cert
cert-1
cert-2

Pass Microsoft SC-900 Exam in First Attempt Guaranteed!

Get 100% Latest Exam Questions, Accurate & Verified Answers to Pass the Actual Exam!
30 Days Free Updates, Instant Download!

cert-5
cert-6
SC-900 Exam - Verified By Experts
SC-900 Premium Bundle
$29.98

SC-900 Premium Bundle

$79.99
$109.97
  • Premium File 259 Questions & Answers. Last update: Nov 10, 2026
  • Training Course 147 Video Lectures
  • Study Guide 413 Pages
 
$109.97
$79.99
accept 69 downloads in last 7 days
block-screenshots
Purchase Microsoft SC-900 Exam Training Products Individually
Microsoft SC-900 Premium File
Premium File 259 Q&A
$76.99$69.99
Microsoft SC-900 Video Training Course
Training Course 147 Lectures
$21.99 $19.99
Microsoft SC-900 PDF Study Guide
Study Guide 413 Pages
$21.99 $19.99
Microsoft SC-900 Practice Test 36

Question 350

A staff member forgets a cloud sign-in password while the support desk is closed. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.

  1. Enable self-service password reset with verified registration and appropriate identity checks for eligible users.
  2. The intended application sessions are governed and unrelated apps are not accidentally blocked.
  3. Inspect guest account records, cross-tenant access settings and assigned resource permissions.
  4. Inspect SSPR policy scope, method registration, registration status and reset audit logs.
  5. Use Microsoft Entra ID Protection signals to identify and respond to risky users or sign-ins.

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

Enable self-service password reset with verified registration and appropriate identity checks for eligible users. This is the directly applicable response. SSPR helps account recovery; it does not grant additional resource authorization or bypass verification.

D:

Inspect SSPR policy scope, method registration, registration status and reset audit logs. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. SSPR helps account recovery; it does not grant additional resource authorization or bypass verification.

Incorrect Answers

B:

The intended application sessions are governed and unrelated apps are not accidentally blocked. This item belongs to a different control area: Conditional Access application targeting. Its appropriate purpose is: A policy should be tested for targeted principals and applications, with emergency-access exclusions where appropriate. For the stated case, Self-service password reset is the closer match. SSPR helps account recovery; it does not grant additional resource authorization or bypass verification.

C:

Inspect guest account records, cross-tenant access settings and assigned resource permissions. This item belongs to a different control area: External guest collaboration. Its appropriate purpose is: B2B collaboration supports external users while preserving explicit guest access and tenant policy boundaries. For the stated case, Self-service password reset is the closer match. SSPR helps account recovery; it does not grant additional resource authorization or bypass verification.

E:

Use Microsoft Entra ID Protection signals to identify and respond to risky users or sign-ins. This item belongs to a different control area: Identity Protection risk detection. Its appropriate purpose is: Identity Protection detects identity-related risk signals; a generic role assignment alone does not assess risk. For the stated case, Self-service password reset is the closer match. SSPR helps account recovery; it does not grant additional resource authorization or bypass verification.

Question 351

A business application needs controlled signing-key management separate from its deployment package. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.

  1. Use the Microsoft Defender portal to review integrated Defender alerts, incidents and security investigations.
  2. Inspect key or certificate versions, permissions and renewal or rotation configuration.
  3. Use Azure Key Vault to centrally control cryptographic key or certificate material and its authorized operations.
  4. Inspect protected resource coverage, workload alerts, enabled plans and alert investigation evidence.
  5. The targeted risky process behavior is blocked without unnecessarily disrupting approved workloads.

Explanation

Correct Answers

B:

Inspect key or certificate versions, permissions and renewal or rotation configuration. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Key Vault supports cryptographic key and certificate lifecycle; secret storage alone is not a substitute for proper key policy.

C:

Use Azure Key Vault to centrally control cryptographic key or certificate material and its authorized operations. This is the directly applicable response. Key Vault supports cryptographic key and certificate lifecycle; secret storage alone is not a substitute for proper key policy.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Use the Microsoft Defender portal to review integrated Defender alerts, incidents and security investigations. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Defender portal. Its appropriate purpose is: The Defender portal provides a unified security operations interface; it is not a replacement for configuring every underlying product. For the stated case, Azure Key Vault keys and certificates is the closer match. Key Vault supports cryptographic key and certificate lifecycle; secret storage alone is not a substitute for proper key policy.

