Microsoft SC-900 Practice Test 25
Question 240
A records officer wants to review supported user actions associated with information-protection policies. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.
- Use Microsoft Purview Insider Risk Management to investigate configured potentially risky user activities under approved privacy safeguards.
- Assessment owners can see outstanding control work, evidence and completion status for the chosen framework.
- Inspect Activity explorer events, filters, users, activity types and timestamps.
- Use Microsoft Purview Activity explorer to review events associated with labels and protection activities in supported workloads.
- Inspect audit search parameters, event operations, actors and timestamps for the relevant workload.
Explanation
Correct Answers
C:Inspect Activity explorer events, filters, users, activity types and timestamps. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Activity explorer focuses on what happened to data, unlike Content explorer's inventory of classified content.
D:Use Microsoft Purview Activity explorer to review events associated with labels and protection activities in supported workloads. This is the directly applicable response. Activity explorer focuses on what happened to data, unlike Content explorer's inventory of classified content.
Incorrect Answers
A:Use Microsoft Purview Insider Risk Management to investigate configured potentially risky user activities under approved privacy safeguards. This item belongs to a different control area: Insider risk management. Its appropriate purpose is: Insider risk policies correlate relevant insider indicators; they do not authorize indiscriminate surveillance or replace privacy and employment policy. For the stated case, Activity explorer is the closer match. Activity explorer focuses on what happened to data, unlike Content explorer's inventory of classified content.
B:Assessment owners can see outstanding control work, evidence and completion status for the chosen framework. This item belongs to a different control area: Compliance Manager. Its appropriate purpose is: Compliance Manager maps control activities and improvements; it does not automatically guarantee legal compliance. For the stated case, Activity explorer is the closer match. Activity explorer focuses on what happened to data, unlike Content explorer's inventory of classified content.
E:Inspect audit search parameters, event operations, actors and timestamps for the relevant workload. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Purview Audit. Its appropriate purpose is: Audit provides activity logging and search, not a tool to classify documents or automatically enforce retention. For the stated case, Activity explorer is the closer match. Activity explorer focuses on what happened to data, unlike Content explorer's inventory of classified content.
Question 241
An endpoint hardening project aims to reduce script-based abuse without relying solely on antivirus signatures. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?
- Inspect policy assignments, noncompliant resources and recommendation-to-remediation mappings.
- Inspect ASR rule configuration, audit or block events and exclusions for the affected endpoints.
- Inspect incident timelines, alert evidence, related entities and assigned ownership.
- Inspect assigned compliance standards, evaluated controls and their associated resource assessments.
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:Inspect ASR rule configuration, audit or block events and exclusions for the affected endpoints. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. ASR rules reduce common exploit paths on endpoints and can be tested in audit mode before enforcement.
Incorrect Answers
A:Inspect policy assignments, noncompliant resources and recommendation-to-remediation mappings. This item belongs to a different control area: Cloud security policies and recommendations. Its appropriate purpose is: A recommendation identifies a technical improvement; a documented policy or assigned standard provides expectations for assessed resources. For the stated case, Endpoint attack surface reduction is the closer match. ASR rules reduce common exploit paths on endpoints and can be tested in audit mode before enforcement.
C:Inspect incident timelines, alert evidence, related entities and assigned ownership. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Sentinel incident investigation. Its appropriate purpose is: Incident management helps investigate and coordinate alerts; it differs from automatic enforcement through a playbook. For the stated case, Endpoint attack surface reduction is the closer match. ASR rules reduce common exploit paths on endpoints and can be tested in audit mode before enforcement.
D:Inspect assigned compliance standards, evaluated controls and their associated resource assessments. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Cloud regulatory compliance. Its appropriate purpose is: Regulatory compliance views relate assessed technical controls to frameworks; they do not by themselves certify organizational legal compliance. For the stated case, Endpoint attack surface reduction is the closer match. ASR rules reduce common exploit paths on endpoints and can be tested in audit mode before enforcement.
Question 242
An organization wants warnings when confidential files are shared to unapproved external recipients. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?
- Inspect DLP policy conditions, targeted locations, match events and user-facing policy outcomes.
- Inspect the relevant Purview solution pages, available roles and enabled features.
