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Microsoft SC-900 Practice Test 22

Question 210

An organization moves an application to cloud hosting but needs to rely on its established corporate sign-in provider. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?

  1. Use a suitable one-way cryptographic hash to check integrity rather than recover an original secret.
  2. Establish a standards-based trust between identity providers so one organization can authenticate users for a relying application.
  3. Maintain documented governance decisions, risk ownership and compliance control evidence.
  4. Protect sensitive information with appropriate encryption at rest and in transit and manage access to keys.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Establish a standards-based trust between identity providers so one organization can authenticate users for a relying application. This is the directly applicable response. Federation extends authentication trust across security domains; it does not automatically grant unrestricted permissions.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Use a suitable one-way cryptographic hash to check integrity rather than recover an original secret. This item belongs to a different control area: Cryptographic hashing. Its appropriate purpose is: Hashing supports integrity checks or password verification when designed correctly; hashing by itself does not provide encryption or confidentiality. For the stated case, Identity federation is the closer match. Federation extends authentication trust across security domains; it does not automatically grant unrestricted permissions.

C:

Maintain documented governance decisions, risk ownership and compliance control evidence. This item belongs to a different control area: Governance risk and compliance. Its appropriate purpose is: Governance sets direction, risk management evaluates exposure, and compliance verifies obligations against controls. For the stated case, Identity federation is the closer match. Federation extends authentication trust across security domains; it does not automatically grant unrestricted permissions.

D:

Protect sensitive information with appropriate encryption at rest and in transit and manage access to keys. This item belongs to a different control area: Encryption. Its appropriate purpose is: Encryption makes data unreadable to an unauthorized party without the appropriate key; it differs from a one-way hash. For the stated case, Identity federation is the closer match. Federation extends authentication trust across security domains; it does not automatically grant unrestricted permissions.

Question 211

A security team needs a prioritized list of outdated software affecting corporate endpoints. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?

  1. Use Microsoft Defender Vulnerability Management to discover, prioritize and track exposed device software weaknesses.
  2. Use Azure DDoS Protection for protection of exposed Azure public IP resources against volumetric network attacks where appropriate.
  3. Use security policies, standards and recommendations to drive governed cloud configuration hardening.
  4. Apply Azure Web Application Firewall to inspect HTTP and HTTPS requests for common web-application attacks.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Use Microsoft Defender Vulnerability Management to discover, prioritize and track exposed device software weaknesses. This is the directly applicable response. Vulnerability management focuses on identifying and prioritizing exposures; it is distinct from active incident correlation.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Use Azure DDoS Protection for protection of exposed Azure public IP resources against volumetric network attacks where appropriate. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure DDoS Protection. Its appropriate purpose is: DDoS Protection addresses distributed denial-of-service traffic aimed at network services; it does not replace a web-application rule engine. For the stated case, Defender Vulnerability Management is the closer match. Vulnerability management focuses on identifying and prioritizing exposures; it is distinct from active incident correlation.

C:

Use security policies, standards and recommendations to drive governed cloud configuration hardening. This item belongs to a different control area: Cloud security policies and recommendations. Its appropriate purpose is: A recommendation identifies a technical improvement; a documented policy or assigned standard provides expectations for assessed resources. For the stated case, Defender Vulnerability Management is the closer match. Vulnerability management focuses on identifying and prioritizing exposures; it is distinct from active incident correlation.

D:

Apply Azure Web Application Firewall to inspect HTTP and HTTPS requests for common web-application attacks. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure Web Application Firewall. Its appropriate purpose is: A WAF targets application-layer HTTP risks such as injection, unlike basic network port filtering. For the stated case, Defender Vulnerability Management is the closer match. Vulnerability management focuses on identifying and prioritizing exposures; it is distinct from active incident correlation.

Question 212

A student portal receives SQL-injection-style requests through its public HTTPS endpoint. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.

  1. Inspect WAF rules, managed-rule matches and HTTP request logs for the affected endpoint.
  2. Apply Azure Web Application Firewall to inspect HTTP and HTTPS requests for common web-application attacks.
  3. A targeted remediation clears the relevant security recommendation without loosening the intended standard.
  4. Use Sentinel automation rules and supported playbooks to orchestrate defined incident-response tasks.
  5. Inspect device vulnerability inventory, recommendations, software exposure and remediation status.

