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Cisco 350-701 Practice Test 6

Question 50

A vendor invoice arrives from a near-match domain and requests immediate wire transfer to an unknown bank. Which Cisco security control or operational response BEST addresses the stated need?

  1. Verify payment or access-change requests through an independently established channel and enforce dual approval for high-impact changes.
  2. Treat retrieved pages, documents, and tool responses as untrusted data and enforce tool authorization outside model-generated instructions.
  3. Validate peer identity with a trusted certificate chain, correct hostname, certificate validity, and appropriate TLS policy before exchanging sensitive data.
  4. Combine suspicious message reporting, web destination inspection, reputation controls, and user training with enforceable authentication policies.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Verify payment or access-change requests through an independently established channel and enforce dual approval for high-impact changes. This control addresses the failure mechanism and narrows the enforcement boundary. A convincing display name or reply chain does not prove a sender can authorize sensitive financial and access changes. Confirm pre-change conditions using: Review message authentication results, sender/domain similarities, original contact directory, transaction changes, and escalation records. Situation: A vendor invoice arrives from a near-match domain and requests immediate wire transfer to an unknown bank.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Treat retrieved pages, documents, and tool responses as untrusted data and enforce tool authorization outside model-generated instructions. This response applies to Prompt injection trust boundary, not the controlling requirement in this case. Prompt injection occurs when lower-trust content is promoted to instruction authority; blocking unsafe tool effects requires enforcement beyond prompt wording. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Verify payment or access-change requests through an independently established channel and enforce dual approval for high-impact changes. Situation: A vendor invoice arrives from a near-match domain and requests immediate wire transfer to an unknown bank.

C:

Validate peer identity with a trusted certificate chain, correct hostname, certificate validity, and appropriate TLS policy before exchanging sensitive data. This response applies to TLS certificate authentication and PKI, not the controlling requirement in this case. Encryption without authenticated identity does not rule out interception; certificates bind a public key to a verified name under a trust chain. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Verify payment or access-change requests through an independently established channel and enforce dual approval for high-impact changes. Situation: A vendor invoice arrives from a near-match domain and requests immediate wire transfer to an unknown bank.

D:

Combine suspicious message reporting, web destination inspection, reputation controls, and user training with enforceable authentication policies. This response applies to Phishing containment and domain verification, not the controlling requirement in this case. A secure email channel and DNS/web controls reduce exposure but cannot certify that every newly registered domain is benign. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Verify payment or access-change requests through an independently established channel and enforce dual approval for high-impact changes. Situation: A vendor invoice arrives from a near-match domain and requests immediate wire transfer to an unknown bank.

Question 51

A site VPN shows repeated authentication failure despite clear IP reachability to the remote headend. Which observed result BEST confirms that the security requirement is met?

  1. The corrected handshake establishes valid security associations without weakening approved encryption or authentication standards.
  2. A controlled application probe increments appropriate encrypt/decrypt counters on both peers and succeeds in both directions.
  3. Offers from an unauthorized user port are dropped while legitimate clients receive leases and bindings are learned.
  4. Unauthorized connections are denied while known hostile payloads are detected by the intended inline intrusion policy without unrelated outages.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

The corrected handshake establishes valid security associations without weakening approved encryption or authentication standards. This is an observable acceptance condition, rather than an assumption that enabling a feature alone proves security. Tunnel establishment progresses through distinct authentication and negotiation stages; changing unrelated firewall rules cannot fix mismatched proposals. Situation: A site VPN shows repeated authentication failure despite clear IP reachability to the remote headend.

Incorrect Answers

B:

A controlled application probe increments appropriate encrypt/decrypt counters on both peers and succeeds in both directions. This outcome tests FTD VPN up but no protected data and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: The corrected handshake establishes valid security associations without weakening approved encryption or authentication standards. Situation: A site VPN shows repeated authentication failure despite clear IP reachability to the remote headend.

C:

Offers from an unauthorized user port are dropped while legitimate clients receive leases and bindings are learned. This outcome tests DHCP snooping trust and rogue server control and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: The corrected handshake establishes valid security associations without weakening approved encryption or authentication standards. Situation: A site VPN shows repeated authentication failure despite clear IP reachability to the remote headend.

D:

Unauthorized connections are denied while known hostile payloads are detected by the intended inline intrusion policy without unrelated outages. This outcome tests Stateful firewall and IPS placement and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: The corrected handshake establishes valid security associations without weakening approved encryption or authentication standards. Situation: A site VPN shows repeated authentication failure despite clear IP reachability to the remote headend.