D:

Inspect protected resource coverage, workload alerts, enabled plans and alert investigation evidence. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Cloud workload protection. Its appropriate purpose is: Cloud workload protection detects threat signals and suspicious runtime behavior; CSPM primarily addresses configuration posture. For the stated case, Azure Key Vault keys and certificates is the closer match. Key Vault supports cryptographic key and certificate lifecycle; secret storage alone is not a substitute for proper key policy.

E:

The targeted risky process behavior is blocked without unnecessarily disrupting approved workloads. This item belongs to a different control area: Endpoint attack surface reduction. Its appropriate purpose is: ASR rules reduce common exploit paths on endpoints and can be tested in audit mode before enforcement. For the stated case, Azure Key Vault keys and certificates is the closer match. Key Vault supports cryptographic key and certificate lifecycle; secret storage alone is not a substitute for proper key policy.

Question 352

A company needs to retain Teams and Exchange content for a defined period under a broad policy. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?

  1. Apply Microsoft's published privacy principles when assessing transparency, control and responsible handling of personal data.
  2. Use the Microsoft Purview portal to discover and administer supported compliance, information protection and risk capabilities.
  3. Use the compliance score in Microsoft Purview Compliance Manager as a progress indicator for assessed improvement actions.
  4. Use Microsoft Purview retention policies to manage preservation or deletion of supported content at selected locations.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Use Microsoft Purview retention policies to manage preservation or deletion of supported content at selected locations. This is the directly applicable response. Retention policies apply lifecycle rules to selected locations or content sets; they do not substitute for DLP sharing blocks.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Apply Microsoft's published privacy principles when assessing transparency, control and responsible handling of personal data. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft privacy principles. Its appropriate purpose is: Privacy principles guide responsible data handling and transparency; they do not automatically classify every document. For the stated case, Retention policies is the closer match. Retention policies apply lifecycle rules to selected locations or content sets; they do not substitute for DLP sharing blocks.

B:

Use the Microsoft Purview portal to discover and administer supported compliance, information protection and risk capabilities. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Purview portal. Its appropriate purpose is: The Purview portal is a central interface for multiple compliance and data-governance solutions, not itself a finished compliance certification. For the stated case, Retention policies is the closer match. Retention policies apply lifecycle rules to selected locations or content sets; they do not substitute for DLP sharing blocks.

C:

Use the compliance score in Microsoft Purview Compliance Manager as a progress indicator for assessed improvement actions. This item belongs to a different control area: Compliance score. Its appropriate purpose is: Compliance score measures tracked improvement progress; it is not a universal regulatory certification or breach-risk guarantee. For the stated case, Retention policies is the closer match. Retention policies apply lifecycle rules to selected locations or content sets; they do not substitute for DLP sharing blocks.

Question 353

A SOC needs to distinguish risky authentication events from normal failed passwords when prioritizing account protection. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?

  1. Offer phishing-resistant FIDO2 passkey authentication with supported Microsoft Entra methods.
  2. Register an application and control its service principal permissions for unattended application access.
  3. Assign the least-privileged supported Microsoft Entra administrative role for a directory task.
  4. Use Microsoft Entra ID Protection signals to identify and respond to risky users or sign-ins.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Use Microsoft Entra ID Protection signals to identify and respond to risky users or sign-ins. This is the directly applicable response. Identity Protection detects identity-related risk signals; a generic role assignment alone does not assess risk.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Offer phishing-resistant FIDO2 passkey authentication with supported Microsoft Entra methods. This item belongs to a different control area: Passkeys and FIDO2. Its appropriate purpose is: FIDO2 passkeys bind authentication to the legitimate relying party and resist credential phishing more effectively than SMS codes. For the stated case, Identity Protection risk detection is the closer match. Identity Protection detects identity-related risk signals; a generic role assignment alone does not assess risk.

B:

Register an application and control its service principal permissions for unattended application access. This item belongs to a different control area: Service principals. Its appropriate purpose is: Service principals represent applications or services rather than individual human users; credentials and consent must be governed. For the stated case, Identity Protection risk detection is the closer match. Identity Protection detects identity-related risk signals; a generic role assignment alone does not assess risk.