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

Inspect WAF rules, managed-rule matches and HTTP request logs for the affected endpoint. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. A WAF targets application-layer HTTP risks such as injection, unlike basic network port filtering.

B:

Apply Azure Web Application Firewall to inspect HTTP and HTTPS requests for common web-application attacks. This is the directly applicable response. A WAF targets application-layer HTTP risks such as injection, unlike basic network port filtering.

Incorrect Answers

C:

A targeted remediation clears the relevant security recommendation without loosening the intended standard. This item belongs to a different control area: Cloud security policies and recommendations. Its appropriate purpose is: A recommendation identifies a technical improvement; a documented policy or assigned standard provides expectations for assessed resources. For the stated case, Azure Web Application Firewall is the closer match. A WAF targets application-layer HTTP risks such as injection, unlike basic network port filtering.

D:

Use Sentinel automation rules and supported playbooks to orchestrate defined incident-response tasks. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Sentinel SOAR playbooks. Its appropriate purpose is: SOAR automates and orchestrates workflows; it complements rather than replaces detection analytics and human judgment. For the stated case, Azure Web Application Firewall is the closer match. A WAF targets application-layer HTTP risks such as injection, unlike basic network port filtering.

E:

Inspect device vulnerability inventory, recommendations, software exposure and remediation status. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender Vulnerability Management. Its appropriate purpose is: Vulnerability management focuses on identifying and prioritizing exposures; it is distinct from active incident correlation. For the stated case, Azure Web Application Firewall is the closer match. A WAF targets application-layer HTTP risks such as injection, unlike basic network port filtering.

Question 213

A board requests evidence that cybersecurity risks have owners and approved treatment actions. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?

  1. Only validated principals with appropriate entitlements can reach sensitive cloud resources regardless of location.
  2. Risks have assigned treatment decisions and controls have evidence linked to applicable requirements.
  3. A verified sign-in succeeds without automatically allowing operations that the identity has not been granted.
  4. External identities sign in through the trusted home provider and receive only the application's authorized access.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Risks have assigned treatment decisions and controls have evidence linked to applicable requirements. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. Governance sets direction, risk management evaluates exposure, and compliance verifies obligations against controls.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Only validated principals with appropriate entitlements can reach sensitive cloud resources regardless of location. This item belongs to a different control area: Identity as security perimeter. Its appropriate purpose is: Cloud users and workloads access resources from varied networks, making authenticated identity and authorization central boundaries. For the stated case, Governance risk and compliance is the closer match. Governance sets direction, risk management evaluates exposure, and compliance verifies obligations against controls.

C:

A verified sign-in succeeds without automatically allowing operations that the identity has not been granted. This item belongs to a different control area: Authentication and authorization. Its appropriate purpose is: Authentication proves identity or possession of credentials; authorization determines what that identity may do. For the stated case, Governance risk and compliance is the closer match. Governance sets direction, risk management evaluates exposure, and compliance verifies obligations against controls.

D:

External identities sign in through the trusted home provider and receive only the application's authorized access. This item belongs to a different control area: Identity federation. Its appropriate purpose is: Federation extends authentication trust across security domains; it does not automatically grant unrestricted permissions. For the stated case, Governance risk and compliance is the closer match. Governance sets direction, risk management evaluates exposure, and compliance verifies obligations against controls.

Question 214

A company wants controlled access and audit events for sensitive application credentials. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?

  1. Enable applicable Defender for Cloud workload protection plans to detect threats affecting supported cloud workloads.
  2. Store and access application secrets in Azure Key Vault with appropriately controlled authorization.
  3. Configure Microsoft Sentinel analytics rules to detect defined suspicious patterns in ingested security data.
  4. Use Microsoft Defender for Identity to detect suspicious identity activity involving supported on-premises Active Directory environments.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Store and access application secrets in Azure Key Vault with appropriately controlled authorization. This is the directly applicable response. Key Vault manages keys, secrets and certificates; it is not a general-purpose file storage or SIEM service.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Enable applicable Defender for Cloud workload protection plans to detect threats affecting supported cloud workloads. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Cloud workload protection. Its appropriate purpose is: Cloud workload protection detects threat signals and suspicious runtime behavior; CSPM primarily addresses configuration posture. For the stated case, Azure Key Vault secrets is the closer match. Key Vault manages keys, secrets and certificates; it is not a general-purpose file storage or SIEM service.

