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Microsoft SC-900 Practice Test 33

Question 320

An Azure Linux VM requires periodic SSH access but security prohibits a public IP for the workload. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?

  1. Use Azure Bastion to reach supported Azure VMs over RDP or SSH without exposing public management ports directly.
  2. Enable applicable Defender for Cloud workload protection plans to detect threats affecting supported cloud workloads.
  3. Use the Microsoft Defender portal to review integrated Defender alerts, incidents and security investigations.
  4. Use Microsoft Threat Intelligence capabilities and relevant threat context to enrich analysis of adversaries and indicators.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Use Azure Bastion to reach supported Azure VMs over RDP or SSH without exposing public management ports directly. This is the directly applicable response. Bastion supplies browser- or client-mediated secure VM management access; it is not a DDoS service.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Enable applicable Defender for Cloud workload protection plans to detect threats affecting supported cloud workloads. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Cloud workload protection. Its appropriate purpose is: Cloud workload protection detects threat signals and suspicious runtime behavior; CSPM primarily addresses configuration posture. For the stated case, Azure Bastion is the closer match. Bastion supplies browser- or client-mediated secure VM management access; it is not a DDoS service.

C:

Use the Microsoft Defender portal to review integrated Defender alerts, incidents and security investigations. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Defender portal. Its appropriate purpose is: The Defender portal provides a unified security operations interface; it is not a replacement for configuring every underlying product. For the stated case, Azure Bastion is the closer match. Bastion supplies browser- or client-mediated secure VM management access; it is not a DDoS service.

D:

Use Microsoft Threat Intelligence capabilities and relevant threat context to enrich analysis of adversaries and indicators. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Threat Intelligence. Its appropriate purpose is: Threat intelligence adds context on threats and indicators; it does not by itself implement endpoint blocking or identity authorization. For the stated case, Azure Bastion is the closer match. Bastion supplies browser- or client-mediated secure VM management access; it is not a DDoS service.

Question 321

An analyst investigates a burst of DLP rule matches and needs activity events by user. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?

  1. The analyst can trace relevant label or DLP activity to an auditable event record.
  2. Assessment owners can see outstanding control work, evidence and completion status for the chosen framework.
  3. Authorized investigators can preserve and retrieve relevant evidence with traceable case handling.
  4. The compliance analyst can access the intended Purview capability under the appropriate permissions.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

The analyst can trace relevant label or DLP activity to an auditable event record. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. Activity explorer focuses on what happened to data, unlike Content explorer's inventory of classified content.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Assessment owners can see outstanding control work, evidence and completion status for the chosen framework. This item belongs to a different control area: Compliance Manager. Its appropriate purpose is: Compliance Manager maps control activities and improvements; it does not automatically guarantee legal compliance. For the stated case, Activity explorer is the closer match. Activity explorer focuses on what happened to data, unlike Content explorer's inventory of classified content.

C:

Authorized investigators can preserve and retrieve relevant evidence with traceable case handling. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Purview eDiscovery. Its appropriate purpose is: eDiscovery supports legal and regulatory evidence workflows; it is distinct from real-time data loss prevention. For the stated case, Activity explorer is the closer match. Activity explorer focuses on what happened to data, unlike Content explorer's inventory of classified content.

D:

The compliance analyst can access the intended Purview capability under the appropriate permissions. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Purview portal. Its appropriate purpose is: The Purview portal is a central interface for multiple compliance and data-governance solutions, not itself a finished compliance certification. For the stated case, Activity explorer is the closer match. Activity explorer focuses on what happened to data, unlike Content explorer's inventory of classified content.

Question 322

An accounts clerk receives invoice attachments that may contain malware. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?

  1. Inspect Bastion deployment, VM public IP assignments and management connection paths.
  2. Inspect firewall policies, rule collections, traffic logs and routed connection paths.
  3. Inspect Safe Attachments policy scope, file verdicts and attachment detection reports.
  4. Inspect analytic rule query logic, schedule, thresholds and representative matching events.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Inspect Safe Attachments policy scope, file verdicts and attachment detection reports. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Safe Attachments focuses on file-based email threats, whereas Safe Links protects URLs.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect Bastion deployment, VM public IP assignments and management connection paths. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure Bastion. Its appropriate purpose is: Bastion supplies browser- or client-mediated secure VM management access; it is not a DDoS service. For the stated case, Defender for Office 365 Safe Attachments is the closer match. Safe Attachments focuses on file-based email threats, whereas Safe Links protects URLs.