- Inspect policy indicators, generated alerts, case evidence and role-controlled access.
- Inspect assessments, improvement actions, assigned owners and uploaded evidence.
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:Inspect DLP policy conditions, targeted locations, match events and user-facing policy outcomes. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. DLP controls risky data movement based on policy conditions; labeling alone does not enforce every transmission restriction.
Incorrect Answers
B:Inspect the relevant Purview solution pages, available roles and enabled features. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Purview portal. Its appropriate purpose is: The Purview portal is a central interface for multiple compliance and data-governance solutions, not itself a finished compliance certification. For the stated case, Data loss prevention policies is the closer match. DLP controls risky data movement based on policy conditions; labeling alone does not enforce every transmission restriction.
C:Inspect policy indicators, generated alerts, case evidence and role-controlled access. This item belongs to a different control area: Insider risk management. Its appropriate purpose is: Insider risk policies correlate relevant insider indicators; they do not authorize indiscriminate surveillance or replace privacy and employment policy. For the stated case, Data loss prevention policies is the closer match. DLP controls risky data movement based on policy conditions; labeling alone does not enforce every transmission restriction.
D:Inspect assessments, improvement actions, assigned owners and uploaded evidence. This item belongs to a different control area: Compliance Manager. Its appropriate purpose is: Compliance Manager maps control activities and improvements; it does not automatically guarantee legal compliance. For the stated case, Data loss prevention policies is the closer match. DLP controls risky data movement based on policy conditions; labeling alone does not enforce every transmission restriction.
Question 243
A legal office has repeated reverse-proxy phishing attempts against password-based logins. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.
- Use Microsoft Entra entitlement management access packages with governed request, approval and expiration rules.
- The workload accesses only the granted resource and no static application credential is embedded in code.
- Inspect included and excluded users, target apps, conditions and report-only evaluation logs.
- Inspect registered passkey credentials, permitted authentication-method settings and sign-in method details.
- Offer phishing-resistant FIDO2 passkey authentication with supported Microsoft Entra methods.
Explanation
Correct Answers
D:Inspect registered passkey credentials, permitted authentication-method settings and sign-in method details. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. FIDO2 passkeys bind authentication to the legitimate relying party and resist credential phishing more effectively than SMS codes.
E:Offer phishing-resistant FIDO2 passkey authentication with supported Microsoft Entra methods. This is the directly applicable response. FIDO2 passkeys bind authentication to the legitimate relying party and resist credential phishing more effectively than SMS codes.
Incorrect Answers
A:Use Microsoft Entra entitlement management access packages with governed request, approval and expiration rules. This item belongs to a different control area: Entitlement management access packages. Its appropriate purpose is: Entitlement management standardizes access bundles and access-request governance for groups, apps and sites. For the stated case, Passkeys and FIDO2 is the closer match. FIDO2 passkeys bind authentication to the legitimate relying party and resist credential phishing more effectively than SMS codes.
B:The workload accesses only the granted resource and no static application credential is embedded in code. This item belongs to a different control area: Managed identities. Its appropriate purpose is: Managed identities remove workload credential handling for supported Azure resources but still require appropriate authorization. For the stated case, Passkeys and FIDO2 is the closer match. FIDO2 passkeys bind authentication to the legitimate relying party and resist credential phishing more effectively than SMS codes.
C:Inspect included and excluded users, target apps, conditions and report-only evaluation logs. This item belongs to a different control area: Conditional Access application targeting. Its appropriate purpose is: A policy should be tested for targeted principals and applications, with emergency-access exclusions where appropriate. For the stated case, Passkeys and FIDO2 is the closer match. FIDO2 passkeys bind authentication to the legitimate relying party and resist credential phishing more effectively than SMS codes.
Question 244
A compliance group needs a catalog of cloud apps employees access outside the approved list. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.
- Inspect discovered app inventory, traffic evidence and application risk scores.
- Use security policies, standards and recommendations to drive governed cloud configuration hardening.
- Inspect vault secrets, access configuration, audit logs and consuming identity permissions.
- Use Microsoft Defender for Cloud Apps discovery to identify and assess cloud applications used by the organization.
