Microsoft SC-900 Practice Test 35
Question 340
An enterprise wants a consolidated incident view across identities, devices and email threats. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?
- Use Azure Key Vault to centrally control cryptographic key or certificate material and its authorized operations.
- Separate workloads into appropriately designed Azure virtual networks and subnets with explicit connectivity boundaries.
- Use Microsoft Sentinel incidents and investigation context to triage related alerts and affected entities.
- Use Microsoft Defender XDR to correlate incidents and signals across supported Microsoft security products.
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:Use Microsoft Defender XDR to correlate incidents and signals across supported Microsoft security products. This is the directly applicable response. Defender XDR correlates detections across product domains; it does not replace storage of encryption keys or data retention governance.
Incorrect Answers
A:Use Azure Key Vault to centrally control cryptographic key or certificate material and its authorized operations. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure Key Vault keys and certificates. Its appropriate purpose is: Key Vault supports cryptographic key and certificate lifecycle; secret storage alone is not a substitute for proper key policy. For the stated case, Microsoft Defender XDR unified incidents is the closer match. Defender XDR correlates detections across product domains; it does not replace storage of encryption keys or data retention governance.
B:Separate workloads into appropriately designed Azure virtual networks and subnets with explicit connectivity boundaries. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure virtual network segmentation. Its appropriate purpose is: Virtual networks provide logical network isolation; separate security policies may still be needed to limit allowed flows. For the stated case, Microsoft Defender XDR unified incidents is the closer match. Defender XDR correlates detections across product domains; it does not replace storage of encryption keys or data retention governance.
C:Use Microsoft Sentinel incidents and investigation context to triage related alerts and affected entities. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Sentinel incident investigation. Its appropriate purpose is: Incident management helps investigate and coordinate alerts; it differs from automatic enforcement through a playbook. For the stated case, Microsoft Defender XDR unified incidents is the closer match. Defender XDR correlates detections across product domains; it does not replace storage of encryption keys or data retention governance.
Question 341
An organization wants structured tracking of actions required by a compliance standard. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.
- Use Microsoft Purview retention policies to manage preservation or deletion of supported content at selected locations.
- Use Microsoft Purview Compliance Manager to organize improvement actions and track regulatory assessment progress.
- Inspect Content explorer's classification breakdown and permission-scoped item drill-down.
- Target items receive the correct retention label and follow the configured item-level lifecycle behavior.
- Inspect assessments, improvement actions, assigned owners and uploaded evidence.
Explanation
Correct Answers
B:Use Microsoft Purview Compliance Manager to organize improvement actions and track regulatory assessment progress. This is the directly applicable response. Compliance Manager maps control activities and improvements; it does not automatically guarantee legal compliance.
E:Inspect assessments, improvement actions, assigned owners and uploaded evidence. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Compliance Manager maps control activities and improvements; it does not automatically guarantee legal compliance.
Incorrect Answers
A:Use Microsoft Purview retention policies to manage preservation or deletion of supported content at selected locations. This item belongs to a different control area: Retention policies. Its appropriate purpose is: Retention policies apply lifecycle rules to selected locations or content sets; they do not substitute for DLP sharing blocks. For the stated case, Compliance Manager is the closer match. Compliance Manager maps control activities and improvements; it does not automatically guarantee legal compliance.
C:Inspect Content explorer's classification breakdown and permission-scoped item drill-down. This item belongs to a different control area: Content explorer. Its appropriate purpose is: Content explorer helps inspect classified data inventory; Activity explorer focuses on actions and activity history. For the stated case, Compliance Manager is the closer match. Compliance Manager maps control activities and improvements; it does not automatically guarantee legal compliance.
D:Target items receive the correct retention label and follow the configured item-level lifecycle behavior. This item belongs to a different control area: Retention labels. Its appropriate purpose is: Retention labels govern specific items; a broad location-level retention policy does not provide the same fine-grained labeling behavior. For the stated case, Compliance Manager is the closer match. Compliance Manager maps control activities and improvements; it does not automatically guarantee legal compliance.
Question 342
A legal department needs contracts retained for a longer period than routine operational messages. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?
- Target items receive the correct retention label and follow the configured item-level lifecycle behavior.