C:

Assign the least-privileged supported Microsoft Entra administrative role for a directory task. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Entra role-based access control. Its appropriate purpose is: Entra administrative roles govern directory and identity operations; Azure resource RBAC is a separate scope model. For the stated case, Identity Protection risk detection is the closer match. Identity Protection detects identity-related risk signals; a generic role assignment alone does not assess risk.

Question 354

A third-party automation platform needs authorized API access to a tenant without impersonating a shared employee account. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?

  1. The specified lifecycle event triggers consistent identity tasks and leaves auditable results.
  2. The automation receives only its consented permissions and unused credentials are removed or rotated.
  3. The intended application sessions are governed and unrelated apps are not accidentally blocked.
  4. The operator can perform the approved directory task without access to unrelated privileged functions.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

The automation receives only its consented permissions and unused credentials are removed or rotated. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. Service principals represent applications or services rather than individual human users; credentials and consent must be governed.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The specified lifecycle event triggers consistent identity tasks and leaves auditable results. This item belongs to a different control area: Lifecycle workflows. Its appropriate purpose is: Lifecycle workflows automate repeatable identity onboarding and offboarding tasks; review of ongoing entitlements remains a separate control. For the stated case, Service principals is the closer match. Service principals represent applications or services rather than individual human users; credentials and consent must be governed.

C:

The intended application sessions are governed and unrelated apps are not accidentally blocked. This item belongs to a different control area: Conditional Access application targeting. Its appropriate purpose is: A policy should be tested for targeted principals and applications, with emergency-access exclusions where appropriate. For the stated case, Service principals is the closer match. Service principals represent applications or services rather than individual human users; credentials and consent must be governed.

D:

The operator can perform the approved directory task without access to unrelated privileged functions. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Entra role-based access control. Its appropriate purpose is: Entra administrative roles govern directory and identity operations; Azure resource RBAC is a separate scope model. For the stated case, Service principals is the closer match. Service principals represent applications or services rather than individual human users; credentials and consent must be governed.

Question 355

A merger introduces overlapping user identifiers and the team must verify identity matching before scaling synchronization. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?

  1. Expected in-scope users and attribute updates appear in Entra ID without duplicate cloud accounts.
  2. An eligible sign-in is completed only after the required second factor or equivalent strong authentication is satisfied.
  3. The specified lifecycle event triggers consistent identity tasks and leaves auditable results.
  4. Authorized users can reset forgotten passwords after meeting the defined verification requirements.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Expected in-scope users and attribute updates appear in Entra ID without duplicate cloud accounts. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. Directory synchronization must be scoped and observed; enabling it without verifying source objects can create identity drift.

Incorrect Answers

B:

An eligible sign-in is completed only after the required second factor or equivalent strong authentication is satisfied. This item belongs to a different control area: Multifactor authentication. Its appropriate purpose is: MFA combines different factor categories to reduce account takeover from a stolen password alone. For the stated case, Microsoft Entra Connect synchronization is the closer match. Directory synchronization must be scoped and observed; enabling it without verifying source objects can create identity drift.

C:

The specified lifecycle event triggers consistent identity tasks and leaves auditable results. This item belongs to a different control area: Lifecycle workflows. Its appropriate purpose is: Lifecycle workflows automate repeatable identity onboarding and offboarding tasks; review of ongoing entitlements remains a separate control. For the stated case, Microsoft Entra Connect synchronization is the closer match. Directory synchronization must be scoped and observed; enabling it without verifying source objects can create identity drift.

D:

Authorized users can reset forgotten passwords after meeting the defined verification requirements. This item belongs to a different control area: Self-service password reset. Its appropriate purpose is: SSPR helps account recovery; it does not grant additional resource authorization or bypass verification. For the stated case, Microsoft Entra Connect synchronization is the closer match. Directory synchronization must be scoped and observed; enabling it without verifying source objects can create identity drift.

Question 356

A tenant administrator reviews why an assistant has Global Administrator instead of a narrower required role. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?

  1. Inspect application and service principal objects, consented permissions and authentication credential lifecycle.
  2. Inspect role definitions, active assignments and role audit events for tenant administrators.
  3. Inspect access package catalogs, eligibility, request policy and expiration configuration.
  4. Inspect synchronization status, source directories and matching cloud user identities.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Inspect role definitions, active assignments and role audit events for tenant administrators. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Entra administrative roles govern directory and identity operations; Azure resource RBAC is a separate scope model.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect application and service principal objects, consented permissions and authentication credential lifecycle. This item belongs to a different control area: Service principals. Its appropriate purpose is: Service principals represent applications or services rather than individual human users; credentials and consent must be governed. For the stated case, Microsoft Entra role-based access control is the closer match. Entra administrative roles govern directory and identity operations; Azure resource RBAC is a separate scope model.

