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Microsoft SC-900 Practice Test 32

Question 310

A project team needs to show how completing selected assessment actions affects a Microsoft compliance progress indicator. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.

  1. Use the compliance score in Microsoft Purview Compliance Manager as a progress indicator for assessed improvement actions.
  2. The investigator finds applicable activity events and can document who performed an action and when.
  3. Inspect score breakdown, applicable improvement actions and updates to action completion.
  4. Use Microsoft Purview retention labels and publishing or auto-application policies for item-level lifecycle handling.
  5. Inspect retention policy scope, duration settings and resulting content lifecycle behavior.

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

Use the compliance score in Microsoft Purview Compliance Manager as a progress indicator for assessed improvement actions. This is the directly applicable response. Compliance score measures tracked improvement progress; it is not a universal regulatory certification or breach-risk guarantee.

C:

Inspect score breakdown, applicable improvement actions and updates to action completion. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Compliance score measures tracked improvement progress; it is not a universal regulatory certification or breach-risk guarantee.

Incorrect Answers

B:

The investigator finds applicable activity events and can document who performed an action and when. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Purview Audit. Its appropriate purpose is: Audit provides activity logging and search, not a tool to classify documents or automatically enforce retention. For the stated case, Compliance score is the closer match. Compliance score measures tracked improvement progress; it is not a universal regulatory certification or breach-risk guarantee.

D:

Use Microsoft Purview retention labels and publishing or auto-application policies for item-level lifecycle handling. This item belongs to a different control area: Retention labels. Its appropriate purpose is: Retention labels govern specific items; a broad location-level retention policy does not provide the same fine-grained labeling behavior. For the stated case, Compliance score is the closer match. Compliance score measures tracked improvement progress; it is not a universal regulatory certification or breach-risk guarantee.

E:

Inspect retention policy scope, duration settings and resulting content lifecycle behavior. This item belongs to a different control area: Retention policies. Its appropriate purpose is: Retention policies apply lifecycle rules to selected locations or content sets; they do not substitute for DLP sharing blocks. For the stated case, Compliance score is the closer match. Compliance score measures tracked improvement progress; it is not a universal regulatory certification or breach-risk guarantee.

Question 311

An acquisition has Active Directory-based employee accounts and requires aligned cloud sign-in identities. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.

  1. Assign Azure resource RBAC at the smallest practical resource scope for resource management operations.
  2. Inspect banned-password lists, password change results and protection audit or enforcement events.
  3. Connect on-premises Active Directory identities with Microsoft Entra ID for a coordinated hybrid identity experience.
  4. The intended application sessions are governed and unrelated apps are not accidentally blocked.
  5. Inspect synchronization status, source directories and matching cloud user identities.

Explanation

Correct Answers

C:

Connect on-premises Active Directory identities with Microsoft Entra ID for a coordinated hybrid identity experience. This is the directly applicable response. Hybrid identity coordinates on-premises and cloud identity management; it does not automatically move every workload to Azure.

E:

Inspect synchronization status, source directories and matching cloud user identities. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Hybrid identity coordinates on-premises and cloud identity management; it does not automatically move every workload to Azure.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Assign Azure resource RBAC at the smallest practical resource scope for resource management operations. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure resource RBAC versus Entra roles. Its appropriate purpose is: Azure RBAC governs Azure resource permissions, whereas Microsoft Entra roles govern directory services. For the stated case, Hybrid identity is the closer match. Hybrid identity coordinates on-premises and cloud identity management; it does not automatically move every workload to Azure.

B:

Inspect banned-password lists, password change results and protection audit or enforcement events. This item belongs to a different control area: Password protection. Its appropriate purpose is: Password protection blocks weak password choices; it does not replace MFA or a full identity risk policy. For the stated case, Hybrid identity is the closer match. Hybrid identity coordinates on-premises and cloud identity management; it does not automatically move every workload to Azure.

D:

The intended application sessions are governed and unrelated apps are not accidentally blocked. This item belongs to a different control area: Conditional Access application targeting. Its appropriate purpose is: A policy should be tested for targeted principals and applications, with emergency-access exclusions where appropriate. For the stated case, Hybrid identity is the closer match. Hybrid identity coordinates on-premises and cloud identity management; it does not automatically move every workload to Azure.

Question 312

A regulated buyer needs provider assurance reports to supplement its own control evidence. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.

