview capability under the appropriate permissions. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. The Purview portal is a central interface for multiple compliance and data-governance solutions, not itself a finished compliance certification.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Covered content is retained or disposed of according to the policy and location configuration. This item belongs to a different control area: Retention policies. Its appropriate purpose is: Retention policies apply lifecycle rules to selected locations or content sets; they do not substitute for DLP sharing blocks. For the stated case, Microsoft Purview portal is the closer match. The Purview portal is a central interface for multiple compliance and data-governance solutions, not itself a finished compliance certification.

B:

Known matching test content is detected and nonmatching benign content is not broadly misclassified. This item belongs to a different control area: Sensitive information type classification. Its appropriate purpose is: Classification identifies content characteristics to support protection policies; classifying alone does not block exfiltration. For the stated case, Microsoft Purview portal is the closer match. The Purview portal is a central interface for multiple compliance and data-governance solutions, not itself a finished compliance certification.

C:

Target items receive the correct retention label and follow the configured item-level lifecycle behavior. This item belongs to a different control area: Retention labels. Its appropriate purpose is: Retention labels govern specific items; a broad location-level retention policy does not provide the same fine-grained labeling behavior. For the stated case, Microsoft Purview portal is the closer match. The Purview portal is a central interface for multiple compliance and data-governance solutions, not itself a finished compliance certification.

Question 388

An analyst cannot investigate suspicious sign-in patterns because the relevant identity events are missing from the detection workspace. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?

  1. Connect relevant data sources to a Microsoft Sentinel-enabled Log Analytics workspace for centralized security analysis.
  2. Separate workloads into appropriately designed Azure virtual networks and subnets with explicit connectivity boundaries.
  3. Enable applicable Defender for Cloud workload protection plans to detect threats affecting supported cloud workloads.
  4. Use Microsoft Defender for Cloud to review Azure and multicloud security posture and workload protection recommendations.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Connect relevant data sources to a Microsoft Sentinel-enabled Log Analytics workspace for centralized security analysis. This is the directly applicable response. A SIEM collects and correlates security telemetry; data ingestion is foundational before analytic rules can detect events.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Separate workloads into appropriately designed Azure virtual networks and subnets with explicit connectivity boundaries. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure virtual network segmentation. Its appropriate purpose is: Virtual networks provide logical network isolation; separate security policies may still be needed to limit allowed flows. For the stated case, Microsoft Sentinel SIEM ingestion is the closer match. A SIEM collects and correlates security telemetry; data ingestion is foundational before analytic rules can detect events.

C:

Enable applicable Defender for Cloud workload protection plans to detect threats affecting supported cloud workloads. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Cloud workload protection. Its appropriate purpose is: Cloud workload protection detects threat signals and suspicious runtime behavior; CSPM primarily addresses configuration posture. For the stated case, Microsoft Sentinel SIEM ingestion is the closer match. A SIEM collects and correlates security telemetry; data ingestion is foundational before analytic rules can detect events.

D:

Use Microsoft Defender for Cloud to review Azure and multicloud security posture and workload protection recommendations. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Cloud unified security posture. Its appropriate purpose is: Defender for Cloud combines CSPM and cloud workload protection capabilities; it is not the same as a single network security group. For the stated case, Microsoft Sentinel SIEM ingestion is the closer match. A SIEM collects and correlates security telemetry; data ingestion is foundational before analytic rules can detect events.

Question 389

A university wants certain faculty cloud resources protected from unmanaged personal laptops. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?

  1. Enforce Microsoft Entra Conditional Access requiring compliant device signals for sensitive application access.
  2. Offer phishing-resistant FIDO2 passkey authentication with supported Microsoft Entra methods.
  3. Connect on-premises Active Directory identities with Microsoft Entra ID for a coordinated hybrid identity experience.
  4. Enable self-service password reset with verified registration and appropriate identity checks for eligible users.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Enforce Microsoft Entra Conditional Access requiring compliant device signals for sensitive application access. This is the directly applicable response. Conditional Access combines signals and access controls; device compliance comes from the supported management and enrollment state.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Offer phishing-resistant FIDO2 passkey authentication with supported Microsoft Entra methods. This item belongs to a different control area: Passkeys and FIDO2. Its appropriate purpose is: FIDO2 passkeys bind authentication to the legitimate relying party and resist credential phishing more effectively than SMS codes. For the stated case, Conditional Access compliant devices is the closer match. Conditional Access combines signals and access controls; device compliance comes from the supported management and enrollment state.

C:

Connect on-premises Active Directory identities with Microsoft Entra ID for a coordinated hybrid identity experience. This item belongs to a different control area: Hybrid identity. Its appropriate purpose is: Hybrid identity coordinates on-premises and cloud identity management; it does not automatically move every workload to Azure. For the stated case, Conditional Access compliant devices is the closer match. Conditional Access combines signals and access controls; device compliance comes from the supported management and enrollment state.

D:

Enable self-service password reset with verified registration and appropriate identity checks for eligible users. This item belongs to a different control area: Self-service password reset. Its appropriate purpose is: SSPR helps account recovery; it does not grant additional resource authorization or bypass verification. For the stated case, Conditional Access compliant devices is the closer match. Conditional Access combines signals and access controls; device compliance comes from the supported management and enrollment state.

Question 390

A laptop launches a suspicious executable and the SOC needs process-tree investigation. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?

  1. Inspect posture findings, resource coverage, attack paths where available and suggested remediations.
  2. Inspect firewall policies, rule collections, traffic logs and routed connection paths.
  3. Inspect onboarded device inventory, detection alerts, process timelines and investigation findings.
  4. Inspect vault secrets, access configuration, audit logs and consuming identity permissions.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Inspect onboarded device inventory, detection alerts, process timelines and investigation findings. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Endpoint detection and response targets device-level malicious behavior, not Microsoft 365 document retention.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect posture findings, resource coverage, attack paths where available and suggested remediations. This item belongs to a different control area: Cloud Security Posture Management. Its appropriate purpose is: CSPM evaluates configuration and exposure risk proactively, rather than solely responding to an endpoint malware alert. For the stated case, Defender for Endpoint EDR is the closer match. Endpoint detection and response targets device-level malicious behavior, not Microsoft 365 document retention.

B:

Inspect firewall policies, rule collections, traffic logs and routed connection paths. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure Firewall. Its appropriate purpose is: Azure Firewall is a managed stateful network security service; it is not an identity provider or a retention tool. For the stated case, Defender for Endpoint EDR is the closer match. Endpoint detection and response targets device-level malicious behavior, not Microsoft 365 document retention.

D:

Inspect vault secrets, access configuration, audit logs and consuming identity permissions. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure Key Vault secrets. Its appropriate purpose is: Key Vault manages keys, secrets and certificates; it is not a general-purpose file storage or SIEM service. For the stated case, Defender for Endpoint EDR is the closer match. Endpoint detection and response targets device-level malicious behavior, not Microsoft 365 document retention.

Microsoft Security, Compliance, and Identity Fundamentals (SC-900) Practice Tests