B:

Inspect firewall policies, rule collections, traffic logs and routed connection paths. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure Firewall. Its appropriate purpose is: Azure Firewall is a managed stateful network security service; it is not an identity provider or a retention tool. For the stated case, Defender for Office 365 Safe Attachments is the closer match. Safe Attachments focuses on file-based email threats, whereas Safe Links protects URLs.

D:

Inspect analytic rule query logic, schedule, thresholds and representative matching events. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Sentinel analytics rules. Its appropriate purpose is: Sentinel analytics rules evaluate telemetry to raise detections; collecting logs alone is insufficient to identify a defined pattern. For the stated case, Defender for Office 365 Safe Attachments is the closer match. Safe Attachments focuses on file-based email threats, whereas Safe Links protects URLs.

Question 323

A nonprofit is replacing separate application passwords with centralized user lifecycle and sign-in administration. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.

  1. Users unlock or authenticate with a local gesture backed by a device-bound cryptographic credential.
  2. Assign Azure resource RBAC at the smallest practical resource scope for resource management operations.
  3. Inspect tenant user and group objects, enterprise application registration and sign-in events.
  4. Inspect role definitions, active assignments and role audit events for tenant administrators.
  5. Use Microsoft Entra ID as the cloud identity and access-management service for users, groups and applications.

Explanation

Correct Answers

C:

Inspect tenant user and group objects, enterprise application registration and sign-in events. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Microsoft Entra ID provides cloud directory and identity services, not network packet filtering or document retention.

E:

Use Microsoft Entra ID as the cloud identity and access-management service for users, groups and applications. This is the directly applicable response. Microsoft Entra ID provides cloud directory and identity services, not network packet filtering or document retention.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Users unlock or authenticate with a local gesture backed by a device-bound cryptographic credential. This item belongs to a different control area: Windows Hello for Business. Its appropriate purpose is: Windows Hello for Business replaces reusable password use in supported scenarios with device-bound asymmetric credentials and local user verification. For the stated case, Microsoft Entra ID cloud identity is the closer match. Microsoft Entra ID provides cloud directory and identity services, not network packet filtering or document retention.

B:

Assign Azure resource RBAC at the smallest practical resource scope for resource management operations. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure resource RBAC versus Entra roles. Its appropriate purpose is: Azure RBAC governs Azure resource permissions, whereas Microsoft Entra roles govern directory services. For the stated case, Microsoft Entra ID cloud identity is the closer match. Microsoft Entra ID provides cloud directory and identity services, not network packet filtering or document retention.

D:

Inspect role definitions, active assignments and role audit events for tenant administrators. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Entra role-based access control. Its appropriate purpose is: Entra administrative roles govern directory and identity operations; Azure resource RBAC is a separate scope model. For the stated case, Microsoft Entra ID cloud identity is the closer match. Microsoft Entra ID provides cloud directory and identity services, not network packet filtering or document retention.

Question 324

An internal investigation must find relevant communication records while avoiding accidental alteration. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?

  1. Test sharing of covered sensitive data triggers the intended warning, block or audit action as configured.
  2. Assessment owners can see outstanding control work, evidence and completion status for the chosen framework.
  3. The analyst can trace relevant label or DLP activity to an auditable event record.
  4. Authorized investigators can preserve and retrieve relevant evidence with traceable case handling.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Authorized investigators can preserve and retrieve relevant evidence with traceable case handling. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. eDiscovery supports legal and regulatory evidence workflows; it is distinct from real-time data loss prevention.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Test sharing of covered sensitive data triggers the intended warning, block or audit action as configured. This item belongs to a different control area: Data loss prevention policies. Its appropriate purpose is: DLP controls risky data movement based on policy conditions; labeling alone does not enforce every transmission restriction. For the stated case, Microsoft Purview eDiscovery is the closer match. eDiscovery supports legal and regulatory evidence workflows; it is distinct from real-time data loss prevention.