  1. Inspect classifier configuration, matched items and classification results in a controlled test corpus.
  2. Use the Microsoft Service Trust Portal to retrieve available Microsoft compliance, audit and trust-related documentation.
  3. Inspect Service Trust Portal document categories and available audit reports for the requested service.
  4. Use Microsoft Purview Compliance Manager to organize improvement actions and track regulatory assessment progress.
  5. The analyst can trace relevant label or DLP activity to an auditable event record.

Explanation

Correct Answers

B:

Use the Microsoft Service Trust Portal to retrieve available Microsoft compliance, audit and trust-related documentation. This is the directly applicable response. The Service Trust Portal offers Microsoft service assurance resources; customers remain responsible for their own compliance obligations.

C:

Inspect Service Trust Portal document categories and available audit reports for the requested service. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. The Service Trust Portal offers Microsoft service assurance resources; customers remain responsible for their own compliance obligations.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect classifier configuration, matched items and classification results in a controlled test corpus. This item belongs to a different control area: Sensitive information type classification. Its appropriate purpose is: Classification identifies content characteristics to support protection policies; classifying alone does not block exfiltration. For the stated case, Service Trust Portal is the closer match. The Service Trust Portal offers Microsoft service assurance resources; customers remain responsible for their own compliance obligations.

D:

Use Microsoft Purview Compliance Manager to organize improvement actions and track regulatory assessment progress. This item belongs to a different control area: Compliance Manager. Its appropriate purpose is: Compliance Manager maps control activities and improvements; it does not automatically guarantee legal compliance. For the stated case, Service Trust Portal is the closer match. The Service Trust Portal offers Microsoft service assurance resources; customers remain responsible for their own compliance obligations.

E:

The analyst can trace relevant label or DLP activity to an auditable event record. This item belongs to a different control area: Activity explorer. Its appropriate purpose is: Activity explorer focuses on what happened to data, unlike Content explorer's inventory of classified content. For the stated case, Service Trust Portal is the closer match. The Service Trust Portal offers Microsoft service assurance resources; customers remain responsible for their own compliance obligations.

Question 313

A desktop team needs to pilot blocking risky application behaviors while checking business impact. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.

  1. Inspect Bastion deployment, VM public IP assignments and management connection paths.
  2. Inspect ASR rule configuration, audit or block events and exclusions for the affected endpoints.
  3. Use Microsoft Defender for Endpoint attack surface reduction rules to restrict risky endpoint behaviors where supported.
  4. Disallowed network flows are blocked by the expected rule without disrupting explicitly permitted connections.
  5. Enable relevant Cloud Security Posture Management capabilities to identify cloud configuration risks and improve posture.

Explanation

Correct Answers

B:

Inspect ASR rule configuration, audit or block events and exclusions for the affected endpoints. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. ASR rules reduce common exploit paths on endpoints and can be tested in audit mode before enforcement.

C:

Use Microsoft Defender for Endpoint attack surface reduction rules to restrict risky endpoint behaviors where supported. This is the directly applicable response. ASR rules reduce common exploit paths on endpoints and can be tested in audit mode before enforcement.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect Bastion deployment, VM public IP assignments and management connection paths. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure Bastion. Its appropriate purpose is: Bastion supplies browser- or client-mediated secure VM management access; it is not a DDoS service. For the stated case, Endpoint attack surface reduction is the closer match. ASR rules reduce common exploit paths on endpoints and can be tested in audit mode before enforcement.

D:

Disallowed network flows are blocked by the expected rule without disrupting explicitly permitted connections. This item belongs to a different control area: Network security groups. Its appropriate purpose is: NSGs provide ordered L3/L4 traffic filtering in Azure, not deep web-request inspection. For the stated case, Endpoint attack surface reduction is the closer match. ASR rules reduce common exploit paths on endpoints and can be tested in audit mode before enforcement.

E:

Enable relevant Cloud Security Posture Management capabilities to identify cloud configuration risks and improve posture. This item belongs to a different control area: Cloud Security Posture Management. Its appropriate purpose is: CSPM evaluates configuration and exposure risk proactively, rather than solely responding to an endpoint malware alert. For the stated case, Endpoint attack surface reduction is the closer match. ASR rules reduce common exploit paths on endpoints and can be tested in audit mode before enforcement.

Question 314

A warehouse team relies on a perimeter firewall as its only safeguard for sensitive payroll records. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.