- Test events meeting detection criteria produce expected alerts or incidents without overwhelming false positives.
Explanation
Correct Answers
A:Inspect discovered app inventory, traffic evidence and application risk scores. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Cloud app discovery assesses shadow IT usage, not the same task as investigating on-premises domain controller compromise.
D:Use Microsoft Defender for Cloud Apps discovery to identify and assess cloud applications used by the organization. This is the directly applicable response. Cloud app discovery assesses shadow IT usage, not the same task as investigating on-premises domain controller compromise.
Incorrect Answers
B:Use security policies, standards and recommendations to drive governed cloud configuration hardening. This item belongs to a different control area: Cloud security policies and recommendations. Its appropriate purpose is: A recommendation identifies a technical improvement; a documented policy or assigned standard provides expectations for assessed resources. For the stated case, Defender for Cloud Apps discovery is the closer match. Cloud app discovery assesses shadow IT usage, not the same task as investigating on-premises domain controller compromise.
C:Inspect vault secrets, access configuration, audit logs and consuming identity permissions. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure Key Vault secrets. Its appropriate purpose is: Key Vault manages keys, secrets and certificates; it is not a general-purpose file storage or SIEM service. For the stated case, Defender for Cloud Apps discovery is the closer match. Cloud app discovery assesses shadow IT usage, not the same task as investigating on-premises domain controller compromise.
E:Test events meeting detection criteria produce expected alerts or incidents without overwhelming false positives. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Sentinel analytics rules. Its appropriate purpose is: Sentinel analytics rules evaluate telemetry to raise detections; collecting logs alone is insufficient to identify a defined pattern. For the stated case, Defender for Cloud Apps discovery is the closer match. Cloud app discovery assesses shadow IT usage, not the same task as investigating on-premises domain controller compromise.
Question 245
A healthcare tenant wants to assign owners for privacy assessment control improvements. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?
- A privacy review can explain how personal information is governed and how customers exercise supported data controls.
- Assessment owners can see outstanding control work, evidence and completion status for the chosen framework.
- Authorized reviewers can identify where labeled or classified items reside in supported data locations.
- The analyst can trace relevant label or DLP activity to an auditable event record.
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:Assessment owners can see outstanding control work, evidence and completion status for the chosen framework. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. Compliance Manager maps control activities and improvements; it does not automatically guarantee legal compliance.
Incorrect Answers
A:A privacy review can explain how personal information is governed and how customers exercise supported data controls. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft privacy principles. Its appropriate purpose is: Privacy principles guide responsible data handling and transparency; they do not automatically classify every document. For the stated case, Compliance Manager is the closer match. Compliance Manager maps control activities and improvements; it does not automatically guarantee legal compliance.
C:Authorized reviewers can identify where labeled or classified items reside in supported data locations. This item belongs to a different control area: Content explorer. Its appropriate purpose is: Content explorer helps inspect classified data inventory; Activity explorer focuses on actions and activity history. For the stated case, Compliance Manager is the closer match. Compliance Manager maps control activities and improvements; it does not automatically guarantee legal compliance.
D:The analyst can trace relevant label or DLP activity to an auditable event record. This item belongs to a different control area: Activity explorer. Its appropriate purpose is: Activity explorer focuses on what happened to data, unlike Content explorer's inventory of classified content. For the stated case, Compliance Manager is the closer match. Compliance Manager maps control activities and improvements; it does not automatically guarantee legal compliance.
Question 246
A finance employee receives a phishing email containing a credential-stealing website link. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?
- Supported malicious link access is blocked or warned according to the configured policy.
- An authorized workload retrieves the secret while unauthorized principals are denied and access is logged.
- Security owners see prioritized exposures and applicable workload detections in the expected scope.
- An analyst can reconstruct the incident sequence and document an evidence-based disposition.
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:Supported malicious link access is blocked or warned according to the configured policy. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. Safe Links addresses URL-based threats; it does not inspect attached files for malware.
Incorrect Answers
B:An authorized workload retrieves the secret while unauthorized principals are denied and access is logged. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure Key Vault secrets. Its appropriate purpose is: Key Vault manages keys, secrets and certificates; it is not a general-purpose file storage or SIEM service. For the stated case, Defender for Office 365 Safe Links is the closer match. Safe Links addresses URL-based threats; it does not inspect attached files for malware.