C:

Configure Microsoft Sentinel analytics rules to detect defined suspicious patterns in ingested security data. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Sentinel analytics rules. Its appropriate purpose is: Sentinel analytics rules evaluate telemetry to raise detections; collecting logs alone is insufficient to identify a defined pattern. For the stated case, Azure Key Vault secrets is the closer match. Key Vault manages keys, secrets and certificates; it is not a general-purpose file storage or SIEM service.

D:

Use Microsoft Defender for Identity to detect suspicious identity activity involving supported on-premises Active Directory environments. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Identity. Its appropriate purpose is: Defender for Identity monitors on-premises identity threats and domain controller signals; it is not a cloud app SaaS discovery catalog. For the stated case, Azure Key Vault secrets is the closer match. Key Vault manages keys, secrets and certificates; it is not a general-purpose file storage or SIEM service.

Question 215

An architecture review finds development and production servers sharing an undifferentiated network segment. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?

  1. Use supported Defender for Cloud Apps Conditional Access App Control session controls for cloud app activity when configured.
  2. Configure Microsoft Sentinel analytics rules to detect defined suspicious patterns in ingested security data.
  3. Use Microsoft Defender XDR to correlate incidents and signals across supported Microsoft security products.
  4. Separate workloads into appropriately designed Azure virtual networks and subnets with explicit connectivity boundaries.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Separate workloads into appropriately designed Azure virtual networks and subnets with explicit connectivity boundaries. This is the directly applicable response. Virtual networks provide logical network isolation; separate security policies may still be needed to limit allowed flows.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Use supported Defender for Cloud Apps Conditional Access App Control session controls for cloud app activity when configured. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Cloud Apps session controls. Its appropriate purpose is: Session controls provide real-time governance of supported cloud app activities; discovery alone does not enforce session behaviors. For the stated case, Azure virtual network segmentation is the closer match. Virtual networks provide logical network isolation; separate security policies may still be needed to limit allowed flows.

B:

Configure Microsoft Sentinel analytics rules to detect defined suspicious patterns in ingested security data. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Sentinel analytics rules. Its appropriate purpose is: Sentinel analytics rules evaluate telemetry to raise detections; collecting logs alone is insufficient to identify a defined pattern. For the stated case, Azure virtual network segmentation is the closer match. Virtual networks provide logical network isolation; separate security policies may still be needed to limit allowed flows.

C:

Use Microsoft Defender XDR to correlate incidents and signals across supported Microsoft security products. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Defender XDR unified incidents. Its appropriate purpose is: Defender XDR correlates detections across product domains; it does not replace storage of encryption keys or data retention governance. For the stated case, Azure virtual network segmentation is the closer match. Virtual networks provide logical network isolation; separate security policies may still be needed to limit allowed flows.

Question 216

Two Azure applications require separate address spaces and only limited intentional interconnection. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?

  1. Inspect VNet and subnet address plans, peering relationships and route tables.
  2. Inspect assigned compliance standards, evaluated controls and their associated resource assessments.
  3. Inspect automation rule triggers, Logic Apps playbook runs and action execution outcomes.
  4. Inspect monitored domain controllers, identity alerts and suspicious activity timelines.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Inspect VNet and subnet address plans, peering relationships and route tables. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Virtual networks provide logical network isolation; separate security policies may still be needed to limit allowed flows.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Inspect assigned compliance standards, evaluated controls and their associated resource assessments. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Cloud regulatory compliance. Its appropriate purpose is: Regulatory compliance views relate assessed technical controls to frameworks; they do not by themselves certify organizational legal compliance. For the stated case, Azure virtual network segmentation is the closer match. Virtual networks provide logical network isolation; separate security policies may still be needed to limit allowed flows.

