Microsoft SC-900 Practice Test 38
Question 370
A security team wants to search telemetry from several Microsoft services and network controls in one platform. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?
- Inspect onboarded device inventory, detection alerts, process timelines and investigation findings.
- Inspect NSG effective rules, priority ordering and flow evaluation for the affected network interface.
- Inspect data connectors, ingestion status, workspace tables and representative security events.
- Inspect policy assignments, noncompliant resources and recommendation-to-remediation mappings.
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:Inspect data connectors, ingestion status, workspace tables and representative security events. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. A SIEM collects and correlates security telemetry; data ingestion is foundational before analytic rules can detect events.
Incorrect Answers
A:Inspect onboarded device inventory, detection alerts, process timelines and investigation findings. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Endpoint EDR. Its appropriate purpose is: Endpoint detection and response targets device-level malicious behavior, not Microsoft 365 document retention. For the stated case, Microsoft Sentinel SIEM ingestion is the closer match. A SIEM collects and correlates security telemetry; data ingestion is foundational before analytic rules can detect events.
B:Inspect NSG effective rules, priority ordering and flow evaluation for the affected network interface. This item belongs to a different control area: Network security groups. Its appropriate purpose is: NSGs provide ordered L3/L4 traffic filtering in Azure, not deep web-request inspection. For the stated case, Microsoft Sentinel SIEM ingestion is the closer match. A SIEM collects and correlates security telemetry; data ingestion is foundational before analytic rules can detect events.
D:Inspect policy assignments, noncompliant resources and recommendation-to-remediation mappings. This item belongs to a different control area: Cloud security policies and recommendations. Its appropriate purpose is: A recommendation identifies a technical improvement; a documented policy or assigned standard provides expectations for assessed resources. For the stated case, Microsoft Sentinel SIEM ingestion is the closer match. A SIEM collects and correlates security telemetry; data ingestion is foundational before analytic rules can detect events.
Question 371
An administrator changes a department attribute locally and wants it reflected in cloud group assignments. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.
- Assign the least-privileged supported Microsoft Entra administrative role for a directory task.
- Known weak or organization-specific passwords are rejected where the configured protection is enforced.
- Inspect workflow triggers, task execution history and resulting group or access changes.
- Inspect synchronization health, scope filters, matching rules and recent export errors.
- Configure and monitor an appropriate supported Microsoft Entra Connect synchronization method for hybrid users.
Explanation
Correct Answers
D:Inspect synchronization health, scope filters, matching rules and recent export errors. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Directory synchronization must be scoped and observed; enabling it without verifying source objects can create identity drift.
E:Configure and monitor an appropriate supported Microsoft Entra Connect synchronization method for hybrid users. This is the directly applicable response. Directory synchronization must be scoped and observed; enabling it without verifying source objects can create identity drift.
Incorrect Answers
A:Assign the least-privileged supported Microsoft Entra administrative role for a directory task. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Entra role-based access control. Its appropriate purpose is: Entra administrative roles govern directory and identity operations; Azure resource RBAC is a separate scope model. For the stated case, Microsoft Entra Connect synchronization is the closer match. Directory synchronization must be scoped and observed; enabling it without verifying source objects can create identity drift.
B:Known weak or organization-specific passwords are rejected where the configured protection is enforced. This item belongs to a different control area: Password protection. Its appropriate purpose is: Password protection blocks weak password choices; it does not replace MFA or a full identity risk policy. For the stated case, Microsoft Entra Connect synchronization is the closer match. Directory synchronization must be scoped and observed; enabling it without verifying source objects can create identity drift.
C:Inspect workflow triggers, task execution history and resulting group or access changes. This item belongs to a different control area: Lifecycle workflows. Its appropriate purpose is: Lifecycle workflows automate repeatable identity onboarding and offboarding tasks; review of ongoing entitlements remains a separate control. For the stated case, Microsoft Entra Connect synchronization is the closer match. Directory synchronization must be scoped and observed; enabling it without verifying source objects can create identity drift.
Question 372
A cloud engineer cannot restart a VM despite having an Entra directory administration role. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?
- Inspect subscription or resource role assignments and effective permissions for the target resource.
- Inspect tenant user and group objects, enterprise application registration and sign-in events.
- Inspect synchronization health, scope filters, matching rules and recent export errors.
- Inspect synchronization status, source directories and matching cloud user identities.
