Microsoft SC-900 Practice Test 23
Question 220
A regulated company needs to view Azure configuration gaps grouped against a recognized control standard. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?
- Operators can navigate from a unified incident to related evidence across connected Defender services.
- Only approved flows traverse the central firewall while prohibited traffic is logged or denied.
- The compliance dashboard reflects assessment status and supporting remediation evidence for selected standards.
- Malicious attachments are blocked or handled according to the configured action before users consume them.
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:The compliance dashboard reflects assessment status and supporting remediation evidence for selected standards. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. Regulatory compliance views relate assessed technical controls to frameworks; they do not by themselves certify organizational legal compliance.
Incorrect Answers
A:Operators can navigate from a unified incident to related evidence across connected Defender services. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Defender portal. Its appropriate purpose is: The Defender portal provides a unified security operations interface; it is not a replacement for configuring every underlying product. For the stated case, Defender for Cloud regulatory compliance is the closer match. Regulatory compliance views relate assessed technical controls to frameworks; they do not by themselves certify organizational legal compliance.
B:Only approved flows traverse the central firewall while prohibited traffic is logged or denied. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure Firewall. Its appropriate purpose is: Azure Firewall is a managed stateful network security service; it is not an identity provider or a retention tool. For the stated case, Defender for Cloud regulatory compliance is the closer match. Regulatory compliance views relate assessed technical controls to frameworks; they do not by themselves certify organizational legal compliance.
D:Malicious attachments are blocked or handled according to the configured action before users consume them. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Office 365 Safe Attachments. Its appropriate purpose is: Safe Attachments focuses on file-based email threats, whereas Safe Links protects URLs. For the stated case, Defender for Cloud regulatory compliance is the closer match. Regulatory compliance views relate assessed technical controls to frameworks; they do not by themselves certify organizational legal compliance.
Question 221
An organization wants warnings when confidential files are shared to unapproved external recipients. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?
- Use the Microsoft Purview portal to discover and administer supported compliance, information protection and risk capabilities.
- Use Microsoft Purview Compliance Manager to organize improvement actions and track regulatory assessment progress.
- Use Microsoft Purview Insider Risk Management to investigate configured potentially risky user activities under approved privacy safeguards.
- Configure Microsoft Purview data loss prevention policies to detect and control defined sensitive-data sharing in supported workloads.
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:Configure Microsoft Purview data loss prevention policies to detect and control defined sensitive-data sharing in supported workloads. This is the directly applicable response. DLP controls risky data movement based on policy conditions; labeling alone does not enforce every transmission restriction.
Incorrect Answers
A:Use the Microsoft Purview portal to discover and administer supported compliance, information protection and risk capabilities. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Purview portal. Its appropriate purpose is: The Purview portal is a central interface for multiple compliance and data-governance solutions, not itself a finished compliance certification. For the stated case, Data loss prevention policies is the closer match. DLP controls risky data movement based on policy conditions; labeling alone does not enforce every transmission restriction.
B:Use Microsoft Purview Compliance Manager to organize improvement actions and track regulatory assessment progress. This item belongs to a different control area: Compliance Manager. Its appropriate purpose is: Compliance Manager maps control activities and improvements; it does not automatically guarantee legal compliance. For the stated case, Data loss prevention policies is the closer match. DLP controls risky data movement based on policy conditions; labeling alone does not enforce every transmission restriction.
C:Use Microsoft Purview Insider Risk Management to investigate configured potentially risky user activities under approved privacy safeguards. This item belongs to a different control area: Insider risk management. Its appropriate purpose is: Insider risk policies correlate relevant insider indicators; they do not authorize indiscriminate surveillance or replace privacy and employment policy. For the stated case, Data loss prevention policies is the closer match. DLP controls risky data movement based on policy conditions; labeling alone does not enforce every transmission restriction.
Question 222
An incident-handling team needs repeatable enrichment and notification steps after security incidents arise. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?
- A qualifying incident triggers the approved response steps with auditable execution results.
- A targeted remediation clears the relevant security recommendation without loosening the intended standard.
- The intended risky session action is monitored or restricted according to configured controls.