C:Security owners see prioritized exposures and applicable workload detections in the expected scope. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Cloud unified security posture. Its appropriate purpose is: Defender for Cloud combines CSPM and cloud workload protection capabilities; it is not the same as a single network security group. For the stated case, Defender for Office 365 Safe Links is the closer match. Safe Links addresses URL-based threats; it does not inspect attached files for malware.
D:An analyst can reconstruct the incident sequence and document an evidence-based disposition. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Sentinel incident investigation. Its appropriate purpose is: Incident management helps investigate and coordinate alerts; it differs from automatic enforcement through a playbook. For the stated case, Defender for Office 365 Safe Links is the closer match. Safe Links addresses URL-based threats; it does not inspect attached files for malware.
Question 247
An auditor needs to examine where sensitive information types occur in supported content stores. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?
- Apply Microsoft's published privacy principles when assessing transparency, control and responsible handling of personal data.
- Use Microsoft Purview Content explorer to examine classified content locations and relevant item details with proper roles.
- Use the Microsoft Service Trust Portal to retrieve available Microsoft compliance, audit and trust-related documentation.
- Use the compliance score in Microsoft Purview Compliance Manager as a progress indicator for assessed improvement actions.
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:Use Microsoft Purview Content explorer to examine classified content locations and relevant item details with proper roles. This is the directly applicable response. Content explorer helps inspect classified data inventory; Activity explorer focuses on actions and activity history.
Incorrect Answers
A:Apply Microsoft's published privacy principles when assessing transparency, control and responsible handling of personal data. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft privacy principles. Its appropriate purpose is: Privacy principles guide responsible data handling and transparency; they do not automatically classify every document. For the stated case, Content explorer is the closer match. Content explorer helps inspect classified data inventory; Activity explorer focuses on actions and activity history.
C:Use the Microsoft Service Trust Portal to retrieve available Microsoft compliance, audit and trust-related documentation. This item belongs to a different control area: Service Trust Portal. Its appropriate purpose is: The Service Trust Portal offers Microsoft service assurance resources; customers remain responsible for their own compliance obligations. For the stated case, Content explorer is the closer match. Content explorer helps inspect classified data inventory; Activity explorer focuses on actions and activity history.
D:Use the compliance score in Microsoft Purview Compliance Manager as a progress indicator for assessed improvement actions. This item belongs to a different control area: Compliance score. Its appropriate purpose is: Compliance score measures tracked improvement progress; it is not a universal regulatory certification or breach-risk guarantee. For the stated case, Content explorer is the closer match. Content explorer helps inspect classified data inventory; Activity explorer focuses on actions and activity history.
Question 248
An administrator seeks a controlled way to connect to management endpoints inside a VNet. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?
- Use Defender for Cloud regulatory compliance views to map cloud resource findings to applicable standards.
- Use Azure Bastion to reach supported Azure VMs over RDP or SSH without exposing public management ports directly.
- Use Microsoft Defender for Identity to detect suspicious identity activity involving supported on-premises Active Directory environments.
- Use supported Defender for Cloud Apps Conditional Access App Control session controls for cloud app activity when configured.
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:Use Azure Bastion to reach supported Azure VMs over RDP or SSH without exposing public management ports directly. This is the directly applicable response. Bastion supplies browser- or client-mediated secure VM management access; it is not a DDoS service.
Incorrect Answers
A:Use Defender for Cloud regulatory compliance views to map cloud resource findings to applicable standards. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Cloud regulatory compliance. Its appropriate purpose is: Regulatory compliance views relate assessed technical controls to frameworks; they do not by themselves certify organizational legal compliance. For the stated case, Azure Bastion is the closer match. Bastion supplies browser- or client-mediated secure VM management access; it is not a DDoS service.
C:Use Microsoft Defender for Identity to detect suspicious identity activity involving supported on-premises Active Directory environments. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Identity. Its appropriate purpose is: Defender for Identity monitors on-premises identity threats and domain controller signals; it is not a cloud app SaaS discovery catalog. For the stated case, Azure Bastion is the closer match. Bastion supplies browser- or client-mediated secure VM management access; it is not a DDoS service.