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:Inspect subscription or resource role assignments and effective permissions for the target resource. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Azure RBAC governs Azure resource permissions, whereas Microsoft Entra roles govern directory services.
Incorrect Answers
B:Inspect tenant user and group objects, enterprise application registration and sign-in events. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Entra ID cloud identity. Its appropriate purpose is: Microsoft Entra ID provides cloud directory and identity services, not network packet filtering or document retention. For the stated case, Azure resource RBAC versus Entra roles is the closer match. Azure RBAC governs Azure resource permissions, whereas Microsoft Entra roles govern directory services.
C:Inspect synchronization health, scope filters, matching rules and recent export errors. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Entra Connect synchronization. Its appropriate purpose is: Directory synchronization must be scoped and observed; enabling it without verifying source objects can create identity drift. For the stated case, Azure resource RBAC versus Entra roles is the closer match. Azure RBAC governs Azure resource permissions, whereas Microsoft Entra roles govern directory services.
D:Inspect synchronization status, source directories and matching cloud user identities. This item belongs to a different control area: Hybrid identity. Its appropriate purpose is: Hybrid identity coordinates on-premises and cloud identity management; it does not automatically move every workload to Azure. For the stated case, Azure resource RBAC versus Entra roles is the closer match. Azure RBAC governs Azure resource permissions, whereas Microsoft Entra roles govern directory services.
Question 373
A newly appointed compliance analyst needs a common Microsoft interface for DLP and information protection. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?
- Test sharing of covered sensitive data triggers the intended warning, block or audit action as configured.
- The compliance analyst can access the intended Purview capability under the appropriate permissions.
- Authorized reviewers can identify where labeled or classified items reside in supported data locations.
- Target items receive the correct retention label and follow the configured item-level lifecycle behavior.
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:The compliance analyst can access the intended Purview capability under the appropriate permissions. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. The Purview portal is a central interface for multiple compliance and data-governance solutions, not itself a finished compliance certification.
Incorrect Answers
A:Test sharing of covered sensitive data triggers the intended warning, block or audit action as configured. This item belongs to a different control area: Data loss prevention policies. Its appropriate purpose is: DLP controls risky data movement based on policy conditions; labeling alone does not enforce every transmission restriction. For the stated case, Microsoft Purview portal is the closer match. The Purview portal is a central interface for multiple compliance and data-governance solutions, not itself a finished compliance certification.
C:Authorized reviewers can identify where labeled or classified items reside in supported data locations. This item belongs to a different control area: Content explorer. Its appropriate purpose is: Content explorer helps inspect classified data inventory; Activity explorer focuses on actions and activity history. For the stated case, Microsoft Purview portal is the closer match. The Purview portal is a central interface for multiple compliance and data-governance solutions, not itself a finished compliance certification.
D:Target items receive the correct retention label and follow the configured item-level lifecycle behavior. This item belongs to a different control area: Retention labels. Its appropriate purpose is: Retention labels govern specific items; a broad location-level retention policy does not provide the same fine-grained labeling behavior. For the stated case, Microsoft Purview portal is the closer match. The Purview portal is a central interface for multiple compliance and data-governance solutions, not itself a finished compliance certification.
Question 374
An external partner accesses a tenant application without ever traversing the company's office firewall. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.
- Risks have assigned treatment decisions and controls have evidence linked to applicable requirements.
- Identify storage encryption state, TLS connection settings and custody of cryptographic keys.
- Apply the customer's responsibility for identities, data and cloud configuration rather than assuming the provider performs every control.
- Review identities, sign-in activity, access entitlements and whether resource decisions use identity signals.
- Protect and verify identities as a primary perimeter for cloud access rather than relying only on a building network.
Explanation
Correct Answers
D:Review identities, sign-in activity, access entitlements and whether resource decisions use identity signals. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Cloud users and workloads access resources from varied networks, making authenticated identity and authorization central boundaries.
E:Protect and verify identities as a primary perimeter for cloud access rather than relying only on a building network. This is the directly applicable response. Cloud users and workloads access resources from varied networks, making authenticated identity and authorization central boundaries.
Incorrect Answers
A:Risks have assigned treatment decisions and controls have evidence linked to applicable requirements. This item belongs to a different control area: Governance risk and compliance. Its appropriate purpose is: Governance sets direction, risk management evaluates exposure, and compliance verifies obligations against controls. For the stated case, Identity as security perimeter is the closer match. Cloud users and workloads access resources from varied networks, making authenticated identity and authorization central boundaries.