- An authorized workload retrieves the secret while unauthorized principals are denied and access is logged.
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:A qualifying incident triggers the approved response steps with auditable execution results. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. SOAR automates and orchestrates workflows; it complements rather than replaces detection analytics and human judgment.
Incorrect Answers
B:A targeted remediation clears the relevant security recommendation without loosening the intended standard. This item belongs to a different control area: Cloud security policies and recommendations. Its appropriate purpose is: A recommendation identifies a technical improvement; a documented policy or assigned standard provides expectations for assessed resources. For the stated case, Microsoft Sentinel SOAR playbooks is the closer match. SOAR automates and orchestrates workflows; it complements rather than replaces detection analytics and human judgment.
C:The intended risky session action is monitored or restricted according to configured controls. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Cloud Apps session controls. Its appropriate purpose is: Session controls provide real-time governance of supported cloud app activities; discovery alone does not enforce session behaviors. For the stated case, Microsoft Sentinel SOAR playbooks is the closer match. SOAR automates and orchestrates workflows; it complements rather than replaces detection analytics and human judgment.
D:An authorized workload retrieves the secret while unauthorized principals are denied and access is logged. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure Key Vault secrets. Its appropriate purpose is: Key Vault manages keys, secrets and certificates; it is not a general-purpose file storage or SIEM service. For the stated case, Microsoft Sentinel SOAR playbooks is the closer match. SOAR automates and orchestrates workflows; it complements rather than replaces detection analytics and human judgment.
Question 223
A research consortium wants a temporary bundle of groups and apps granted through an approval workflow. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.
- Use location-based Conditional Access rules only as one evaluated sign-in signal, not as proof of identity.
- Inspect access package catalogs, eligibility, request policy and expiration configuration.
- The intended application sessions are governed and unrelated apps are not accidentally blocked.
- Inspect synchronization status, source directories and matching cloud user identities.
- Use Microsoft Entra entitlement management access packages with governed request, approval and expiration rules.
Explanation
Correct Answers
B:Inspect access package catalogs, eligibility, request policy and expiration configuration. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Entitlement management standardizes access bundles and access-request governance for groups, apps and sites.
E:Use Microsoft Entra entitlement management access packages with governed request, approval and expiration rules. This is the directly applicable response. Entitlement management standardizes access bundles and access-request governance for groups, apps and sites.
Incorrect Answers
A:Use location-based Conditional Access rules only as one evaluated sign-in signal, not as proof of identity. This item belongs to a different control area: Conditional Access locations. Its appropriate purpose is: Conditional Access can evaluate network locations alongside identities and risk, but location by itself should not be assumed trustworthy. For the stated case, Entitlement management access packages is the closer match. Entitlement management standardizes access bundles and access-request governance for groups, apps and sites.
C:The intended application sessions are governed and unrelated apps are not accidentally blocked. This item belongs to a different control area: Conditional Access application targeting. Its appropriate purpose is: A policy should be tested for targeted principals and applications, with emergency-access exclusions where appropriate. For the stated case, Entitlement management access packages is the closer match. Entitlement management standardizes access bundles and access-request governance for groups, apps and sites.
D:Inspect synchronization status, source directories and matching cloud user identities. This item belongs to a different control area: Hybrid identity. Its appropriate purpose is: Hybrid identity coordinates on-premises and cloud identity management; it does not automatically move every workload to Azure. For the stated case, Entitlement management access packages is the closer match. Entitlement management standardizes access bundles and access-request governance for groups, apps and sites.
Question 224
A SOC seeks a single investigation timeline for alerts generated by several Microsoft Defender services. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?
- Inspect incident timelines, alert evidence, related entities and assigned ownership.
- Inspect asset inventory, secure score, alerts, plans and recommendations in Defender for Cloud.
- Inspect cross-product incidents, linked alerts, entity timeline and incident evidence in the Defender portal.
- Inspect firewall policies, rule collections, traffic logs and routed connection paths.
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:Inspect cross-product incidents, linked alerts, entity timeline and incident evidence in the Defender portal. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Defender XDR correlates detections across product domains; it does not replace storage of encryption keys or data retention governance.