B:

Assessment owners can see outstanding control work, evidence and completion status for the chosen framework. This item belongs to a different control area: Compliance Manager. Its appropriate purpose is: Compliance Manager maps control activities and improvements; it does not automatically guarantee legal compliance. For the stated case, Microsoft Purview eDiscovery is the closer match. eDiscovery supports legal and regulatory evidence workflows; it is distinct from real-time data loss prevention.

C:

The analyst can trace relevant label or DLP activity to an auditable event record. This item belongs to a different control area: Activity explorer. Its appropriate purpose is: Activity explorer focuses on what happened to data, unlike Content explorer's inventory of classified content. For the stated case, Microsoft Purview eDiscovery is the closer match. eDiscovery supports legal and regulatory evidence workflows; it is distinct from real-time data loss prevention.

Question 325

A security analyst needs a classification basis for rules protecting records with structured identifiers. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?

  1. Inspect score breakdown, applicable improvement actions and updates to action completion.
  2. Inspect classifier configuration, matched items and classification results in a controlled test corpus.
  3. Inspect assessments, improvement actions, assigned owners and uploaded evidence.
  4. Examine data handling notices, customer controls and the relevant published privacy commitments.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Inspect classifier configuration, matched items and classification results in a controlled test corpus. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Classification identifies content characteristics to support protection policies; classifying alone does not block exfiltration.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect score breakdown, applicable improvement actions and updates to action completion. This item belongs to a different control area: Compliance score. Its appropriate purpose is: Compliance score measures tracked improvement progress; it is not a universal regulatory certification or breach-risk guarantee. For the stated case, Sensitive information type classification is the closer match. Classification identifies content characteristics to support protection policies; classifying alone does not block exfiltration.

C:

Inspect assessments, improvement actions, assigned owners and uploaded evidence. This item belongs to a different control area: Compliance Manager. Its appropriate purpose is: Compliance Manager maps control activities and improvements; it does not automatically guarantee legal compliance. For the stated case, Sensitive information type classification is the closer match. Classification identifies content characteristics to support protection policies; classifying alone does not block exfiltration.

D:

Examine data handling notices, customer controls and the relevant published privacy commitments. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft privacy principles. Its appropriate purpose is: Privacy principles guide responsible data handling and transparency; they do not automatically classify every document. For the stated case, Sensitive information type classification is the closer match. Classification identifies content characteristics to support protection policies; classifying alone does not block exfiltration.

Question 326

A data steward wants to locate repositories containing many items marked highly confidential. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.

  1. The compliance analyst can access the intended Purview capability under the appropriate permissions.
  2. Use Microsoft Purview Content explorer to examine classified content locations and relevant item details with proper roles.
  3. Use Microsoft Purview eDiscovery to identify, preserve and collect relevant content for authorized investigations.
  4. Inspect Content explorer's classification breakdown and permission-scoped item drill-down.
  5. Inspect policy indicators, generated alerts, case evidence and role-controlled access.

Explanation

Correct Answers

B:

Use Microsoft Purview Content explorer to examine classified content locations and relevant item details with proper roles. This is the directly applicable response. Content explorer helps inspect classified data inventory; Activity explorer focuses on actions and activity history.

D:

Inspect Content explorer's classification breakdown and permission-scoped item drill-down. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Content explorer helps inspect classified data inventory; Activity explorer focuses on actions and activity history.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The compliance analyst can access the intended Purview capability under the appropriate permissions. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Purview portal. Its appropriate purpose is: The Purview portal is a central interface for multiple compliance and data-governance solutions, not itself a finished compliance certification. For the stated case, Content explorer is the closer match. Content explorer helps inspect classified data inventory; Activity explorer focuses on actions and activity history.

C:

Use Microsoft Purview eDiscovery to identify, preserve and collect relevant content for authorized investigations. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Purview eDiscovery. Its appropriate purpose is: eDiscovery supports legal and regulatory evidence workflows; it is distinct from real-time data loss prevention. For the stated case, Content explorer is the closer match. Content explorer helps inspect classified data inventory; Activity explorer focuses on actions and activity history.

E:

Inspect policy indicators, generated alerts, case evidence and role-controlled access. This item belongs to a different control area: Insider risk management. Its appropriate purpose is: Insider risk policies correlate relevant insider indicators; they do not authorize indiscriminate surveillance or replace privacy and employment policy. For the stated case, Content explorer is the closer match. Content explorer helps inspect classified data inventory; Activity explorer focuses on actions and activity history.