C:

Inspect automation rule triggers, Logic Apps playbook runs and action execution outcomes. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Sentinel SOAR playbooks. Its appropriate purpose is: SOAR automates and orchestrates workflows; it complements rather than replaces detection analytics and human judgment. For the stated case, Azure virtual network segmentation is the closer match. Virtual networks provide logical network isolation; separate security policies may still be needed to limit allowed flows.

D:

Inspect monitored domain controllers, identity alerts and suspicious activity timelines. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Identity. Its appropriate purpose is: Defender for Identity monitors on-premises identity threats and domain controller signals; it is not a cloud app SaaS discovery catalog. For the stated case, Azure virtual network segmentation is the closer match. Virtual networks provide logical network isolation; separate security policies may still be needed to limit allowed flows.

Question 217

A healthcare tenant wants to assign owners for privacy assessment control improvements. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.

  1. Inspect assessments, improvement actions, assigned owners and uploaded evidence.
  2. Use Microsoft Purview Compliance Manager to organize improvement actions and track regulatory assessment progress.
  3. Use Microsoft Purview Activity explorer to review events associated with labels and protection activities in supported workloads.
  4. Authorized reviewers can identify where labeled or classified items reside in supported data locations.
  5. Examine data handling notices, customer controls and the relevant published privacy commitments.

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

Inspect assessments, improvement actions, assigned owners and uploaded evidence. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Compliance Manager maps control activities and improvements; it does not automatically guarantee legal compliance.

B:

Use Microsoft Purview Compliance Manager to organize improvement actions and track regulatory assessment progress. This is the directly applicable response. Compliance Manager maps control activities and improvements; it does not automatically guarantee legal compliance.

Incorrect Answers

C:

Use Microsoft Purview Activity explorer to review events associated with labels and protection activities in supported workloads. This item belongs to a different control area: Activity explorer. Its appropriate purpose is: Activity explorer focuses on what happened to data, unlike Content explorer's inventory of classified content. For the stated case, Compliance Manager is the closer match. Compliance Manager maps control activities and improvements; it does not automatically guarantee legal compliance.

D:

Authorized reviewers can identify where labeled or classified items reside in supported data locations. This item belongs to a different control area: Content explorer. Its appropriate purpose is: Content explorer helps inspect classified data inventory; Activity explorer focuses on actions and activity history. For the stated case, Compliance Manager is the closer match. Compliance Manager maps control activities and improvements; it does not automatically guarantee legal compliance.

E:

Examine data handling notices, customer controls and the relevant published privacy commitments. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft privacy principles. Its appropriate purpose is: Privacy principles guide responsible data handling and transparency; they do not automatically classify every document. For the stated case, Compliance Manager is the closer match. Compliance Manager maps control activities and improvements; it does not automatically guarantee legal compliance.

Question 218

A governance analyst needs classification-oriented item-level visibility before creating remediation plans. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?

  1. Use Microsoft Purview Content explorer to examine classified content locations and relevant item details with proper roles.
  2. Use Microsoft Purview Compliance Manager to organize improvement actions and track regulatory assessment progress.
  3. Use the Microsoft Purview portal to discover and administer supported compliance, information protection and risk capabilities.
  4. Use the compliance score in Microsoft Purview Compliance Manager as a progress indicator for assessed improvement actions.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Use Microsoft Purview Content explorer to examine classified content locations and relevant item details with proper roles. This is the directly applicable response. Content explorer helps inspect classified data inventory; Activity explorer focuses on actions and activity history.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Use Microsoft Purview Compliance Manager to organize improvement actions and track regulatory assessment progress. This item belongs to a different control area: Compliance Manager. Its appropriate purpose is: Compliance Manager maps control activities and improvements; it does not automatically guarantee legal compliance. For the stated case, Content explorer is the closer match. Content explorer helps inspect classified data inventory; Activity explorer focuses on actions and activity history.

C:

Use the Microsoft Purview portal to discover and administer supported compliance, information protection and risk capabilities. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Purview portal. Its appropriate purpose is: The Purview portal is a central interface for multiple compliance and data-governance solutions, not itself a finished compliance certification. For the stated case, Content explorer is the closer match. Content explorer helps inspect classified data inventory; Activity explorer focuses on actions and activity history.

