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Microsoft SC-900 Practice Test 24

Question 230

A payroll portal transmits employee data across an untrusted network and needs confidentiality in transit. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?

  1. Use a trusted identity provider and directory to manage identities and support application sign-in.
  2. Protect sensitive information with appropriate encryption at rest and in transit and manage access to keys.
  3. Protect and verify identities as a primary perimeter for cloud access rather than relying only on a building network.
  4. Authenticate the principal first and separately authorize only the permitted resource actions.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Protect sensitive information with appropriate encryption at rest and in transit and manage access to keys. This is the directly applicable response. Encryption makes data unreadable to an unauthorized party without the appropriate key; it differs from a one-way hash.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Use a trusted identity provider and directory to manage identities and support application sign-in. This item belongs to a different control area: Identity providers and directories. Its appropriate purpose is: An identity provider handles authentication while a directory stores and organizes identities and attributes; neither equals the protected application. For the stated case, Encryption is the closer match. Encryption makes data unreadable to an unauthorized party without the appropriate key; it differs from a one-way hash.

C:

Protect and verify identities as a primary perimeter for cloud access rather than relying only on a building network. This item belongs to a different control area: Identity as security perimeter. Its appropriate purpose is: Cloud users and workloads access resources from varied networks, making authenticated identity and authorization central boundaries. For the stated case, Encryption is the closer match. Encryption makes data unreadable to an unauthorized party without the appropriate key; it differs from a one-way hash.

D:

Authenticate the principal first and separately authorize only the permitted resource actions. This item belongs to a different control area: Authentication and authorization. Its appropriate purpose is: Authentication proves identity or possession of credentials; authorization determines what that identity may do. For the stated case, Encryption is the closer match. Encryption makes data unreadable to an unauthorized party without the appropriate key; it differs from a one-way hash.

Question 231

A reviewer asks why comparing file digests cannot reveal the original file contents as decryption would. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.

  1. Use a suitable one-way cryptographic hash to check integrity rather than recover an original secret.
  2. Inspect identity records, provider trust configuration, account lifecycle status and application sign-in integration.
  3. Only validated principals with appropriate entitlements can reach sensitive cloud resources regardless of location.
  4. Authenticate the principal first and separately authorize only the permitted resource actions.
  5. Compare a securely computed digest with a trusted expected digest or properly managed password verifier.

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

Use a suitable one-way cryptographic hash to check integrity rather than recover an original secret. This is the directly applicable response. Hashing supports integrity checks or password verification when designed correctly; hashing by itself does not provide encryption or confidentiality.

E:

Compare a securely computed digest with a trusted expected digest or properly managed password verifier. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Hashing supports integrity checks or password verification when designed correctly; hashing by itself does not provide encryption or confidentiality.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Inspect identity records, provider trust configuration, account lifecycle status and application sign-in integration. This item belongs to a different control area: Identity providers and directories. Its appropriate purpose is: An identity provider handles authentication while a directory stores and organizes identities and attributes; neither equals the protected application. For the stated case, Cryptographic hashing is the closer match. Hashing supports integrity checks or password verification when designed correctly; hashing by itself does not provide encryption or confidentiality.

C:

Only validated principals with appropriate entitlements can reach sensitive cloud resources regardless of location. This item belongs to a different control area: Identity as security perimeter. Its appropriate purpose is: Cloud users and workloads access resources from varied networks, making authenticated identity and authorization central boundaries. For the stated case, Cryptographic hashing is the closer match. Hashing supports integrity checks or password verification when designed correctly; hashing by itself does not provide encryption or confidentiality.

D:

Authenticate the principal first and separately authorize only the permitted resource actions. This item belongs to a different control area: Authentication and authorization. Its appropriate purpose is: Authentication proves identity or possession of credentials; authorization determines what that identity may do. For the stated case, Cryptographic hashing is the closer match. Hashing supports integrity checks or password verification when designed correctly; hashing by itself does not provide encryption or confidentiality.

Question 232

Two organizations collaborate while keeping independent identity directories and avoiding shared static passwords. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.

  1. Use a suitable one-way cryptographic hash to check integrity rather than recover an original secret.
  2. Establish a standards-based trust between identity providers so one organization can authenticate users for a relying application.
  3. Review the federation trust, issuer metadata, accepted tokens and sign-in transaction records.
  4. Examine risk registers, accountable owners, policies, regulatory mappings and control test records.
  5. Access decisions re-evaluate context and give only the privileges required for an approved task.