Question 52

A contractor accessing a payroll dashboard from an unknown device receives only the policy intended for regular employees. Which TWO complementary steps provide the most defensible remediation and its supporting assessment? Select TWO.

  1. Enforce appropriate Cisco Duo MFA and device trust checks for protected applications, considering user role and device security status.
  2. A linked multi-source incident supports proportional containment with evidence from affected devices and services.
  3. Inspect SSO federation setup, conditional access rules, authenticator strength, location signals, and Duo activity logs.
  4. Inspect EAP exchange, authentication method, RADIUS reachability, certificate trust, network device identity, and authorization result.
  5. Use Cisco Duo SSO and Adaptive Access to apply policy based on user group, application sensitivity, location or risk, and device health where supported.

Explanation

Correct Answers

C:

Inspect SSO federation setup, conditional access rules, authenticator strength, location signals, and Duo activity logs. This checks the relevant condition before an engineer modifies production access or detection behavior. Single sign-on simplifies authentication flow but does not mean every connected application should share identical authorization and risk policy. The controlled response would be: Use Cisco Duo SSO and Adaptive Access to apply policy based on user group, application sensitivity, location or risk, and device health where supported. This supplies the diagnostic evidence needed for the complementary action. Situation: A contractor accessing a payroll dashboard from an unknown device receives only the policy intended for regular employees.

E:

Use Cisco Duo SSO and Adaptive Access to apply policy based on user group, application sensitivity, location or risk, and device health where supported. This control addresses the failure mechanism and narrows the enforcement boundary. Single sign-on simplifies authentication flow but does not mean every connected application should share identical authorization and risk policy. Confirm pre-change conditions using: Inspect SSO federation setup, conditional access rules, authenticator strength, location signals, and Duo activity logs. This is the implementation portion of the complementary pair. Situation: A contractor accessing a payroll dashboard from an unknown device receives only the policy intended for regular employees.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Enforce appropriate Cisco Duo MFA and device trust checks for protected applications, considering user role and device security status. This step could matter for Cisco Duo multifactor and device trust policy but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Use Cisco Duo SSO and Adaptive Access to apply policy based on user group, application sensitivity, location or risk, and device health where supported. and Inspect SSO federation setup, conditional access rules, authenticator strength, location signals, and Duo activity logs. Situation: A contractor accessing a payroll dashboard from an unknown device receives only the policy intended for regular employees.

B:

A linked multi-source incident supports proportional containment with evidence from affected devices and services. This step could matter for Cisco XDR cross-source incident correlation but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Use Cisco Duo SSO and Adaptive Access to apply policy based on user group, application sensitivity, location or risk, and device health where supported. and Inspect SSO federation setup, conditional access rules, authenticator strength, location signals, and Duo activity logs. Situation: A contractor accessing a payroll dashboard from an unknown device receives only the policy intended for regular employees.

D:

Inspect EAP exchange, authentication method, RADIUS reachability, certificate trust, network device identity, and authorization result. This step could matter for 802.1X port-based access with Cisco ISE but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Use Cisco Duo SSO and Adaptive Access to apply policy based on user group, application sensitivity, location or risk, and device health where supported. and Inspect SSO federation setup, conditional access rules, authenticator strength, location signals, and Duo activity logs. Situation: A contractor accessing a payroll dashboard from an unknown device receives only the policy intended for regular employees.

Question 53

A workstation sends thousands of long random-looking DNS queries to one newly registered external domain. Before changing security policy, what evidence should the engineer examine FIRST?

  1. Inspect queried subdomain patterns, TXT requests, query response rates, domain age, and originating host process.
  2. Inspect event schemas, correlation rules, playbook triggers, action scopes, approvals, and error-handling logs.
  3. Inspect flow byte asymmetry, SaaS tenant, DLP events, process initiator, upload time, and user job role.
  4. Inspect known endpoint MAC registrations, profiling data, switch authentication order, RADIUS policy, and allowed destination flows.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Inspect queried subdomain patterns, TXT requests, query response rates, domain age, and originating host process. This checks the relevant condition before an engineer modifies production access or detection behavior. DNS is a name-resolution protocol but can carry encoded data in labels or answers; unusual queries require contextual analysis to avoid false positives. The controlled response would be: Identify suspicious DNS-based data movement using query entropy, length, volume, domain ownership, and endpoint context before containment. Situation: A workstation sends thousands of long random-looking DNS queries to one newly registered external domain.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Inspect event schemas, correlation rules, playbook triggers, action scopes, approvals, and error-handling logs. This evidence addresses SIEM and SOAR workflow distinction; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect queried subdomain patterns, TXT requests, query response rates, domain age, and originating host process. Situation: A workstation sends thousands of long random-looking DNS queries to one newly registered external domain.