B:Identify storage encryption state, TLS connection settings and custody of cryptographic keys. This item belongs to a different control area: Encryption. Its appropriate purpose is: Encryption makes data unreadable to an unauthorized party without the appropriate key; it differs from a one-way hash. For the stated case, Identity as security perimeter is the closer match. Cloud users and workloads access resources from varied networks, making authenticated identity and authorization central boundaries.
C:Apply the customer's responsibility for identities, data and cloud configuration rather than assuming the provider performs every control. This item belongs to a different control area: Cloud shared responsibility. Its appropriate purpose is: Shared responsibility divides security obligations according to the cloud service model; provider data-center security does not replace tenant controls. For the stated case, Identity as security perimeter is the closer match. Cloud users and workloads access resources from varied networks, making authenticated identity and authorization central boundaries.
Question 375
An organization needs to identify files containing financial account identifiers before policy enforcement. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.
- Inspect the relevant Purview solution pages, available roles and enabled features.
- Inspect classifier configuration, matched items and classification results in a controlled test corpus.
- Use supported Microsoft Purview sensitive information types or classifiers to identify defined sensitive data patterns.
- A privacy review can explain how personal information is governed and how customers exercise supported data controls.
- Use Microsoft Purview Compliance Manager to organize improvement actions and track regulatory assessment progress.
Explanation
Correct Answers
B:Inspect classifier configuration, matched items and classification results in a controlled test corpus. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Classification identifies content characteristics to support protection policies; classifying alone does not block exfiltration.
C:Use supported Microsoft Purview sensitive information types or classifiers to identify defined sensitive data patterns. This is the directly applicable response. Classification identifies content characteristics to support protection policies; classifying alone does not block exfiltration.
Incorrect Answers
A:Inspect the relevant Purview solution pages, available roles and enabled features. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Purview portal. Its appropriate purpose is: The Purview portal is a central interface for multiple compliance and data-governance solutions, not itself a finished compliance certification. For the stated case, Sensitive information type classification is the closer match. Classification identifies content characteristics to support protection policies; classifying alone does not block exfiltration.
D:A privacy review can explain how personal information is governed and how customers exercise supported data controls. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft privacy principles. Its appropriate purpose is: Privacy principles guide responsible data handling and transparency; they do not automatically classify every document. For the stated case, Sensitive information type classification is the closer match. Classification identifies content characteristics to support protection policies; classifying alone does not block exfiltration.
E:Use Microsoft Purview Compliance Manager to organize improvement actions and track regulatory assessment progress. This item belongs to a different control area: Compliance Manager. Its appropriate purpose is: Compliance Manager maps control activities and improvements; it does not automatically guarantee legal compliance. For the stated case, Sensitive information type classification is the closer match. Classification identifies content characteristics to support protection policies; classifying alone does not block exfiltration.
Question 376
A nonprofit wants to distinguish sign-ins from approved office egress IP addresses during policy rollout. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?
- Privileged permissions become active for approved windows and do not remain permanently assigned without need.
- Configured controls respond to risky sign-ins or compromised-user signals and investigations track resolution.
- Stale access is removed or explicitly reaffirmed according to the completed review decisions.
- Test sign-ins from targeted and excluded networks receive the configured location-aware control.
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:Test sign-ins from targeted and excluded networks receive the configured location-aware control. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. Conditional Access can evaluate network locations alongside identities and risk, but location by itself should not be assumed trustworthy.
Incorrect Answers
A:Privileged permissions become active for approved windows and do not remain permanently assigned without need. This item belongs to a different control area: Privileged Identity Management eligible roles. Its appropriate purpose is: PIM reduces standing privilege and provides just-in-time activation controls for supported roles. For the stated case, Conditional Access locations is the closer match. Conditional Access can evaluate network locations alongside identities and risk, but location by itself should not be assumed trustworthy.
B:Configured controls respond to risky sign-ins or compromised-user signals and investigations track resolution. This item belongs to a different control area: Identity Protection risk detection. Its appropriate purpose is: Identity Protection detects identity-related risk signals; a generic role assignment alone does not assess risk. For the stated case, Conditional Access locations is the closer match. Conditional Access can evaluate network locations alongside identities and risk, but location by itself should not be assumed trustworthy.