Explanation

Correct Answers

B:

Establish a standards-based trust between identity providers so one organization can authenticate users for a relying application. This is the directly applicable response. Federation extends authentication trust across security domains; it does not automatically grant unrestricted permissions.

C:

Review the federation trust, issuer metadata, accepted tokens and sign-in transaction records. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Federation extends authentication trust across security domains; it does not automatically grant unrestricted permissions.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Use a suitable one-way cryptographic hash to check integrity rather than recover an original secret. This item belongs to a different control area: Cryptographic hashing. Its appropriate purpose is: Hashing supports integrity checks or password verification when designed correctly; hashing by itself does not provide encryption or confidentiality. For the stated case, Identity federation is the closer match. Federation extends authentication trust across security domains; it does not automatically grant unrestricted permissions.

D:

Examine risk registers, accountable owners, policies, regulatory mappings and control test records. This item belongs to a different control area: Governance risk and compliance. Its appropriate purpose is: Governance sets direction, risk management evaluates exposure, and compliance verifies obligations against controls. For the stated case, Identity federation is the closer match. Federation extends authentication trust across security domains; it does not automatically grant unrestricted permissions.

E:

Access decisions re-evaluate context and give only the privileges required for an approved task. This item belongs to a different control area: Zero Trust. Its appropriate purpose is: Zero Trust does not automatically trust a user, device or connection because it originates on a corporate network. For the stated case, Identity federation is the closer match. Federation extends authentication trust across security domains; it does not automatically grant unrestricted permissions.

Question 233

A public API has one network filter but no identity enforcement or protection for its stored data. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.

  1. Design several complementary security layers across identity, network, application and data boundaries.
  2. Inspect whether access policies, segmentation, application safeguards and encryption operate at independent layers.
  3. Review the federation trust, issuer metadata, accepted tokens and sign-in transaction records.
  4. Only validated principals with appropriate entitlements can reach sensitive cloud resources regardless of location.
  5. Use a trusted identity provider and directory to manage identities and support application sign-in.

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

Design several complementary security layers across identity, network, application and data boundaries. This is the directly applicable response. Defense in depth reduces reliance on any one protection; it is not a claim that all risks can be eliminated.

B:

Inspect whether access policies, segmentation, application safeguards and encryption operate at independent layers. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Defense in depth reduces reliance on any one protection; it is not a claim that all risks can be eliminated.

Incorrect Answers

C:

Review the federation trust, issuer metadata, accepted tokens and sign-in transaction records. This item belongs to a different control area: Identity federation. Its appropriate purpose is: Federation extends authentication trust across security domains; it does not automatically grant unrestricted permissions. For the stated case, Defense in depth is the closer match. Defense in depth reduces reliance on any one protection; it is not a claim that all risks can be eliminated.

D:

Only validated principals with appropriate entitlements can reach sensitive cloud resources regardless of location. This item belongs to a different control area: Identity as security perimeter. Its appropriate purpose is: Cloud users and workloads access resources from varied networks, making authenticated identity and authorization central boundaries. For the stated case, Defense in depth is the closer match. Defense in depth reduces reliance on any one protection; it is not a claim that all risks can be eliminated.

E:

Use a trusted identity provider and directory to manage identities and support application sign-in. This item belongs to a different control area: Identity providers and directories. Its appropriate purpose is: An identity provider handles authentication while a directory stores and organizes identities and attributes; neither equals the protected application. For the stated case, Defense in depth is the closer match. Defense in depth reduces reliance on any one protection; it is not a claim that all risks can be eliminated.

Question 234

A compliance program needs standard security configuration expectations across multiple cloud subscriptions. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?