Incorrect Answers
A:Inspect incident timelines, alert evidence, related entities and assigned ownership. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Sentinel incident investigation. Its appropriate purpose is: Incident management helps investigate and coordinate alerts; it differs from automatic enforcement through a playbook. For the stated case, Microsoft Defender XDR unified incidents is the closer match. Defender XDR correlates detections across product domains; it does not replace storage of encryption keys or data retention governance.
B:Inspect asset inventory, secure score, alerts, plans and recommendations in Defender for Cloud. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Cloud unified security posture. Its appropriate purpose is: Defender for Cloud combines CSPM and cloud workload protection capabilities; it is not the same as a single network security group. For the stated case, Microsoft Defender XDR unified incidents is the closer match. Defender XDR correlates detections across product domains; it does not replace storage of encryption keys or data retention governance.
D:Inspect firewall policies, rule collections, traffic logs and routed connection paths. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure Firewall. Its appropriate purpose is: Azure Firewall is a managed stateful network security service; it is not an identity provider or a retention tool. For the stated case, Microsoft Defender XDR unified incidents is the closer match. Defender XDR correlates detections across product domains; it does not replace storage of encryption keys or data retention governance.
Question 225
An event organizer needs to grant and later revoke temporary guest access to planning files. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.
- Use location-based Conditional Access rules only as one evaluated sign-in signal, not as proof of identity.
- Invite and govern partner users with Microsoft Entra B2B collaboration instead of issuing shared internal passwords.
- Users sign in with the intended phishing-resistant cryptographic authentication method instead of sharing reusable secrets.
- Inspect role definitions, active assignments and role audit events for tenant administrators.
- Inspect guest account records, cross-tenant access settings and assigned resource permissions.
Explanation
Correct Answers
B:Invite and govern partner users with Microsoft Entra B2B collaboration instead of issuing shared internal passwords. This is the directly applicable response. B2B collaboration supports external users while preserving explicit guest access and tenant policy boundaries.
E:Inspect guest account records, cross-tenant access settings and assigned resource permissions. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. B2B collaboration supports external users while preserving explicit guest access and tenant policy boundaries.
Incorrect Answers
A:Use location-based Conditional Access rules only as one evaluated sign-in signal, not as proof of identity. This item belongs to a different control area: Conditional Access locations. Its appropriate purpose is: Conditional Access can evaluate network locations alongside identities and risk, but location by itself should not be assumed trustworthy. For the stated case, External guest collaboration is the closer match. B2B collaboration supports external users while preserving explicit guest access and tenant policy boundaries.
C:Users sign in with the intended phishing-resistant cryptographic authentication method instead of sharing reusable secrets. This item belongs to a different control area: Passkeys and FIDO2. Its appropriate purpose is: FIDO2 passkeys bind authentication to the legitimate relying party and resist credential phishing more effectively than SMS codes. For the stated case, External guest collaboration is the closer match. B2B collaboration supports external users while preserving explicit guest access and tenant policy boundaries.
D:Inspect role definitions, active assignments and role audit events for tenant administrators. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Entra role-based access control. Its appropriate purpose is: Entra administrative roles govern directory and identity operations; Azure resource RBAC is a separate scope model. For the stated case, External guest collaboration is the closer match. B2B collaboration supports external users while preserving explicit guest access and tenant policy boundaries.
Question 226
A staff member forgets a cloud sign-in password while the support desk is closed. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?
- Inspect included and excluded users, target apps, conditions and report-only evaluation logs.
- Inspect detected risk events, risk levels, policy outcomes and remediation history.
- Inspect SSPR policy scope, method registration, registration status and reset audit logs.
- Inspect guest account records, cross-tenant access settings and assigned resource permissions.
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:Inspect SSPR policy scope, method registration, registration status and reset audit logs. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. SSPR helps account recovery; it does not grant additional resource authorization or bypass verification.
Incorrect Answers
A:Inspect included and excluded users, target apps, conditions and report-only evaluation logs. This item belongs to a different control area: Conditional Access application targeting. Its appropriate purpose is: A policy should be tested for targeted principals and applications, with emergency-access exclusions where appropriate. For the stated case, Self-service password reset is the closer match. SSPR helps account recovery; it does not grant additional resource authorization or bypass verification.