D:

Use the compliance score in Microsoft Purview Compliance Manager as a progress indicator for assessed improvement actions. This item belongs to a different control area: Compliance score. Its appropriate purpose is: Compliance score measures tracked improvement progress; it is not a universal regulatory certification or breach-risk guarantee. For the stated case, Content explorer is the closer match. Content explorer helps inspect classified data inventory; Activity explorer focuses on actions and activity history.

Question 219

A finance team must stop accidental sharing of payment card information through corporate email. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?

  1. Use Microsoft Purview Compliance Manager to organize improvement actions and track regulatory assessment progress.
  2. Configure Microsoft Purview data loss prevention policies to detect and control defined sensitive-data sharing in supported workloads.
  3. Apply Microsoft's published privacy principles when assessing transparency, control and responsible handling of personal data.
  4. Use the compliance score in Microsoft Purview Compliance Manager as a progress indicator for assessed improvement actions.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Configure Microsoft Purview data loss prevention policies to detect and control defined sensitive-data sharing in supported workloads. This is the directly applicable response. DLP controls risky data movement based on policy conditions; labeling alone does not enforce every transmission restriction.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Use Microsoft Purview Compliance Manager to organize improvement actions and track regulatory assessment progress. This item belongs to a different control area: Compliance Manager. Its appropriate purpose is: Compliance Manager maps control activities and improvements; it does not automatically guarantee legal compliance. For the stated case, Data loss prevention policies is the closer match. DLP controls risky data movement based on policy conditions; labeling alone does not enforce every transmission restriction.

C:

Apply Microsoft's published privacy principles when assessing transparency, control and responsible handling of personal data. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft privacy principles. Its appropriate purpose is: Privacy principles guide responsible data handling and transparency; they do not automatically classify every document. For the stated case, Data loss prevention policies is the closer match. DLP controls risky data movement based on policy conditions; labeling alone does not enforce every transmission restriction.

D:

Use the compliance score in Microsoft Purview Compliance Manager as a progress indicator for assessed improvement actions. This item belongs to a different control area: Compliance score. Its appropriate purpose is: Compliance score measures tracked improvement progress; it is not a universal regulatory certification or breach-risk guarantee. For the stated case, Data loss prevention policies is the closer match. DLP controls risky data movement based on policy conditions; labeling alone does not enforce every transmission restriction.

Question 220

A regulated company needs to view Azure configuration gaps grouped against a recognized control standard. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?

  1. Operators can navigate from a unified incident to related evidence across connected Defender services.
  2. Only approved flows traverse the central firewall while prohibited traffic is logged or denied.
  3. The compliance dashboard reflects assessment status and supporting remediation evidence for selected standards.
  4. Malicious attachments are blocked or handled according to the configured action before users consume them.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

The compliance dashboard reflects assessment status and supporting remediation evidence for selected standards. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. Regulatory compliance views relate assessed technical controls to frameworks; they do not by themselves certify organizational legal compliance.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Operators can navigate from a unified incident to related evidence across connected Defender services. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Defender portal. Its appropriate purpose is: The Defender portal provides a unified security operations interface; it is not a replacement for configuring every underlying product. For the stated case, Defender for Cloud regulatory compliance is the closer match. Regulatory compliance views relate assessed technical controls to frameworks; they do not by themselves certify organizational legal compliance.

B:

Only approved flows traverse the central firewall while prohibited traffic is logged or denied. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure Firewall. Its appropriate purpose is: Azure Firewall is a managed stateful network security service; it is not an identity provider or a retention tool. For the stated case, Defender for Cloud regulatory compliance is the closer match. Regulatory compliance views relate assessed technical controls to frameworks; they do not by themselves certify organizational legal compliance.

D:

Malicious attachments are blocked or handled according to the configured action before users consume them. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Office 365 Safe Attachments. Its appropriate purpose is: Safe Attachments focuses on file-based email threats, whereas Safe Links protects URLs. For the stated case, Defender for Cloud regulatory compliance is the closer match. Regulatory compliance views relate assessed technical controls to frameworks; they do not by themselves certify organizational legal compliance.

Microsoft Security, Compliance, and Identity Fundamentals (SC-900) Practice Tests