  1. Apply Azure network security group rules to allow or deny traffic by source, destination, port and protocol at subnet or NIC scope.
  2. Use Defender for Office 365 Safe Links policies to evaluate and protect users from malicious links in supported email and collaboration scenarios.
  3. Use Sentinel automation rules and supported playbooks to orchestrate defined incident-response tasks.
  4. Use security policies, standards and recommendations to drive governed cloud configuration hardening.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Use security policies, standards and recommendations to drive governed cloud configuration hardening. This is the directly applicable response. A recommendation identifies a technical improvement; a documented policy or assigned standard provides expectations for assessed resources.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Apply Azure network security group rules to allow or deny traffic by source, destination, port and protocol at subnet or NIC scope. This item belongs to a different control area: Network security groups. Its appropriate purpose is: NSGs provide ordered L3/L4 traffic filtering in Azure, not deep web-request inspection. For the stated case, Cloud security policies and recommendations is the closer match. A recommendation identifies a technical improvement; a documented policy or assigned standard provides expectations for assessed resources.

B:

Use Defender for Office 365 Safe Links policies to evaluate and protect users from malicious links in supported email and collaboration scenarios. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Office 365 Safe Links. Its appropriate purpose is: Safe Links addresses URL-based threats; it does not inspect attached files for malware. For the stated case, Cloud security policies and recommendations is the closer match. A recommendation identifies a technical improvement; a documented policy or assigned standard provides expectations for assessed resources.

C:

Use Sentinel automation rules and supported playbooks to orchestrate defined incident-response tasks. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Sentinel SOAR playbooks. Its appropriate purpose is: SOAR automates and orchestrates workflows; it complements rather than replaces detection analytics and human judgment. For the stated case, Cloud security policies and recommendations is the closer match. A recommendation identifies a technical improvement; a documented policy or assigned standard provides expectations for assessed resources.

Question 235

A firm wants to restrict sensitive file downloads during unmanaged-device cloud app sessions. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?

  1. The intended risky session action is monitored or restricted according to configured controls.
  2. The approved service can use the intended material and unauthorized key operations are refused.
  3. Only approved flows traverse the central firewall while prohibited traffic is logged or denied.
  4. A qualifying incident triggers the approved response steps with auditable execution results.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

The intended risky session action is monitored or restricted according to configured controls. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. Session controls provide real-time governance of supported cloud app activities; discovery alone does not enforce session behaviors.

Incorrect Answers

B:

The approved service can use the intended material and unauthorized key operations are refused. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure Key Vault keys and certificates. Its appropriate purpose is: Key Vault supports cryptographic key and certificate lifecycle; secret storage alone is not a substitute for proper key policy. For the stated case, Defender for Cloud Apps session controls is the closer match. Session controls provide real-time governance of supported cloud app activities; discovery alone does not enforce session behaviors.

C:

Only approved flows traverse the central firewall while prohibited traffic is logged or denied. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure Firewall. Its appropriate purpose is: Azure Firewall is a managed stateful network security service; it is not an identity provider or a retention tool. For the stated case, Defender for Cloud Apps session controls is the closer match. Session controls provide real-time governance of supported cloud app activities; discovery alone does not enforce session behaviors.

D:

A qualifying incident triggers the approved response steps with auditable execution results. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Sentinel SOAR playbooks. Its appropriate purpose is: SOAR automates and orchestrates workflows; it complements rather than replaces detection analytics and human judgment. For the stated case, Defender for Cloud Apps session controls is the closer match. Session controls provide real-time governance of supported cloud app activities; discovery alone does not enforce session behaviors.

Question 236

A newly acquired business needs a directory-backed authentication source for cloud apps without creating separate app-local accounts. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?

  1. A controlled test shows protected ciphertext at rest and secure transport during approved client communication.
  2. The application accepts the intended provider's authenticated users and respects account disablement and configured access.
  3. Risks have assigned treatment decisions and controls have evidence linked to applicable requirements.
  4. The responsibility matrix explicitly assigns customer-managed safeguards and those settings have accountable owners.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

The application accepts the intended provider's authenticated users and respects account disablement and configured access. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. An identity provider handles authentication while a directory stores and organizes identities and attributes; neither equals the protected application.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A controlled test shows protected ciphertext at rest and secure transport during approved client communication. This item belongs to a different control area: Encryption. Its appropriate purpose is: Encryption makes data unreadable to an unauthorized party without the appropriate key; it differs from a one-way hash. For the stated case, Identity providers and directories is the closer match. An identity provider handles authentication while a directory stores and organizes identities and attributes; neither equals the protected application.

C:

Risks have assigned treatment decisions and controls have evidence linked to applicable requirements. This item belongs to a different control area: Governance risk and compliance. Its appropriate purpose is: Governance sets direction, risk management evaluates exposure, and compliance verifies obligations against controls. For the stated case, Identity providers and directories is the closer match. An identity provider handles authentication while a directory stores and organizes identities and attributes; neither equals the protected application.