C:

Inspect access package catalogs, eligibility, request policy and expiration configuration. This item belongs to a different control area: Entitlement management access packages. Its appropriate purpose is: Entitlement management standardizes access bundles and access-request governance for groups, apps and sites. For the stated case, Microsoft Entra role-based access control is the closer match. Entra administrative roles govern directory and identity operations; Azure resource RBAC is a separate scope model.

D:

Inspect synchronization status, source directories and matching cloud user identities. This item belongs to a different control area: Hybrid identity. Its appropriate purpose is: Hybrid identity coordinates on-premises and cloud identity management; it does not automatically move every workload to Azure. For the stated case, Microsoft Entra role-based access control is the closer match. Entra administrative roles govern directory and identity operations; Azure resource RBAC is a separate scope model.

Question 357

A supplier wants its own identity system to authenticate staff to a partner's ordering portal. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?

  1. A controlled test shows protected ciphertext at rest and secure transport during approved client communication.
  2. Access decisions re-evaluate context and give only the privileges required for an approved task.
  3. Risks have assigned treatment decisions and controls have evidence linked to applicable requirements.
  4. External identities sign in through the trusted home provider and receive only the application's authorized access.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

External identities sign in through the trusted home provider and receive only the application's authorized access. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. Federation extends authentication trust across security domains; it does not automatically grant unrestricted permissions.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A controlled test shows protected ciphertext at rest and secure transport during approved client communication. This item belongs to a different control area: Encryption. Its appropriate purpose is: Encryption makes data unreadable to an unauthorized party without the appropriate key; it differs from a one-way hash. For the stated case, Identity federation is the closer match. Federation extends authentication trust across security domains; it does not automatically grant unrestricted permissions.

B:

Access decisions re-evaluate context and give only the privileges required for an approved task. This item belongs to a different control area: Zero Trust. Its appropriate purpose is: Zero Trust does not automatically trust a user, device or connection because it originates on a corporate network. For the stated case, Identity federation is the closer match. Federation extends authentication trust across security domains; it does not automatically grant unrestricted permissions.

C:

Risks have assigned treatment decisions and controls have evidence linked to applicable requirements. This item belongs to a different control area: Governance risk and compliance. Its appropriate purpose is: Governance sets direction, risk management evaluates exposure, and compliance verifies obligations against controls. For the stated case, Identity federation is the closer match. Federation extends authentication trust across security domains; it does not automatically grant unrestricted permissions.

Question 358

A cloud engineer cannot restart a VM despite having an Entra directory administration role. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?

  1. Assign Azure resource RBAC at the smallest practical resource scope for resource management operations.
  2. Use Microsoft Entra ID as the cloud identity and access-management service for users, groups and applications.
  3. Configure and monitor an appropriate supported Microsoft Entra Connect synchronization method for hybrid users.
  4. Connect on-premises Active Directory identities with Microsoft Entra ID for a coordinated hybrid identity experience.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Assign Azure resource RBAC at the smallest practical resource scope for resource management operations. This is the directly applicable response. Azure RBAC governs Azure resource permissions, whereas Microsoft Entra roles govern directory services.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Use Microsoft Entra ID as the cloud identity and access-management service for users, groups and applications. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Entra ID cloud identity. Its appropriate purpose is: Microsoft Entra ID provides cloud directory and identity services, not network packet filtering or document retention. For the stated case, Azure resource RBAC versus Entra roles is the closer match. Azure RBAC governs Azure resource permissions, whereas Microsoft Entra roles govern directory services.

C:

Configure and monitor an appropriate supported Microsoft Entra Connect synchronization method for hybrid users. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Entra Connect synchronization. Its appropriate purpose is: Directory synchronization must be scoped and observed; enabling it without verifying source objects can create identity drift. For the stated case, Azure resource RBAC versus Entra roles is the closer match. Azure RBAC governs Azure resource permissions, whereas Microsoft Entra roles govern directory services.