- Authorized investigators can preserve and retrieve relevant evidence with traceable case handling.
- The compliance analyst can access the intended Purview capability under the appropriate permissions.
- Assessment owners can see outstanding control work, evidence and completion status for the chosen framework.
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:Target items receive the correct retention label and follow the configured item-level lifecycle behavior. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. Retention labels govern specific items; a broad location-level retention policy does not provide the same fine-grained labeling behavior.
Incorrect Answers
B:Authorized investigators can preserve and retrieve relevant evidence with traceable case handling. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Purview eDiscovery. Its appropriate purpose is: eDiscovery supports legal and regulatory evidence workflows; it is distinct from real-time data loss prevention. For the stated case, Retention labels is the closer match. Retention labels govern specific items; a broad location-level retention policy does not provide the same fine-grained labeling behavior.
C:The compliance analyst can access the intended Purview capability under the appropriate permissions. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Purview portal. Its appropriate purpose is: The Purview portal is a central interface for multiple compliance and data-governance solutions, not itself a finished compliance certification. For the stated case, Retention labels is the closer match. Retention labels govern specific items; a broad location-level retention policy does not provide the same fine-grained labeling behavior.
D:Assessment owners can see outstanding control work, evidence and completion status for the chosen framework. This item belongs to a different control area: Compliance Manager. Its appropriate purpose is: Compliance Manager maps control activities and improvements; it does not automatically guarantee legal compliance. For the stated case, Retention labels is the closer match. Retention labels govern specific items; a broad location-level retention policy does not provide the same fine-grained labeling behavior.
Question 343
An administrator wants to know which devices are exposed to a newly published software CVE. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?
- Inspect WAF rules, managed-rule matches and HTTP request logs for the affected endpoint.
- Inspect asset inventory, secure score, alerts, plans and recommendations in Defender for Cloud.
- Inspect device vulnerability inventory, recommendations, software exposure and remediation status.
- Inspect NSG effective rules, priority ordering and flow evaluation for the affected network interface.
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:Inspect device vulnerability inventory, recommendations, software exposure and remediation status. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Vulnerability management focuses on identifying and prioritizing exposures; it is distinct from active incident correlation.
Incorrect Answers
A:Inspect WAF rules, managed-rule matches and HTTP request logs for the affected endpoint. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure Web Application Firewall. Its appropriate purpose is: A WAF targets application-layer HTTP risks such as injection, unlike basic network port filtering. For the stated case, Defender Vulnerability Management is the closer match. Vulnerability management focuses on identifying and prioritizing exposures; it is distinct from active incident correlation.
B:Inspect asset inventory, secure score, alerts, plans and recommendations in Defender for Cloud. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Cloud unified security posture. Its appropriate purpose is: Defender for Cloud combines CSPM and cloud workload protection capabilities; it is not the same as a single network security group. For the stated case, Defender Vulnerability Management is the closer match. Vulnerability management focuses on identifying and prioritizing exposures; it is distinct from active incident correlation.
D:Inspect NSG effective rules, priority ordering and flow evaluation for the affected network interface. This item belongs to a different control area: Network security groups. Its appropriate purpose is: NSGs provide ordered L3/L4 traffic filtering in Azure, not deep web-request inspection. For the stated case, Defender Vulnerability Management is the closer match. Vulnerability management focuses on identifying and prioritizing exposures; it is distinct from active incident correlation.
Question 344
A laptop launches a suspicious executable and the SOC needs process-tree investigation. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.
- Use Microsoft Defender for Endpoint endpoint detection and response capabilities to investigate malicious device activity.
- Only approved flows traverse the central firewall while prohibited traffic is logged or denied.
- Store and access application secrets in Azure Key Vault with appropriately controlled authorization.
- Inspect posture findings, resource coverage, attack paths where available and suggested remediations.
- Inspect onboarded device inventory, detection alerts, process timelines and investigation findings.
Explanation
Correct Answers
A:Use Microsoft Defender for Endpoint endpoint detection and response capabilities to investigate malicious device activity. This is the directly applicable response. Endpoint detection and response targets device-level malicious behavior, not Microsoft 365 document retention.