C:

Inspect flow byte asymmetry, SaaS tenant, DLP events, process initiator, upload time, and user job role. This evidence addresses HTTPS and cloud-storage exfiltration containment; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect queried subdomain patterns, TXT requests, query response rates, domain age, and originating host process. Situation: A workstation sends thousands of long random-looking DNS queries to one newly registered external domain.

D:

Inspect known endpoint MAC registrations, profiling data, switch authentication order, RADIUS policy, and allowed destination flows. This evidence addresses MAB fallback and printer restriction; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect queried subdomain patterns, TXT requests, query response rates, domain age, and originating host process. Situation: A workstation sends thousands of long random-looking DNS queries to one newly registered external domain.

Question 54

A payment network needs an inline prevention device but cannot tolerate an unexpected single-point failure during business hours. Which observed result BEST confirms that the security requirement is met?

  1. Shared approved rules deploy consistently across devices and local exceptions remain tracked without uncontrolled divergence.
  2. The corrected handshake establishes valid security associations without weakening approved encryption or authentication standards.
  3. A simulated sensor failure follows the approved availability policy and exploit test traffic is blocked only when inspection is actually inline.
  4. Unauthorized connections are denied while known hostile payloads are detected by the intended inline intrusion policy without unrelated outages.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A simulated sensor failure follows the approved availability policy and exploit test traffic is blocked only when inspection is actually inline. This is an observable acceptance condition, rather than an assumption that enabling a feature alone proves security. Inline IPS can interrupt malicious traffic but insertion into a critical path requires planned high availability and transparent failure decisions. Situation: A payment network needs an inline prevention device but cannot tolerate an unexpected single-point failure during business hours.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Shared approved rules deploy consistently across devices and local exceptions remain tracked without uncontrolled divergence. This outcome tests Centralized firewall manager versus local control and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: A simulated sensor failure follows the approved availability policy and exploit test traffic is blocked only when inspection is actually inline. Situation: A payment network needs an inline prevention device but cannot tolerate an unexpected single-point failure during business hours.

B:

The corrected handshake establishes valid security associations without weakening approved encryption or authentication standards. This outcome tests FTD IKE negotiation failure isolation and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: A simulated sensor failure follows the approved availability policy and exploit test traffic is blocked only when inspection is actually inline. Situation: A payment network needs an inline prevention device but cannot tolerate an unexpected single-point failure during business hours.

D:

Unauthorized connections are denied while known hostile payloads are detected by the intended inline intrusion policy without unrelated outages. This outcome tests Stateful firewall and IPS placement and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: A simulated sensor failure follows the approved availability policy and exploit test traffic is blocked only when inspection is actually inline. Situation: A payment network needs an inline prevention device but cannot tolerate an unexpected single-point failure during business hours.

Question 55

An agency needs shared community infrastructure but must retain documented responsibility for tenant access. Which observed result BEST confirms that the security requirement is met?

  1. External guests cannot read restricted resources and an integration token cannot access unrelated customer tenants.
  2. Users reach authorized cloud services while prohibited sharing patterns and unsanctioned SaaS activity are identified.
  3. A changed unsigned image or privileged unexpected workload is blocked from the approved deployment process.
  4. A test cloud privilege escalation is detected with linked sign-in and API activity rather than isolated low-context alerts.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Users reach authorized cloud services while prohibited sharing patterns and unsanctioned SaaS activity are identified. This is an observable acceptance condition, rather than an assumption that enabling a feature alone proves security. A CASB adds visibility and policy to cloud application usage; deployment model choice alone does not establish data governance. Situation: An agency needs shared community infrastructure but must retain documented responsibility for tenant access.

Incorrect Answers

A:

External guests cannot read restricted resources and an integration token cannot access unrelated customer tenants. This outcome tests SaaS configuration and tenant boundary protection and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: Users reach authorized cloud services while prohibited sharing patterns and unsanctioned SaaS activity are identified. Situation: An agency needs shared community infrastructure but must retain documented responsibility for tenant access.