D:Use supported Defender for Cloud Apps Conditional Access App Control session controls for cloud app activity when configured. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Cloud Apps session controls. Its appropriate purpose is: Session controls provide real-time governance of supported cloud app activities; discovery alone does not enforce session behaviors. For the stated case, Azure Bastion is the closer match. Bastion supplies browser- or client-mediated secure VM management access; it is not a DDoS service.
Question 249
A web API faces malicious requests aimed at application vulnerabilities rather than network saturation. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?
- Configure Microsoft Sentinel analytics rules to detect defined suspicious patterns in ingested security data.
- Use Microsoft Defender XDR to correlate incidents and signals across supported Microsoft security products.
- Use Defender for Office 365 Safe Links policies to evaluate and protect users from malicious links in supported email and collaboration scenarios.
- Apply Azure Web Application Firewall to inspect HTTP and HTTPS requests for common web-application attacks.
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:Apply Azure Web Application Firewall to inspect HTTP and HTTPS requests for common web-application attacks. This is the directly applicable response. A WAF targets application-layer HTTP risks such as injection, unlike basic network port filtering.
Incorrect Answers
A:Configure Microsoft Sentinel analytics rules to detect defined suspicious patterns in ingested security data. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Sentinel analytics rules. Its appropriate purpose is: Sentinel analytics rules evaluate telemetry to raise detections; collecting logs alone is insufficient to identify a defined pattern. For the stated case, Azure Web Application Firewall is the closer match. A WAF targets application-layer HTTP risks such as injection, unlike basic network port filtering.
B:Use Microsoft Defender XDR to correlate incidents and signals across supported Microsoft security products. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Defender XDR unified incidents. Its appropriate purpose is: Defender XDR correlates detections across product domains; it does not replace storage of encryption keys or data retention governance. For the stated case, Azure Web Application Firewall is the closer match. A WAF targets application-layer HTTP risks such as injection, unlike basic network port filtering.
C:Use Defender for Office 365 Safe Links policies to evaluate and protect users from malicious links in supported email and collaboration scenarios. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Office 365 Safe Links. Its appropriate purpose is: Safe Links addresses URL-based threats; it does not inspect attached files for malware. For the stated case, Azure Web Application Firewall is the closer match. A WAF targets application-layer HTTP risks such as injection, unlike basic network port filtering.
Question 250
An enterprise wants a consolidated incident view across identities, devices and email threats. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?
- Related endpoint, identity and email signals appear together in a coordinated investigation.
- An analyst can reconstruct the incident sequence and document an evidence-based disposition.
- Traffic paths honor the intended segment boundaries and only deliberately connected networks can communicate.
- The approved service can use the intended material and unauthorized key operations are refused.
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:Related endpoint, identity and email signals appear together in a coordinated investigation. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. Defender XDR correlates detections across product domains; it does not replace storage of encryption keys or data retention governance.
Incorrect Answers
B:An analyst can reconstruct the incident sequence and document an evidence-based disposition. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Sentinel incident investigation. Its appropriate purpose is: Incident management helps investigate and coordinate alerts; it differs from automatic enforcement through a playbook. For the stated case, Microsoft Defender XDR unified incidents is the closer match. Defender XDR correlates detections across product domains; it does not replace storage of encryption keys or data retention governance.
C:Traffic paths honor the intended segment boundaries and only deliberately connected networks can communicate. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure virtual network segmentation. Its appropriate purpose is: Virtual networks provide logical network isolation; separate security policies may still be needed to limit allowed flows. For the stated case, Microsoft Defender XDR unified incidents is the closer match. Defender XDR correlates detections across product domains; it does not replace storage of encryption keys or data retention governance.
D:The approved service can use the intended material and unauthorized key operations are refused. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure Key Vault keys and certificates. Its appropriate purpose is: Key Vault supports cryptographic key and certificate lifecycle; secret storage alone is not a substitute for proper key policy. For the stated case, Microsoft Defender XDR unified incidents is the closer match. Defender XDR correlates detections across product domains; it does not replace storage of encryption keys or data retention governance.