E:Inspect onboarded device inventory, detection alerts, process timelines and investigation findings. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Endpoint detection and response targets device-level malicious behavior, not Microsoft 365 document retention.
Incorrect Answers
B:Only approved flows traverse the central firewall while prohibited traffic is logged or denied. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure Firewall. Its appropriate purpose is: Azure Firewall is a managed stateful network security service; it is not an identity provider or a retention tool. For the stated case, Defender for Endpoint EDR is the closer match. Endpoint detection and response targets device-level malicious behavior, not Microsoft 365 document retention.
C:Store and access application secrets in Azure Key Vault with appropriately controlled authorization. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure Key Vault secrets. Its appropriate purpose is: Key Vault manages keys, secrets and certificates; it is not a general-purpose file storage or SIEM service. For the stated case, Defender for Endpoint EDR is the closer match. Endpoint detection and response targets device-level malicious behavior, not Microsoft 365 document retention.
D:Inspect posture findings, resource coverage, attack paths where available and suggested remediations. This item belongs to a different control area: Cloud Security Posture Management. Its appropriate purpose is: CSPM evaluates configuration and exposure risk proactively, rather than solely responding to an endpoint malware alert. For the stated case, Defender for Endpoint EDR is the closer match. Endpoint detection and response targets device-level malicious behavior, not Microsoft 365 document retention.
Question 345
A legal office has repeated reverse-proxy phishing attempts against password-based logins. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?
- Inspect the resource's system- or user-assigned identity and its destination-resource RBAC grants.
- Inspect included and excluded users, target apps, conditions and report-only evaluation logs.
- Inspect registered passkey credentials, permitted authentication-method settings and sign-in method details.
- Inspect access package catalogs, eligibility, request policy and expiration configuration.
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:Inspect registered passkey credentials, permitted authentication-method settings and sign-in method details. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. FIDO2 passkeys bind authentication to the legitimate relying party and resist credential phishing more effectively than SMS codes.
Incorrect Answers
A:Inspect the resource's system- or user-assigned identity and its destination-resource RBAC grants. This item belongs to a different control area: Managed identities. Its appropriate purpose is: Managed identities remove workload credential handling for supported Azure resources but still require appropriate authorization. For the stated case, Passkeys and FIDO2 is the closer match. FIDO2 passkeys bind authentication to the legitimate relying party and resist credential phishing more effectively than SMS codes.
B:Inspect included and excluded users, target apps, conditions and report-only evaluation logs. This item belongs to a different control area: Conditional Access application targeting. Its appropriate purpose is: A policy should be tested for targeted principals and applications, with emergency-access exclusions where appropriate. For the stated case, Passkeys and FIDO2 is the closer match. FIDO2 passkeys bind authentication to the legitimate relying party and resist credential phishing more effectively than SMS codes.
D:Inspect access package catalogs, eligibility, request policy and expiration configuration. This item belongs to a different control area: Entitlement management access packages. Its appropriate purpose is: Entitlement management standardizes access bundles and access-request governance for groups, apps and sites. For the stated case, Passkeys and FIDO2 is the closer match. FIDO2 passkeys bind authentication to the legitimate relying party and resist credential phishing more effectively than SMS codes.
Question 346
A security analyst wants risk-prioritized cloud configuration findings across changing Azure resources. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.
- Use supported Defender for Cloud Apps Conditional Access App Control session controls for cloud app activity when configured.
- Enable relevant Cloud Security Posture Management capabilities to identify cloud configuration risks and improve posture.
- Inspect posture findings, resource coverage, attack paths where available and suggested remediations.
- Related endpoint, identity and email signals appear together in a coordinated investigation.
- Inspect Bastion deployment, VM public IP assignments and management connection paths.
Explanation
Correct Answers
B:Enable relevant Cloud Security Posture Management capabilities to identify cloud configuration risks and improve posture. This is the directly applicable response. CSPM evaluates configuration and exposure risk proactively, rather than solely responding to an endpoint malware alert.
C:Inspect posture findings, resource coverage, attack paths where available and suggested remediations. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. CSPM evaluates configuration and exposure risk proactively, rather than solely responding to an endpoint malware alert.