C:

A changed unsigned image or privileged unexpected workload is blocked from the approved deployment process. This outcome tests Container workload identity and image governance and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: Users reach authorized cloud services while prohibited sharing patterns and unsanctioned SaaS activity are identified. Situation: An agency needs shared community infrastructure but must retain documented responsibility for tenant access.

D:

A test cloud privilege escalation is detected with linked sign-in and API activity rather than isolated low-context alerts. This outcome tests Splunk detection correlation across cloud feeds and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: Users reach authorized cloud services while prohibited sharing patterns and unsanctioned SaaS activity are identified. Situation: An agency needs shared community infrastructure but must retain documented responsibility for tenant access.

Question 56

An analyst finds a malware alert for a file already deleted and needs to determine which other hosts executed it. Which TWO complementary steps provide the most defensible remediation and its supporting assessment? Select TWO.

  1. Inspect original file hash, current cloud disposition, execution history, file trajectory, and response capability.
  2. Configure Cisco Secure Endpoint policy groups, detection and blocking settings, and connector deployment aligned to host risk.
  3. Respond to changing file disposition by tracing historical file activity and isolating or remediating affected endpoints where warranted.
  4. The deployment achieves its declared pre-delivery or post-delivery protection without claiming a journaling-only path is an inline SMTP gateway.
  5. Inspect disposition change, prevalence, isolation status, affected host roles, event sequence, and unresolved detections.

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

Inspect original file hash, current cloud disposition, execution history, file trajectory, and response capability. This checks the relevant condition before an engineer modifies production access or detection behavior. Cloud malware intelligence can change a file verdict after initial observation; earlier clean classification should not prevent retrospective investigation. The controlled response would be: Respond to changing file disposition by tracing historical file activity and isolating or remediating affected endpoints where warranted. This supplies the diagnostic evidence needed for the complementary action. Situation: An analyst finds a malware alert for a file already deleted and needs to determine which other hosts executed it.

C:

Respond to changing file disposition by tracing historical file activity and isolating or remediating affected endpoints where warranted. This control addresses the failure mechanism and narrows the enforcement boundary. Cloud malware intelligence can change a file verdict after initial observation; earlier clean classification should not prevent retrospective investigation. Confirm pre-change conditions using: Inspect original file hash, current cloud disposition, execution history, file trajectory, and response capability. This is the implementation portion of the complementary pair. Situation: An analyst finds a malware alert for a file already deleted and needs to determine which other hosts executed it.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Configure Cisco Secure Endpoint policy groups, detection and blocking settings, and connector deployment aligned to host risk. This step could matter for Cisco Secure Endpoint antimalware policy but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Respond to changing file disposition by tracing historical file activity and isolating or remediating affected endpoints where warranted. and Inspect original file hash, current cloud disposition, execution history, file trajectory, and response capability. Situation: An analyst finds a malware alert for a file already deleted and needs to determine which other hosts executed it.

D:

The deployment achieves its declared pre-delivery or post-delivery protection without claiming a journaling-only path is an inline SMTP gateway. This step could matter for Email Threat Defense deployment mode selection but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Respond to changing file disposition by tracing historical file activity and isolating or remediating affected endpoints where warranted. and Inspect original file hash, current cloud disposition, execution history, file trajectory, and response capability. Situation: An analyst finds a malware alert for a file already deleted and needs to determine which other hosts executed it.

E:

Inspect disposition change, prevalence, isolation status, affected host roles, event sequence, and unresolved detections. This step could matter for Endpoint malware event prioritization but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Respond to changing file disposition by tracing historical file activity and isolating or remediating affected endpoints where warranted. and Inspect original file hash, current cloud disposition, execution history, file trajectory, and response capability. Situation: An analyst finds a malware alert for a file already deleted and needs to determine which other hosts executed it.

Question 57

An administrator receives a push notification she did not initiate after a supplier email requests account verification. Which Cisco security control or operational response BEST addresses the stated need?