D:

The responsibility matrix explicitly assigns customer-managed safeguards and those settings have accountable owners. This item belongs to a different control area: Cloud shared responsibility. Its appropriate purpose is: Shared responsibility divides security obligations according to the cloud service model; provider data-center security does not replace tenant controls. For the stated case, Identity providers and directories is the closer match. An identity provider handles authentication while a directory stores and organizes identities and attributes; neither equals the protected application.

Question 237

A platform team has hundreds of cloud assets and wants to identify risky public exposure and missing safeguards. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.

  1. Use Azure DDoS Protection for protection of exposed Azure public IP resources against volumetric network attacks where appropriate.
  2. Enable relevant Cloud Security Posture Management capabilities to identify cloud configuration risks and improve posture.
  3. Inspect incident timelines, alert evidence, related entities and assigned ownership.
  4. Malicious web request patterns are blocked or logged while legitimate web requests continue.
  5. Inspect posture findings, resource coverage, attack paths where available and suggested remediations.

Explanation

Correct Answers

B:

Enable relevant Cloud Security Posture Management capabilities to identify cloud configuration risks and improve posture. This is the directly applicable response. CSPM evaluates configuration and exposure risk proactively, rather than solely responding to an endpoint malware alert.

E:

Inspect posture findings, resource coverage, attack paths where available and suggested remediations. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. CSPM evaluates configuration and exposure risk proactively, rather than solely responding to an endpoint malware alert.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Use Azure DDoS Protection for protection of exposed Azure public IP resources against volumetric network attacks where appropriate. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure DDoS Protection. Its appropriate purpose is: DDoS Protection addresses distributed denial-of-service traffic aimed at network services; it does not replace a web-application rule engine. For the stated case, Cloud Security Posture Management is the closer match. CSPM evaluates configuration and exposure risk proactively, rather than solely responding to an endpoint malware alert.

C:

Inspect incident timelines, alert evidence, related entities and assigned ownership. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Sentinel incident investigation. Its appropriate purpose is: Incident management helps investigate and coordinate alerts; it differs from automatic enforcement through a playbook. For the stated case, Cloud Security Posture Management is the closer match. CSPM evaluates configuration and exposure risk proactively, rather than solely responding to an endpoint malware alert.

D:

Malicious web request patterns are blocked or logged while legitimate web requests continue. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure Web Application Firewall. Its appropriate purpose is: A WAF targets application-layer HTTP risks such as injection, unlike basic network port filtering. For the stated case, Cloud Security Posture Management is the closer match. CSPM evaluates configuration and exposure risk proactively, rather than solely responding to an endpoint malware alert.

Question 238

A hospital wants supported passwordless strong authentication for clinicians using security keys. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?

  1. Inspect guest account records, cross-tenant access settings and assigned resource permissions.
  2. Inspect detected risk events, risk levels, policy outcomes and remediation history.
  3. Inspect registered passkey credentials, permitted authentication-method settings and sign-in method details.
  4. Inspect tenant user and group objects, enterprise application registration and sign-in events.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Inspect registered passkey credentials, permitted authentication-method settings and sign-in method details. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. FIDO2 passkeys bind authentication to the legitimate relying party and resist credential phishing more effectively than SMS codes.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect guest account records, cross-tenant access settings and assigned resource permissions. This item belongs to a different control area: External guest collaboration. Its appropriate purpose is: B2B collaboration supports external users while preserving explicit guest access and tenant policy boundaries. For the stated case, Passkeys and FIDO2 is the closer match. FIDO2 passkeys bind authentication to the legitimate relying party and resist credential phishing more effectively than SMS codes.

B:

Inspect detected risk events, risk levels, policy outcomes and remediation history. This item belongs to a different control area: Identity Protection risk detection. Its appropriate purpose is: Identity Protection detects identity-related risk signals; a generic role assignment alone does not assess risk. For the stated case, Passkeys and FIDO2 is the closer match. FIDO2 passkeys bind authentication to the legitimate relying party and resist credential phishing more effectively than SMS codes.