Incorrect Answers
A:Use supported Defender for Cloud Apps Conditional Access App Control session controls for cloud app activity when configured. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Cloud Apps session controls. Its appropriate purpose is: Session controls provide real-time governance of supported cloud app activities; discovery alone does not enforce session behaviors. For the stated case, Cloud Security Posture Management is the closer match. CSPM evaluates configuration and exposure risk proactively, rather than solely responding to an endpoint malware alert.
D:Related endpoint, identity and email signals appear together in a coordinated investigation. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Defender XDR unified incidents. Its appropriate purpose is: Defender XDR correlates detections across product domains; it does not replace storage of encryption keys or data retention governance. For the stated case, Cloud Security Posture Management is the closer match. CSPM evaluates configuration and exposure risk proactively, rather than solely responding to an endpoint malware alert.
E:Inspect Bastion deployment, VM public IP assignments and management connection paths. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure Bastion. Its appropriate purpose is: Bastion supplies browser- or client-mediated secure VM management access; it is not a DDoS service. For the stated case, Cloud Security Posture Management is the closer match. CSPM evaluates configuration and exposure risk proactively, rather than solely responding to an endpoint malware alert.
Question 347
An organization wants a common preservation period for selected Microsoft 365 locations. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?
- Covered content is retained or disposed of according to the policy and location configuration.
- A privacy review can explain how personal information is governed and how customers exercise supported data controls.
- A qualifying risky activity is triaged through the authorized insider-risk workflow with documented disposition.
- The reviewer obtains the applicable provider assurance documentation without treating it as proof of the customer's controls.
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:Covered content is retained or disposed of according to the policy and location configuration. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. Retention policies apply lifecycle rules to selected locations or content sets; they do not substitute for DLP sharing blocks.
Incorrect Answers
B:A privacy review can explain how personal information is governed and how customers exercise supported data controls. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft privacy principles. Its appropriate purpose is: Privacy principles guide responsible data handling and transparency; they do not automatically classify every document. For the stated case, Retention policies is the closer match. Retention policies apply lifecycle rules to selected locations or content sets; they do not substitute for DLP sharing blocks.
C:A qualifying risky activity is triaged through the authorized insider-risk workflow with documented disposition. This item belongs to a different control area: Insider risk management. Its appropriate purpose is: Insider risk policies correlate relevant insider indicators; they do not authorize indiscriminate surveillance or replace privacy and employment policy. For the stated case, Retention policies is the closer match. Retention policies apply lifecycle rules to selected locations or content sets; they do not substitute for DLP sharing blocks.
D:The reviewer obtains the applicable provider assurance documentation without treating it as proof of the customer's controls. This item belongs to a different control area: Service Trust Portal. Its appropriate purpose is: The Service Trust Portal offers Microsoft service assurance resources; customers remain responsible for their own compliance obligations. For the stated case, Retention policies is the closer match. Retention policies apply lifecycle rules to selected locations or content sets; they do not substitute for DLP sharing blocks.
Question 348
A legal group asks whether transparency and user control are reflected in the chosen cloud solution. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?
- Examine data handling notices, customer controls and the relevant published privacy commitments.
- Inspect audit search parameters, event operations, actors and timestamps for the relevant workload.
- Inspect Activity explorer events, filters, users, activity types and timestamps.
- Inspect the relevant Purview solution pages, available roles and enabled features.
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:Examine data handling notices, customer controls and the relevant published privacy commitments. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Privacy principles guide responsible data handling and transparency; they do not automatically classify every document.
Incorrect Answers
B:Inspect audit search parameters, event operations, actors and timestamps for the relevant workload. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Purview Audit. Its appropriate purpose is: Audit provides activity logging and search, not a tool to classify documents or automatically enforce retention. For the stated case, Microsoft privacy principles is the closer match. Privacy principles guide responsible data handling and transparency; they do not automatically classify every document.
C:Inspect Activity explorer events, filters, users, activity types and timestamps. This item belongs to a different control area: Activity explorer. Its appropriate purpose is: Activity explorer focuses on what happened to data, unlike Content explorer's inventory of classified content. For the stated case, Microsoft privacy principles is the closer match. Privacy principles guide responsible data handling and transparency; they do not automatically classify every document.