  1. Require phishing-resistant multifactor sign-in for sensitive accounts and investigate unusual authentication patterns before accepting credentials as trusted.
  2. Implement safe automation with pre-change state capture, idempotent desired configuration, audit records, and validation after deployment.
  3. Constrain compromised API credentials through scoped permissions, rotation, behavior alerts, and incident review rather than assuming encrypted transport prevents misuse.
  4. Curate indicators with source confidence, freshness, context, and expiration before distributing to enforcement and investigation tools.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Require phishing-resistant multifactor sign-in for sensitive accounts and investigate unusual authentication patterns before accepting credentials as trusted. This control addresses the failure mechanism and narrows the enforcement boundary. Phishing harvests authentication material; contextual verification and phishing-resistant authenticators reduce credential replay risk without proving all messages are safe. Confirm pre-change conditions using: Inspect sender and destination mismatch, sign-in geography, authentication strength, new device enrollment, and user-reported prompts. Situation: An administrator receives a push notification she did not initiate after a supplier email requests account verification.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Implement safe automation with pre-change state capture, idempotent desired configuration, audit records, and validation after deployment. This response applies to Idempotent policy automation and rollback, not the controlling requirement in this case. Blind retries of security policy POST requests can create duplicate or contradictory rules; idempotency and change tracking protect consistency. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Require phishing-resistant multifactor sign-in for sensitive accounts and investigate unusual authentication patterns before accepting credentials as trusted. Situation: An administrator receives a push notification she did not initiate after a supplier email requests account verification.

C:

Constrain compromised API credentials through scoped permissions, rotation, behavior alerts, and incident review rather than assuming encrypted transport prevents misuse. This response applies to Cloud API breach and lateral movement, not the controlling requirement in this case. Encryption in transit protects a channel but does not limit an authorized-looking API request carrying a stolen bearer token. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Require phishing-resistant multifactor sign-in for sensitive accounts and investigate unusual authentication patterns before accepting credentials as trusted. Situation: An administrator receives a push notification she did not initiate after a supplier email requests account verification.

D:

Curate indicators with source confidence, freshness, context, and expiration before distributing to enforcement and investigation tools. This response applies to Threat intelligence indicator lifecycle, not the controlling requirement in this case. Threat indicators are leads with changing confidence, not immutable proof that every matching host is compromised. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Require phishing-resistant multifactor sign-in for sensitive accounts and investigate unusual authentication patterns before accepting credentials as trusted. Situation: An administrator receives a push notification she did not initiate after a supplier email requests account verification.

Question 58

A newly registered domain scores near the medium-risk boundary but is used by an approved vendor after a documented migration. Which observed result BEST confirms that the security requirement is met?

  1. A suspicious destination is associated with affected users and a tested response without sweeping unrelated shared cloud infrastructure.
  2. An approved web app remains reachable while a test prohibited destination produces an attributable deny event.
  3. High-risk destinations receive contextual response while low-risk but confirmed malicious domains are not automatically ignored.
  4. A failover test maintains authorized access and a broken backend is diagnosed without broadly opening the private network.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

High-risk destinations receive contextual response while low-risk but confirmed malicious domains are not automatically ignored. This is an observable acceptance condition, rather than an assumption that enabling a feature alone proves security. Cisco Secure Access Investigate risk scores combine indicators; a score is decision support and not a sole definitive compromise verdict. Situation: A newly registered domain scores near the medium-risk boundary but is used by an approved vendor after a documented migration.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A suspicious destination is associated with affected users and a tested response without sweeping unrelated shared cloud infrastructure. This outcome tests Investigate infrastructure attribution and false positives and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: High-risk destinations receive contextual response while low-risk but confirmed malicious domains are not automatically ignored. Situation: A newly registered domain scores near the medium-risk boundary but is used by an approved vendor after a documented migration.

B:

An approved web app remains reachable while a test prohibited destination produces an attributable deny event. This outcome tests Cisco Secure Access internet use policy and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: High-risk destinations receive contextual response while low-risk but confirmed malicious domains are not automatically ignored. Situation: A newly registered domain scores near the medium-risk boundary but is used by an approved vendor after a documented migration.

D:

A failover test maintains authorized access and a broken backend is diagnosed without broadly opening the private network. This outcome tests Private app connector resilience and troubleshooting and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: High-risk destinations receive contextual response while low-risk but confirmed malicious domains are not automatically ignored. Situation: A newly registered domain scores near the medium-risk boundary but is used by an approved vendor after a documented migration.

Question 59

A site-to-site tunnel intermittently fails when one peer changes its encryption proposal without updating the other. Which Cisco security control or operational response BEST addresses the stated need?