D:

Connect on-premises Active Directory identities with Microsoft Entra ID for a coordinated hybrid identity experience. This item belongs to a different control area: Hybrid identity. Its appropriate purpose is: Hybrid identity coordinates on-premises and cloud identity management; it does not automatically move every workload to Azure. For the stated case, Azure resource RBAC versus Entra roles is the closer match. Azure RBAC governs Azure resource permissions, whereas Microsoft Entra roles govern directory services.

Question 359

An administrator seeks a controlled way to connect to management endpoints inside a VNet. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?

  1. Administrators can manage target VMs through Bastion while direct public RDP or SSH exposure is absent.
  2. Relevant on-premises directory attack behavior generates supported identity threat detections.
  3. The intended risky session action is monitored or restricted according to configured controls.
  4. The compliance dashboard reflects assessment status and supporting remediation evidence for selected standards.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Administrators can manage target VMs through Bastion while direct public RDP or SSH exposure is absent. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. Bastion supplies browser- or client-mediated secure VM management access; it is not a DDoS service.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Relevant on-premises directory attack behavior generates supported identity threat detections. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Identity. Its appropriate purpose is: Defender for Identity monitors on-premises identity threats and domain controller signals; it is not a cloud app SaaS discovery catalog. For the stated case, Azure Bastion is the closer match. Bastion supplies browser- or client-mediated secure VM management access; it is not a DDoS service.

C:

The intended risky session action is monitored or restricted according to configured controls. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Cloud Apps session controls. Its appropriate purpose is: Session controls provide real-time governance of supported cloud app activities; discovery alone does not enforce session behaviors. For the stated case, Azure Bastion is the closer match. Bastion supplies browser- or client-mediated secure VM management access; it is not a DDoS service.

D:

The compliance dashboard reflects assessment status and supporting remediation evidence for selected standards. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Cloud regulatory compliance. Its appropriate purpose is: Regulatory compliance views relate assessed technical controls to frameworks; they do not by themselves certify organizational legal compliance. For the stated case, Azure Bastion is the closer match. Bastion supplies browser- or client-mediated secure VM management access; it is not a DDoS service.

Question 360

A domain controller shows suspicious enumeration and authentication activity during an investigation. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.

  1. Inspect monitored domain controllers, identity alerts and suspicious activity timelines.
  2. Disallowed network flows are blocked by the expected rule without disrupting explicitly permitted connections.
  3. Use Microsoft Defender for Identity to detect suspicious identity activity involving supported on-premises Active Directory environments.
  4. Use Azure DDoS Protection for protection of exposed Azure public IP resources against volumetric network attacks where appropriate.
  5. Inspect VNet and subnet address plans, peering relationships and route tables.

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

Inspect monitored domain controllers, identity alerts and suspicious activity timelines. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Defender for Identity monitors on-premises identity threats and domain controller signals; it is not a cloud app SaaS discovery catalog.

C:

Use Microsoft Defender for Identity to detect suspicious identity activity involving supported on-premises Active Directory environments. This is the directly applicable response. Defender for Identity monitors on-premises identity threats and domain controller signals; it is not a cloud app SaaS discovery catalog.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Disallowed network flows are blocked by the expected rule without disrupting explicitly permitted connections. This item belongs to a different control area: Network security groups. Its appropriate purpose is: NSGs provide ordered L3/L4 traffic filtering in Azure, not deep web-request inspection. For the stated case, Defender for Identity is the closer match. Defender for Identity monitors on-premises identity threats and domain controller signals; it is not a cloud app SaaS discovery catalog.

D:

Use Azure DDoS Protection for protection of exposed Azure public IP resources against volumetric network attacks where appropriate. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure DDoS Protection. Its appropriate purpose is: DDoS Protection addresses distributed denial-of-service traffic aimed at network services; it does not replace a web-application rule engine. For the stated case, Defender for Identity is the closer match. Defender for Identity monitors on-premises identity threats and domain controller signals; it is not a cloud app SaaS discovery catalog.

E:

Inspect VNet and subnet address plans, peering relationships and route tables. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure virtual network segmentation. Its appropriate purpose is: Virtual networks provide logical network isolation; separate security policies may still be needed to limit allowed flows. For the stated case, Defender for Identity is the closer match. Defender for Identity monitors on-premises identity threats and domain controller signals; it is not a cloud app SaaS discovery catalog.

Microsoft Security, Compliance, and Identity Fundamentals (SC-900) Practice Tests