Question 327

An analytics team transfers sensitive reports and archives them for later use and needs protection in both locations. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.

  1. Identify storage encryption state, TLS connection settings and custody of cryptographic keys.
  2. The application accepts the intended provider's authenticated users and respects account disablement and configured access.
  3. Protect sensitive information with appropriate encryption at rest and in transit and manage access to keys.
  4. Review the federation trust, issuer metadata, accepted tokens and sign-in transaction records.
  5. Authenticate the principal first and separately authorize only the permitted resource actions.

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

Identify storage encryption state, TLS connection settings and custody of cryptographic keys. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Encryption makes data unreadable to an unauthorized party without the appropriate key; it differs from a one-way hash.

C:

Protect sensitive information with appropriate encryption at rest and in transit and manage access to keys. This is the directly applicable response. Encryption makes data unreadable to an unauthorized party without the appropriate key; it differs from a one-way hash.

Incorrect Answers

B:

The application accepts the intended provider's authenticated users and respects account disablement and configured access. This item belongs to a different control area: Identity providers and directories. Its appropriate purpose is: An identity provider handles authentication while a directory stores and organizes identities and attributes; neither equals the protected application. For the stated case, Encryption is the closer match. Encryption makes data unreadable to an unauthorized party without the appropriate key; it differs from a one-way hash.

D:

Review the federation trust, issuer metadata, accepted tokens and sign-in transaction records. This item belongs to a different control area: Identity federation. Its appropriate purpose is: Federation extends authentication trust across security domains; it does not automatically grant unrestricted permissions. For the stated case, Encryption is the closer match. Encryption makes data unreadable to an unauthorized party without the appropriate key; it differs from a one-way hash.

E:

Authenticate the principal first and separately authorize only the permitted resource actions. This item belongs to a different control area: Authentication and authorization. Its appropriate purpose is: Authentication proves identity or possession of credentials; authorization determines what that identity may do. For the stated case, Encryption is the closer match. Encryption makes data unreadable to an unauthorized party without the appropriate key; it differs from a one-way hash.

Question 328

A SOC analyst needs to enrich observed IP indicators with broader adversary intelligence. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?

  1. Use Microsoft Threat Intelligence capabilities and relevant threat context to enrich analysis of adversaries and indicators.
  2. Apply Azure network security group rules to allow or deny traffic by source, destination, port and protocol at subnet or NIC scope.
  3. Use security policies, standards and recommendations to drive governed cloud configuration hardening.
  4. Enable relevant Cloud Security Posture Management capabilities to identify cloud configuration risks and improve posture.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Use Microsoft Threat Intelligence capabilities and relevant threat context to enrich analysis of adversaries and indicators. This is the directly applicable response. Threat intelligence adds context on threats and indicators; it does not by itself implement endpoint blocking or identity authorization.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Apply Azure network security group rules to allow or deny traffic by source, destination, port and protocol at subnet or NIC scope. This item belongs to a different control area: Network security groups. Its appropriate purpose is: NSGs provide ordered L3/L4 traffic filtering in Azure, not deep web-request inspection. For the stated case, Microsoft Threat Intelligence is the closer match. Threat intelligence adds context on threats and indicators; it does not by itself implement endpoint blocking or identity authorization.

C:

Use security policies, standards and recommendations to drive governed cloud configuration hardening. This item belongs to a different control area: Cloud security policies and recommendations. Its appropriate purpose is: A recommendation identifies a technical improvement; a documented policy or assigned standard provides expectations for assessed resources. For the stated case, Microsoft Threat Intelligence is the closer match. Threat intelligence adds context on threats and indicators; it does not by itself implement endpoint blocking or identity authorization.

D:

Enable relevant Cloud Security Posture Management capabilities to identify cloud configuration risks and improve posture. This item belongs to a different control area: Cloud Security Posture Management. Its appropriate purpose is: CSPM evaluates configuration and exposure risk proactively, rather than solely responding to an endpoint malware alert. For the stated case, Microsoft Threat Intelligence is the closer match. Threat intelligence adds context on threats and indicators; it does not by itself implement endpoint blocking or identity authorization.