D:Inspect the relevant Purview solution pages, available roles and enabled features. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Purview portal. Its appropriate purpose is: The Purview portal is a central interface for multiple compliance and data-governance solutions, not itself a finished compliance certification. For the stated case, Microsoft privacy principles is the closer match. Privacy principles guide responsible data handling and transparency; they do not automatically classify every document.
Question 349
An HR team wants activity controls when employees use certain sanctioned cloud apps from personal devices. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?
- Inspect session policy scope, controlled activities and matched cloud app session events.
- Inspect attack mitigation telemetry, protected public IP association and network traffic anomaly patterns.
- Inspect key or certificate versions, permissions and renewal or rotation configuration.
- Inspect NSG effective rules, priority ordering and flow evaluation for the affected network interface.
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:Inspect session policy scope, controlled activities and matched cloud app session events. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Session controls provide real-time governance of supported cloud app activities; discovery alone does not enforce session behaviors.
Incorrect Answers
B:Inspect attack mitigation telemetry, protected public IP association and network traffic anomaly patterns. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure DDoS Protection. Its appropriate purpose is: DDoS Protection addresses distributed denial-of-service traffic aimed at network services; it does not replace a web-application rule engine. For the stated case, Defender for Cloud Apps session controls is the closer match. Session controls provide real-time governance of supported cloud app activities; discovery alone does not enforce session behaviors.
C:Inspect key or certificate versions, permissions and renewal or rotation configuration. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure Key Vault keys and certificates. Its appropriate purpose is: Key Vault supports cryptographic key and certificate lifecycle; secret storage alone is not a substitute for proper key policy. For the stated case, Defender for Cloud Apps session controls is the closer match. Session controls provide real-time governance of supported cloud app activities; discovery alone does not enforce session behaviors.
D:Inspect NSG effective rules, priority ordering and flow evaluation for the affected network interface. This item belongs to a different control area: Network security groups. Its appropriate purpose is: NSGs provide ordered L3/L4 traffic filtering in Azure, not deep web-request inspection. For the stated case, Defender for Cloud Apps session controls is the closer match. Session controls provide real-time governance of supported cloud app activities; discovery alone does not enforce session behaviors.
Question 350
A staff member forgets a cloud sign-in password while the support desk is closed. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.
- Enable self-service password reset with verified registration and appropriate identity checks for eligible users.
- The intended application sessions are governed and unrelated apps are not accidentally blocked.
- Inspect guest account records, cross-tenant access settings and assigned resource permissions.
- Inspect SSPR policy scope, method registration, registration status and reset audit logs.
- Use Microsoft Entra ID Protection signals to identify and respond to risky users or sign-ins.
Explanation
Correct Answers
A:Enable self-service password reset with verified registration and appropriate identity checks for eligible users. This is the directly applicable response. SSPR helps account recovery; it does not grant additional resource authorization or bypass verification.
D:Inspect SSPR policy scope, method registration, registration status and reset audit logs. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. SSPR helps account recovery; it does not grant additional resource authorization or bypass verification.
Incorrect Answers
B:The intended application sessions are governed and unrelated apps are not accidentally blocked. This item belongs to a different control area: Conditional Access application targeting. Its appropriate purpose is: A policy should be tested for targeted principals and applications, with emergency-access exclusions where appropriate. For the stated case, Self-service password reset is the closer match. SSPR helps account recovery; it does not grant additional resource authorization or bypass verification.
C:Inspect guest account records, cross-tenant access settings and assigned resource permissions. This item belongs to a different control area: External guest collaboration. Its appropriate purpose is: B2B collaboration supports external users while preserving explicit guest access and tenant policy boundaries. For the stated case, Self-service password reset is the closer match. SSPR helps account recovery; it does not grant additional resource authorization or bypass verification.
E:Use Microsoft Entra ID Protection signals to identify and respond to risky users or sign-ins. This item belongs to a different control area: Identity Protection risk detection. Its appropriate purpose is: Identity Protection detects identity-related risk signals; a generic role assignment alone does not assess risk. For the stated case, Self-service password reset is the closer match. SSPR helps account recovery; it does not grant additional resource authorization or bypass verification.