D:

Inspect tenant user and group objects, enterprise application registration and sign-in events. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Entra ID cloud identity. Its appropriate purpose is: Microsoft Entra ID provides cloud directory and identity services, not network packet filtering or document retention. For the stated case, Passkeys and FIDO2 is the closer match. FIDO2 passkeys bind authentication to the legitimate relying party and resist credential phishing more effectively than SMS codes.

Question 239

An analyst investigates a burst of DLP rule matches and needs activity events by user. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?

  1. Use Microsoft Purview eDiscovery to identify, preserve and collect relevant content for authorized investigations.
  2. Use Microsoft Purview Activity explorer to review events associated with labels and protection activities in supported workloads.
  3. Use the Microsoft Purview portal to discover and administer supported compliance, information protection and risk capabilities.
  4. Use Microsoft Purview Compliance Manager to organize improvement actions and track regulatory assessment progress.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Use Microsoft Purview Activity explorer to review events associated with labels and protection activities in supported workloads. This is the directly applicable response. Activity explorer focuses on what happened to data, unlike Content explorer's inventory of classified content.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Use Microsoft Purview eDiscovery to identify, preserve and collect relevant content for authorized investigations. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Purview eDiscovery. Its appropriate purpose is: eDiscovery supports legal and regulatory evidence workflows; it is distinct from real-time data loss prevention. For the stated case, Activity explorer is the closer match. Activity explorer focuses on what happened to data, unlike Content explorer's inventory of classified content.

C:

Use the Microsoft Purview portal to discover and administer supported compliance, information protection and risk capabilities. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Purview portal. Its appropriate purpose is: The Purview portal is a central interface for multiple compliance and data-governance solutions, not itself a finished compliance certification. For the stated case, Activity explorer is the closer match. Activity explorer focuses on what happened to data, unlike Content explorer's inventory of classified content.

D:

Use Microsoft Purview Compliance Manager to organize improvement actions and track regulatory assessment progress. This item belongs to a different control area: Compliance Manager. Its appropriate purpose is: Compliance Manager maps control activities and improvements; it does not automatically guarantee legal compliance. For the stated case, Activity explorer is the closer match. Activity explorer focuses on what happened to data, unlike Content explorer's inventory of classified content.

Question 240

A records officer wants to review supported user actions associated with information-protection policies. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.

  1. Use Microsoft Purview Insider Risk Management to investigate configured potentially risky user activities under approved privacy safeguards.
  2. Assessment owners can see outstanding control work, evidence and completion status for the chosen framework.
  3. Inspect Activity explorer events, filters, users, activity types and timestamps.
  4. Use Microsoft Purview Activity explorer to review events associated with labels and protection activities in supported workloads.
  5. Inspect audit search parameters, event operations, actors and timestamps for the relevant workload.

Explanation

Correct Answers

C:

Inspect Activity explorer events, filters, users, activity types and timestamps. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Activity explorer focuses on what happened to data, unlike Content explorer's inventory of classified content.

D:

Use Microsoft Purview Activity explorer to review events associated with labels and protection activities in supported workloads. This is the directly applicable response. Activity explorer focuses on what happened to data, unlike Content explorer's inventory of classified content.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Use Microsoft Purview Insider Risk Management to investigate configured potentially risky user activities under approved privacy safeguards. This item belongs to a different control area: Insider risk management. Its appropriate purpose is: Insider risk policies correlate relevant insider indicators; they do not authorize indiscriminate surveillance or replace privacy and employment policy. For the stated case, Activity explorer is the closer match. Activity explorer focuses on what happened to data, unlike Content explorer's inventory of classified content.

B:

Assessment owners can see outstanding control work, evidence and completion status for the chosen framework. This item belongs to a different control area: Compliance Manager. Its appropriate purpose is: Compliance Manager maps control activities and improvements; it does not automatically guarantee legal compliance. For the stated case, Activity explorer is the closer match. Activity explorer focuses on what happened to data, unlike Content explorer's inventory of classified content.

E:

Inspect audit search parameters, event operations, actors and timestamps for the relevant workload. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Purview Audit. Its appropriate purpose is: Audit provides activity logging and search, not a tool to classify documents or automatically enforce retention. For the stated case, Activity explorer is the closer match. Activity explorer focuses on what happened to data, unlike Content explorer's inventory of classified content.

Microsoft Security, Compliance, and Identity Fundamentals (SC-900) Practice Tests