C:Stale access is removed or explicitly reaffirmed according to the completed review decisions. This item belongs to a different control area: Access reviews. Its appropriate purpose is: Access reviews periodically reassess existing permissions, unlike a new initial access request. For the stated case, Conditional Access locations is the closer match. Conditional Access can evaluate network locations alongside identities and risk, but location by itself should not be assumed trustworthy.
Question 377
An organization wants warnings when confidential files are shared to unapproved external recipients. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.
- Inspect policy indicators, generated alerts, case evidence and role-controlled access.
- Configure Microsoft Purview data loss prevention policies to detect and control defined sensitive-data sharing in supported workloads.
- Inspect DLP policy conditions, targeted locations, match events and user-facing policy outcomes.
- Use the Microsoft Purview portal to discover and administer supported compliance, information protection and risk capabilities.
- Assessment owners can see outstanding control work, evidence and completion status for the chosen framework.
Explanation
Correct Answers
B:Configure Microsoft Purview data loss prevention policies to detect and control defined sensitive-data sharing in supported workloads. This is the directly applicable response. DLP controls risky data movement based on policy conditions; labeling alone does not enforce every transmission restriction.
C:Inspect DLP policy conditions, targeted locations, match events and user-facing policy outcomes. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. DLP controls risky data movement based on policy conditions; labeling alone does not enforce every transmission restriction.
Incorrect Answers
A:Inspect policy indicators, generated alerts, case evidence and role-controlled access. This item belongs to a different control area: Insider risk management. Its appropriate purpose is: Insider risk policies correlate relevant insider indicators; they do not authorize indiscriminate surveillance or replace privacy and employment policy. For the stated case, Data loss prevention policies is the closer match. DLP controls risky data movement based on policy conditions; labeling alone does not enforce every transmission restriction.
D:Use the Microsoft Purview portal to discover and administer supported compliance, information protection and risk capabilities. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Purview portal. Its appropriate purpose is: The Purview portal is a central interface for multiple compliance and data-governance solutions, not itself a finished compliance certification. For the stated case, Data loss prevention policies is the closer match. DLP controls risky data movement based on policy conditions; labeling alone does not enforce every transmission restriction.
E:Assessment owners can see outstanding control work, evidence and completion status for the chosen framework. This item belongs to a different control area: Compliance Manager. Its appropriate purpose is: Compliance Manager maps control activities and improvements; it does not automatically guarantee legal compliance. For the stated case, Data loss prevention policies is the closer match. DLP controls risky data movement based on policy conditions; labeling alone does not enforce every transmission restriction.
Question 378
A SOC wants an alert when multiple unusual sign-ins occur followed by privileged activity. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.
- Security owners see prioritized exposures and applicable workload detections in the expected scope.
- Inspect analytic rule query logic, schedule, thresholds and representative matching events.
- Inspect WAF rules, managed-rule matches and HTTP request logs for the affected endpoint.
- Apply Azure network security group rules to allow or deny traffic by source, destination, port and protocol at subnet or NIC scope.
- Configure Microsoft Sentinel analytics rules to detect defined suspicious patterns in ingested security data.
Explanation
Correct Answers
B:Inspect analytic rule query logic, schedule, thresholds and representative matching events. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Sentinel analytics rules evaluate telemetry to raise detections; collecting logs alone is insufficient to identify a defined pattern.
E:Configure Microsoft Sentinel analytics rules to detect defined suspicious patterns in ingested security data. This is the directly applicable response. Sentinel analytics rules evaluate telemetry to raise detections; collecting logs alone is insufficient to identify a defined pattern.
Incorrect Answers
A:Security owners see prioritized exposures and applicable workload detections in the expected scope. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Cloud unified security posture. Its appropriate purpose is: Defender for Cloud combines CSPM and cloud workload protection capabilities; it is not the same as a single network security group. For the stated case, Microsoft Sentinel analytics rules is the closer match. Sentinel analytics rules evaluate telemetry to raise detections; collecting logs alone is insufficient to identify a defined pattern.