Question 329

A legal records team wants controlled lifecycle management for declared business records. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.

  1. Use Microsoft Purview records management capabilities to govern records according to declared lifecycle and disposition requirements.
  2. Use the Microsoft Service Trust Portal to retrieve available Microsoft compliance, audit and trust-related documentation.
  3. Inspect policy indicators, generated alerts, case evidence and role-controlled access.
  4. Inspect record declarations, retention settings, disposition reviews and action history.
  5. Completed validated actions appropriately change the calculated progress score while gaps remain visible.

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

Use Microsoft Purview records management capabilities to govern records according to declared lifecycle and disposition requirements. This is the directly applicable response. Records management adds governance and disposition requirements; it differs from simply adding a decorative classification tag.

D:

Inspect record declarations, retention settings, disposition reviews and action history. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Records management adds governance and disposition requirements; it differs from simply adding a decorative classification tag.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Use the Microsoft Service Trust Portal to retrieve available Microsoft compliance, audit and trust-related documentation. This item belongs to a different control area: Service Trust Portal. Its appropriate purpose is: The Service Trust Portal offers Microsoft service assurance resources; customers remain responsible for their own compliance obligations. For the stated case, Records management is the closer match. Records management adds governance and disposition requirements; it differs from simply adding a decorative classification tag.

C:

Inspect policy indicators, generated alerts, case evidence and role-controlled access. This item belongs to a different control area: Insider risk management. Its appropriate purpose is: Insider risk policies correlate relevant insider indicators; they do not authorize indiscriminate surveillance or replace privacy and employment policy. For the stated case, Records management is the closer match. Records management adds governance and disposition requirements; it differs from simply adding a decorative classification tag.

E:

Completed validated actions appropriately change the calculated progress score while gaps remain visible. This item belongs to a different control area: Compliance score. Its appropriate purpose is: Compliance score measures tracked improvement progress; it is not a universal regulatory certification or breach-risk guarantee. For the stated case, Records management is the closer match. Records management adds governance and disposition requirements; it differs from simply adding a decorative classification tag.

Question 330

A government agency requires stronger verification before allowing staff to open sensitive cloud apps. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.

  1. Inspect authentication method registration, authentication details and MFA satisfaction in sign-in logs.
  2. Invite and govern partner users with Microsoft Entra B2B collaboration instead of issuing shared internal passwords.
  3. The specified lifecycle event triggers consistent identity tasks and leaves auditable results.
  4. Require an additional authentication factor for relevant user sign-ins using supported Entra MFA methods.
  5. Inspect policy targeting, device compliance information and sign-in evaluation details.

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

Inspect authentication method registration, authentication details and MFA satisfaction in sign-in logs. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. MFA combines different factor categories to reduce account takeover from a stolen password alone.

D:

Require an additional authentication factor for relevant user sign-ins using supported Entra MFA methods. This is the directly applicable response. MFA combines different factor categories to reduce account takeover from a stolen password alone.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Invite and govern partner users with Microsoft Entra B2B collaboration instead of issuing shared internal passwords. This item belongs to a different control area: External guest collaboration. Its appropriate purpose is: B2B collaboration supports external users while preserving explicit guest access and tenant policy boundaries. For the stated case, Multifactor authentication is the closer match. MFA combines different factor categories to reduce account takeover from a stolen password alone.

C:

The specified lifecycle event triggers consistent identity tasks and leaves auditable results. This item belongs to a different control area: Lifecycle workflows. Its appropriate purpose is: Lifecycle workflows automate repeatable identity onboarding and offboarding tasks; review of ongoing entitlements remains a separate control. For the stated case, Multifactor authentication is the closer match. MFA combines different factor categories to reduce account takeover from a stolen password alone.

E:

Inspect policy targeting, device compliance information and sign-in evaluation details. This item belongs to a different control area: Conditional Access compliant devices. Its appropriate purpose is: Conditional Access combines signals and access controls; device compliance comes from the supported management and enrollment state. For the stated case, Multifactor authentication is the closer match. MFA combines different factor categories to reduce account takeover from a stolen password alone.

Microsoft Security, Compliance, and Identity Fundamentals (SC-900) Practice Tests