B:Inspect detected risk events, risk levels, policy outcomes and remediation history. This item belongs to a different control area: Identity Protection risk detection. Its appropriate purpose is: Identity Protection detects identity-related risk signals; a generic role assignment alone does not assess risk. For the stated case, Self-service password reset is the closer match. SSPR helps account recovery; it does not grant additional resource authorization or bypass verification.
D:Inspect guest account records, cross-tenant access settings and assigned resource permissions. This item belongs to a different control area: External guest collaboration. Its appropriate purpose is: B2B collaboration supports external users while preserving explicit guest access and tenant policy boundaries. For the stated case, Self-service password reset is the closer match. SSPR helps account recovery; it does not grant additional resource authorization or bypass verification.
Question 227
A law firm wants confidential documents marked and protected with an approved sensitivity label. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?
- Inspect assessments, improvement actions, assigned owners and uploaded evidence.
- Inspect eDiscovery cases, custodians, holds, search results and export or review actions.
- Inspect label settings, publication policy scopes and actual label application to target documents.
- Inspect audit search parameters, event operations, actors and timestamps for the relevant workload.
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:Inspect label settings, publication policy scopes and actual label application to target documents. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Sensitivity labels classify content and may apply protection; labels must be made available through appropriate policy publishing.
Incorrect Answers
A:Inspect assessments, improvement actions, assigned owners and uploaded evidence. This item belongs to a different control area: Compliance Manager. Its appropriate purpose is: Compliance Manager maps control activities and improvements; it does not automatically guarantee legal compliance. For the stated case, Sensitivity labels is the closer match. Sensitivity labels classify content and may apply protection; labels must be made available through appropriate policy publishing.
B:Inspect eDiscovery cases, custodians, holds, search results and export or review actions. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Purview eDiscovery. Its appropriate purpose is: eDiscovery supports legal and regulatory evidence workflows; it is distinct from real-time data loss prevention. For the stated case, Sensitivity labels is the closer match. Sensitivity labels classify content and may apply protection; labels must be made available through appropriate policy publishing.
D:Inspect audit search parameters, event operations, actors and timestamps for the relevant workload. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Purview Audit. Its appropriate purpose is: Audit provides activity logging and search, not a tool to classify documents or automatically enforce retention. For the stated case, Sensitivity labels is the closer match. Sensitivity labels classify content and may apply protection; labels must be made available through appropriate policy publishing.
Question 228
An auditor wants a current view of cloud security posture and open hardening recommendations. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?
- Inspect Bastion deployment, VM public IP assignments and management connection paths.
- Inspect attack mitigation telemetry, protected public IP association and network traffic anomaly patterns.
- Inspect ASR rule configuration, audit or block events and exclusions for the affected endpoints.
- Inspect asset inventory, secure score, alerts, plans and recommendations in Defender for Cloud.
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:Inspect asset inventory, secure score, alerts, plans and recommendations in Defender for Cloud. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Defender for Cloud combines CSPM and cloud workload protection capabilities; it is not the same as a single network security group.
Incorrect Answers
A:Inspect Bastion deployment, VM public IP assignments and management connection paths. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure Bastion. Its appropriate purpose is: Bastion supplies browser- or client-mediated secure VM management access; it is not a DDoS service. For the stated case, Defender for Cloud unified security posture is the closer match. Defender for Cloud combines CSPM and cloud workload protection capabilities; it is not the same as a single network security group.
B:Inspect attack mitigation telemetry, protected public IP association and network traffic anomaly patterns. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure DDoS Protection. Its appropriate purpose is: DDoS Protection addresses distributed denial-of-service traffic aimed at network services; it does not replace a web-application rule engine. For the stated case, Defender for Cloud unified security posture is the closer match. Defender for Cloud combines CSPM and cloud workload protection capabilities; it is not the same as a single network security group.