C:Inspect WAF rules, managed-rule matches and HTTP request logs for the affected endpoint. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure Web Application Firewall. Its appropriate purpose is: A WAF targets application-layer HTTP risks such as injection, unlike basic network port filtering. For the stated case, Microsoft Sentinel analytics rules is the closer match. Sentinel analytics rules evaluate telemetry to raise detections; collecting logs alone is insufficient to identify a defined pattern.
D:Apply Azure network security group rules to allow or deny traffic by source, destination, port and protocol at subnet or NIC scope. This item belongs to a different control area: Network security groups. Its appropriate purpose is: NSGs provide ordered L3/L4 traffic filtering in Azure, not deep web-request inspection. For the stated case, Microsoft Sentinel analytics rules is the closer match. Sentinel analytics rules evaluate telemetry to raise detections; collecting logs alone is insufficient to identify a defined pattern.
Question 379
A privacy team wants to find documents that match defined personal-data patterns in supported locations. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?
- The reviewer obtains the applicable provider assurance documentation without treating it as proof of the customer's controls.
- Assessment owners can see outstanding control work, evidence and completion status for the chosen framework.
- Completed validated actions appropriately change the calculated progress score while gaps remain visible.
- Known matching test content is detected and nonmatching benign content is not broadly misclassified.
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:Known matching test content is detected and nonmatching benign content is not broadly misclassified. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. Classification identifies content characteristics to support protection policies; classifying alone does not block exfiltration.
Incorrect Answers
A:The reviewer obtains the applicable provider assurance documentation without treating it as proof of the customer's controls. This item belongs to a different control area: Service Trust Portal. Its appropriate purpose is: The Service Trust Portal offers Microsoft service assurance resources; customers remain responsible for their own compliance obligations. For the stated case, Sensitive information type classification is the closer match. Classification identifies content characteristics to support protection policies; classifying alone does not block exfiltration.
B:Assessment owners can see outstanding control work, evidence and completion status for the chosen framework. This item belongs to a different control area: Compliance Manager. Its appropriate purpose is: Compliance Manager maps control activities and improvements; it does not automatically guarantee legal compliance. For the stated case, Sensitive information type classification is the closer match. Classification identifies content characteristics to support protection policies; classifying alone does not block exfiltration.
C:Completed validated actions appropriately change the calculated progress score while gaps remain visible. This item belongs to a different control area: Compliance score. Its appropriate purpose is: Compliance score measures tracked improvement progress; it is not a universal regulatory certification or breach-risk guarantee. For the stated case, Sensitive information type classification is the closer match. Classification identifies content characteristics to support protection policies; classifying alone does not block exfiltration.
Question 380
A department transfer should trigger specified account and group handling rather than manual email tickets. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?
- Authorized users can reset forgotten passwords after meeting the defined verification requirements.
- On-premises identity changes are reflected in Entra ID according to the configured sync topology.
- The specified lifecycle event triggers consistent identity tasks and leaves auditable results.
- Users unlock or authenticate with a local gesture backed by a device-bound cryptographic credential.
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:The specified lifecycle event triggers consistent identity tasks and leaves auditable results. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. Lifecycle workflows automate repeatable identity onboarding and offboarding tasks; review of ongoing entitlements remains a separate control.
Incorrect Answers
A:Authorized users can reset forgotten passwords after meeting the defined verification requirements. This item belongs to a different control area: Self-service password reset. Its appropriate purpose is: SSPR helps account recovery; it does not grant additional resource authorization or bypass verification. For the stated case, Lifecycle workflows is the closer match. Lifecycle workflows automate repeatable identity onboarding and offboarding tasks; review of ongoing entitlements remains a separate control.
B:On-premises identity changes are reflected in Entra ID according to the configured sync topology. This item belongs to a different control area: Hybrid identity. Its appropriate purpose is: Hybrid identity coordinates on-premises and cloud identity management; it does not automatically move every workload to Azure. For the stated case, Lifecycle workflows is the closer match. Lifecycle workflows automate repeatable identity onboarding and offboarding tasks; review of ongoing entitlements remains a separate control.
D:Users unlock or authenticate with a local gesture backed by a device-bound cryptographic credential. This item belongs to a different control area: Windows Hello for Business. Its appropriate purpose is: Windows Hello for Business replaces reusable password use in supported scenarios with device-bound asymmetric credentials and local user verification. For the stated case, Lifecycle workflows is the closer match. Lifecycle workflows automate repeatable identity onboarding and offboarding tasks; review of ongoing entitlements remains a separate control.