  1. Use a trusted identity provider and directory to manage identities and support application sign-in.
  2. Design several complementary security layers across identity, network, application and data boundaries.
  3. A verified sign-in succeeds without automatically allowing operations that the identity has not been granted.
  4. Review identities, sign-in activity, access entitlements and whether resource decisions use identity signals.
  5. Inspect whether access policies, segmentation, application safeguards and encryption operate at independent layers.

Explanation

Correct Answers

B:

Design several complementary security layers across identity, network, application and data boundaries. This is the directly applicable response. Defense in depth reduces reliance on any one protection; it is not a claim that all risks can be eliminated.

E:

Inspect whether access policies, segmentation, application safeguards and encryption operate at independent layers. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Defense in depth reduces reliance on any one protection; it is not a claim that all risks can be eliminated.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Use a trusted identity provider and directory to manage identities and support application sign-in. This item belongs to a different control area: Identity providers and directories. Its appropriate purpose is: An identity provider handles authentication while a directory stores and organizes identities and attributes; neither equals the protected application. For the stated case, Defense in depth is the closer match. Defense in depth reduces reliance on any one protection; it is not a claim that all risks can be eliminated.

C:

A verified sign-in succeeds without automatically allowing operations that the identity has not been granted. This item belongs to a different control area: Authentication and authorization. Its appropriate purpose is: Authentication proves identity or possession of credentials; authorization determines what that identity may do. For the stated case, Defense in depth is the closer match. Defense in depth reduces reliance on any one protection; it is not a claim that all risks can be eliminated.

D:

Review identities, sign-in activity, access entitlements and whether resource decisions use identity signals. This item belongs to a different control area: Identity as security perimeter. Its appropriate purpose is: Cloud users and workloads access resources from varied networks, making authenticated identity and authorization central boundaries. For the stated case, Defense in depth is the closer match. Defense in depth reduces reliance on any one protection; it is not a claim that all risks can be eliminated.

Question 315

A developer needs to read one storage account but has been given a subscription Owner role. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?

  1. Inspect access package catalogs, eligibility, request policy and expiration configuration.
  2. Inspect subscription or resource role assignments and effective permissions for the target resource.
  3. Inspect application and service principal objects, consented permissions and authentication credential lifecycle.
  4. Inspect registered passkey credentials, permitted authentication-method settings and sign-in method details.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Inspect subscription or resource role assignments and effective permissions for the target resource. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Azure RBAC governs Azure resource permissions, whereas Microsoft Entra roles govern directory services.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect access package catalogs, eligibility, request policy and expiration configuration. This item belongs to a different control area: Entitlement management access packages. Its appropriate purpose is: Entitlement management standardizes access bundles and access-request governance for groups, apps and sites. For the stated case, Azure resource RBAC versus Entra roles is the closer match. Azure RBAC governs Azure resource permissions, whereas Microsoft Entra roles govern directory services.

C:

Inspect application and service principal objects, consented permissions and authentication credential lifecycle. This item belongs to a different control area: Service principals. Its appropriate purpose is: Service principals represent applications or services rather than individual human users; credentials and consent must be governed. For the stated case, Azure resource RBAC versus Entra roles is the closer match. Azure RBAC governs Azure resource permissions, whereas Microsoft Entra roles govern directory services.

D:

Inspect registered passkey credentials, permitted authentication-method settings and sign-in method details. This item belongs to a different control area: Passkeys and FIDO2. Its appropriate purpose is: FIDO2 passkeys bind authentication to the legitimate relying party and resist credential phishing more effectively than SMS codes. For the stated case, Azure resource RBAC versus Entra roles is the closer match. Azure RBAC governs Azure resource permissions, whereas Microsoft Entra roles govern directory services.

Question 316

An enterprise wants one place to prioritize cloud security recommendations and relevant workload alerts. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?

  1. Inspect incident timelines, alert evidence, related entities and assigned ownership.
  2. Inspect asset inventory, secure score, alerts, plans and recommendations in Defender for Cloud.
  3. Inspect Bastion deployment, VM public IP assignments and management connection paths.
  4. Inspect device vulnerability inventory, recommendations, software exposure and remediation status.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Inspect asset inventory, secure score, alerts, plans and recommendations in Defender for Cloud. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Defender for Cloud combines CSPM and cloud workload protection capabilities; it is not the same as a single network security group.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect incident timelines, alert evidence, related entities and assigned ownership. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Sentinel incident investigation. Its appropriate purpose is: Incident management helps investigate and coordinate alerts; it differs from automatic enforcement through a playbook. For the stated case, Defender for Cloud unified security posture is the closer match. Defender for Cloud combines CSPM and cloud workload protection capabilities; it is not the same as a single network security group.