  1. Constrain compromised API credentials through scoped permissions, rotation, behavior alerts, and incident review rather than assuming encrypted transport prevents misuse.
  2. Prevent SQL injection by separating untrusted field values from query structure using parameter binding and constrained database privileges.
  3. Validate peer identity with a trusted certificate chain, correct hostname, certificate validity, and appropriate TLS policy before exchanging sensitive data.
  4. Use negotiated IKE/IPsec proposals with matching identities and selectors, and enable appropriate UDP encapsulation when NAT disrupts ESP carriage.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Use negotiated IKE/IPsec proposals with matching identities and selectors, and enable appropriate UDP encapsulation when NAT disrupts ESP carriage. This control addresses the failure mechanism and narrows the enforcement boundary. NAT traversal commonly encapsulates ESP over UDP 4500; a successful IKE handshake alone does not prove data-plane IPsec traffic passes. Confirm pre-change conditions using: Inspect IKE proposal mismatches, pre-shared or certificate identity, UDP 500 or 4500 reachability, NAT detection, and phase negotiation logs. Situation: A site-to-site tunnel intermittently fails when one peer changes its encryption proposal without updating the other.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Constrain compromised API credentials through scoped permissions, rotation, behavior alerts, and incident review rather than assuming encrypted transport prevents misuse. This response applies to Cloud API breach and lateral movement, not the controlling requirement in this case. Encryption in transit protects a channel but does not limit an authorized-looking API request carrying a stolen bearer token. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Use negotiated IKE/IPsec proposals with matching identities and selectors, and enable appropriate UDP encapsulation when NAT disrupts ESP carriage. Situation: A site-to-site tunnel intermittently fails when one peer changes its encryption proposal without updating the other.

B:

Prevent SQL injection by separating untrusted field values from query structure using parameter binding and constrained database privileges. This response applies to SQL injection and parameterized queries, not the controlling requirement in this case. SQL injection exploits code/data confusion; input sanitization alone is weaker than parameterization plus least privilege. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Use negotiated IKE/IPsec proposals with matching identities and selectors, and enable appropriate UDP encapsulation when NAT disrupts ESP carriage. Situation: A site-to-site tunnel intermittently fails when one peer changes its encryption proposal without updating the other.

C:

Validate peer identity with a trusted certificate chain, correct hostname, certificate validity, and appropriate TLS policy before exchanging sensitive data. This response applies to TLS certificate authentication and PKI, not the controlling requirement in this case. Encryption without authenticated identity does not rule out interception; certificates bind a public key to a verified name under a trust chain. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Use negotiated IKE/IPsec proposals with matching identities and selectors, and enable appropriate UDP encapsulation when NAT disrupts ESP carriage. Situation: A site-to-site tunnel intermittently fails when one peer changes its encryption proposal without updating the other.

Question 60

A finance clerk receives an email impersonating a director with a no-attachment request to update bank details. Which observed result BEST confirms that the security requirement is met?

  1. The deployment achieves its declared pre-delivery or post-delivery protection without claiming a journaling-only path is an inline SMTP gateway.
  2. A suspicious attachment receives a documented risk verdict supported by observed behavior without executing it on a production endpoint.
  3. An investigator identifies first observation, related hosts, and effective remediation steps rather than confusing an alert with confirmed execution.
  4. A crafted executive impersonation email is identified and removed or blocked according to the supported deployment mode.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

A crafted executive impersonation email is identified and removed or blocked according to the supported deployment mode. This is an observable acceptance condition, rather than an assumption that enabling a feature alone proves security. Email Threat Defense uses message and behavioral context; an authenticated sender domain or clean attachment does not prove a message is safe. Situation: A finance clerk receives an email impersonating a director with a no-attachment request to update bank details.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The deployment achieves its declared pre-delivery or post-delivery protection without claiming a journaling-only path is an inline SMTP gateway. This outcome tests Email Threat Defense deployment mode selection and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: A crafted executive impersonation email is identified and removed or blocked according to the supported deployment mode. Situation: A finance clerk receives an email impersonating a director with a no-attachment request to update bank details.

B:

A suspicious attachment receives a documented risk verdict supported by observed behavior without executing it on a production endpoint. This outcome tests Cisco Secure Malware Analytics detonation evidence and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: A crafted executive impersonation email is identified and removed or blocked according to the supported deployment mode. Situation: A finance clerk receives an email impersonating a director with a no-attachment request to update bank details.

C:

An investigator identifies first observation, related hosts, and effective remediation steps rather than confusing an alert with confirmed execution. This outcome tests Secure Endpoint detection event trajectory and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: A crafted executive impersonation email is identified and removed or blocked according to the supported deployment mode. Situation: A finance clerk receives an email impersonating a director with a no-attachment request to update bank details.

Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies (350-701) Practice Tests