C:Inspect ASR rule configuration, audit or block events and exclusions for the affected endpoints. This item belongs to a different control area: Endpoint attack surface reduction. Its appropriate purpose is: ASR rules reduce common exploit paths on endpoints and can be tested in audit mode before enforcement. For the stated case, Defender for Cloud unified security posture is the closer match. Defender for Cloud combines CSPM and cloud workload protection capabilities; it is not the same as a single network security group.
Question 229
A records manager wants users to choose item-level retention classes through published labels. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?
- Use Microsoft Purview Compliance Manager to organize improvement actions and track regulatory assessment progress.
- Use Microsoft Purview Insider Risk Management to investigate configured potentially risky user activities under approved privacy safeguards.
- Use the Microsoft Service Trust Portal to retrieve available Microsoft compliance, audit and trust-related documentation.
- Use Microsoft Purview retention labels and publishing or auto-application policies for item-level lifecycle handling.
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:Use Microsoft Purview retention labels and publishing or auto-application policies for item-level lifecycle handling. This is the directly applicable response. Retention labels govern specific items; a broad location-level retention policy does not provide the same fine-grained labeling behavior.
Incorrect Answers
A:Use Microsoft Purview Compliance Manager to organize improvement actions and track regulatory assessment progress. This item belongs to a different control area: Compliance Manager. Its appropriate purpose is: Compliance Manager maps control activities and improvements; it does not automatically guarantee legal compliance. For the stated case, Retention labels is the closer match. Retention labels govern specific items; a broad location-level retention policy does not provide the same fine-grained labeling behavior.
B:Use Microsoft Purview Insider Risk Management to investigate configured potentially risky user activities under approved privacy safeguards. This item belongs to a different control area: Insider risk management. Its appropriate purpose is: Insider risk policies correlate relevant insider indicators; they do not authorize indiscriminate surveillance or replace privacy and employment policy. For the stated case, Retention labels is the closer match. Retention labels govern specific items; a broad location-level retention policy does not provide the same fine-grained labeling behavior.
C:Use the Microsoft Service Trust Portal to retrieve available Microsoft compliance, audit and trust-related documentation. This item belongs to a different control area: Service Trust Portal. Its appropriate purpose is: The Service Trust Portal offers Microsoft service assurance resources; customers remain responsible for their own compliance obligations. For the stated case, Retention labels is the closer match. Retention labels govern specific items; a broad location-level retention policy does not provide the same fine-grained labeling behavior.
Question 230
A payroll portal transmits employee data across an untrusted network and needs confidentiality in transit. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?
- Use a trusted identity provider and directory to manage identities and support application sign-in.
- Protect sensitive information with appropriate encryption at rest and in transit and manage access to keys.
- Protect and verify identities as a primary perimeter for cloud access rather than relying only on a building network.
- Authenticate the principal first and separately authorize only the permitted resource actions.
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:Protect sensitive information with appropriate encryption at rest and in transit and manage access to keys. This is the directly applicable response. Encryption makes data unreadable to an unauthorized party without the appropriate key; it differs from a one-way hash.
Incorrect Answers
A:Use a trusted identity provider and directory to manage identities and support application sign-in. This item belongs to a different control area: Identity providers and directories. Its appropriate purpose is: An identity provider handles authentication while a directory stores and organizes identities and attributes; neither equals the protected application. For the stated case, Encryption is the closer match. Encryption makes data unreadable to an unauthorized party without the appropriate key; it differs from a one-way hash.
C:Protect and verify identities as a primary perimeter for cloud access rather than relying only on a building network. This item belongs to a different control area: Identity as security perimeter. Its appropriate purpose is: Cloud users and workloads access resources from varied networks, making authenticated identity and authorization central boundaries. For the stated case, Encryption is the closer match. Encryption makes data unreadable to an unauthorized party without the appropriate key; it differs from a one-way hash.
D:Authenticate the principal first and separately authorize only the permitted resource actions. This item belongs to a different control area: Authentication and authorization. Its appropriate purpose is: Authentication proves identity or possession of credentials; authorization determines what that identity may do. For the stated case, Encryption is the closer match. Encryption makes data unreadable to an unauthorized party without the appropriate key; it differs from a one-way hash.