C:

Inspect Bastion deployment, VM public IP assignments and management connection paths. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure Bastion. Its appropriate purpose is: Bastion supplies browser- or client-mediated secure VM management access; it is not a DDoS service. For the stated case, Defender for Cloud unified security posture is the closer match. Defender for Cloud combines CSPM and cloud workload protection capabilities; it is not the same as a single network security group.

D:

Inspect device vulnerability inventory, recommendations, software exposure and remediation status. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender Vulnerability Management. Its appropriate purpose is: Vulnerability management focuses on identifying and prioritizing exposures; it is distinct from active incident correlation. For the stated case, Defender for Cloud unified security posture is the closer match. Defender for Cloud combines CSPM and cloud workload protection capabilities; it is not the same as a single network security group.

Question 317

A hub-and-spoke Azure design needs centrally governed outbound and east-west traffic filtering. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?

  1. Configure Microsoft Sentinel analytics rules to detect defined suspicious patterns in ingested security data.
  2. Use Azure Firewall to centrally apply managed network and application traffic rules for Azure workloads.
  3. Use Defender for Cloud regulatory compliance views to map cloud resource findings to applicable standards.
  4. Use Microsoft Sentinel incidents and investigation context to triage related alerts and affected entities.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Use Azure Firewall to centrally apply managed network and application traffic rules for Azure workloads. This is the directly applicable response. Azure Firewall is a managed stateful network security service; it is not an identity provider or a retention tool.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Configure Microsoft Sentinel analytics rules to detect defined suspicious patterns in ingested security data. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Sentinel analytics rules. Its appropriate purpose is: Sentinel analytics rules evaluate telemetry to raise detections; collecting logs alone is insufficient to identify a defined pattern. For the stated case, Azure Firewall is the closer match. Azure Firewall is a managed stateful network security service; it is not an identity provider or a retention tool.

C:

Use Defender for Cloud regulatory compliance views to map cloud resource findings to applicable standards. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Cloud regulatory compliance. Its appropriate purpose is: Regulatory compliance views relate assessed technical controls to frameworks; they do not by themselves certify organizational legal compliance. For the stated case, Azure Firewall is the closer match. Azure Firewall is a managed stateful network security service; it is not an identity provider or a retention tool.

D:

Use Microsoft Sentinel incidents and investigation context to triage related alerts and affected entities. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Sentinel incident investigation. Its appropriate purpose is: Incident management helps investigate and coordinate alerts; it differs from automatic enforcement through a playbook. For the stated case, Azure Firewall is the closer match. Azure Firewall is a managed stateful network security service; it is not an identity provider or a retention tool.

Question 318

A security operator wants one console to triage Defender endpoint and email alerts. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?

  1. Inspect asset inventory, secure score, alerts, plans and recommendations in Defender for Cloud.
  2. Inspect key or certificate versions, permissions and renewal or rotation configuration.
  3. Inspect portal incident queues, product-specific alerts, assets and investigation links.
  4. Inspect analytic rule query logic, schedule, thresholds and representative matching events.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Inspect portal incident queues, product-specific alerts, assets and investigation links. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. The Defender portal provides a unified security operations interface; it is not a replacement for configuring every underlying product.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect asset inventory, secure score, alerts, plans and recommendations in Defender for Cloud. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Cloud unified security posture. Its appropriate purpose is: Defender for Cloud combines CSPM and cloud workload protection capabilities; it is not the same as a single network security group. For the stated case, Microsoft Defender portal is the closer match. The Defender portal provides a unified security operations interface; it is not a replacement for configuring every underlying product.

B:

Inspect key or certificate versions, permissions and renewal or rotation configuration. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure Key Vault keys and certificates. Its appropriate purpose is: Key Vault supports cryptographic key and certificate lifecycle; secret storage alone is not a substitute for proper key policy. For the stated case, Microsoft Defender portal is the closer match. The Defender portal provides a unified security operations interface; it is not a replacement for configuring every underlying product.

D:

Inspect analytic rule query logic, schedule, thresholds and representative matching events. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Sentinel analytics rules. Its appropriate purpose is: Sentinel analytics rules evaluate telemetry to raise detections; collecting logs alone is insufficient to identify a defined pattern. For the stated case, Microsoft Defender portal is the closer match. The Defender portal provides a unified security operations interface; it is not a replacement for configuring every underlying product.

Question 319

A security center receives several alerts tied to the same compromised account and needs one investigative view. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.

  1. Inspect incident timelines, alert evidence, related entities and assigned ownership.
  2. Inspect cross-product incidents, linked alerts, entity timeline and incident evidence in the Defender portal.
  3. Apply Azure Web Application Firewall to inspect HTTP and HTTPS requests for common web-application attacks.
  4. Supported malicious link access is blocked or warned according to the configured policy.
  5. Use Microsoft Sentinel incidents and investigation context to triage related alerts and affected entities.

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

Inspect incident timelines, alert evidence, related entities and assigned ownership. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Incident management helps investigate and coordinate alerts; it differs from automatic enforcement through a playbook.

E:

Use Microsoft Sentinel incidents and investigation context to triage related alerts and affected entities. This is the directly applicable response. Incident management helps investigate and coordinate alerts; it differs from automatic enforcement through a playbook.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Inspect cross-product incidents, linked alerts, entity timeline and incident evidence in the Defender portal. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Defender XDR unified incidents. Its appropriate purpose is: Defender XDR correlates detections across product domains; it does not replace storage of encryption keys or data retention governance. For the stated case, Microsoft Sentinel incident investigation is the closer match. Incident management helps investigate and coordinate alerts; it differs from automatic enforcement through a playbook.

C:

Apply Azure Web Application Firewall to inspect HTTP and HTTPS requests for common web-application attacks. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure Web Application Firewall. Its appropriate purpose is: A WAF targets application-layer HTTP risks such as injection, unlike basic network port filtering. For the stated case, Microsoft Sentinel incident investigation is the closer match. Incident management helps investigate and coordinate alerts; it differs from automatic enforcement through a playbook.

D:

Supported malicious link access is blocked or warned according to the configured policy. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Office 365 Safe Links. Its appropriate purpose is: Safe Links addresses URL-based threats; it does not inspect attached files for malware. For the stated case, Microsoft Sentinel incident investigation is the closer match. Incident management helps investigate and coordinate alerts; it differs from automatic enforcement through a playbook.

Question 320

An Azure Linux VM requires periodic SSH access but security prohibits a public IP for the workload. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?

  1. Use Azure Bastion to reach supported Azure VMs over RDP or SSH without exposing public management ports directly.
  2. Enable applicable Defender for Cloud workload protection plans to detect threats affecting supported cloud workloads.
  3. Use the Microsoft Defender portal to review integrated Defender alerts, incidents and security investigations.
  4. Use Microsoft Threat Intelligence capabilities and relevant threat context to enrich analysis of adversaries and indicators.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Use Azure Bastion to reach supported Azure VMs over RDP or SSH without exposing public management ports directly. This is the directly applicable response. Bastion supplies browser- or client-mediated secure VM management access; it is not a DDoS service.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Enable applicable Defender for Cloud workload protection plans to detect threats affecting supported cloud workloads. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Cloud workload protection. Its appropriate purpose is: Cloud workload protection detects threat signals and suspicious runtime behavior; CSPM primarily addresses configuration posture. For the stated case, Azure Bastion is the closer match. Bastion supplies browser- or client-mediated secure VM management access; it is not a DDoS service.

C:

Use the Microsoft Defender portal to review integrated Defender alerts, incidents and security investigations. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Defender portal. Its appropriate purpose is: The Defender portal provides a unified security operations interface; it is not a replacement for configuring every underlying product. For the stated case, Azure Bastion is the closer match. Bastion supplies browser- or client-mediated secure VM management access; it is not a DDoS service.

D:

Use Microsoft Threat Intelligence capabilities and relevant threat context to enrich analysis of adversaries and indicators. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Threat Intelligence. Its appropriate purpose is: Threat intelligence adds context on threats and indicators; it does not by itself implement endpoint blocking or identity authorization. For the stated case, Azure Bastion is the closer match. Bastion supplies browser- or client-mediated secure VM management access; it is not a DDoS service.

Microsoft Security, Compliance, and Identity Fundamentals (SC-900) Practice Tests