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Cisco 350-701 Practice Test 4

Question 30

A Secure Access private application connector is healthy yet a user is denied because its identity group is not authorized. Before changing security policy, what evidence should the engineer examine FIRST?

  1. Inspect connector registration, reachability to application backends, DNS resolution, user session logs, and connector redundancy.
  2. Inspect private app connector reachability, application FQDN or IP definitions, identity group, posture, and access decisions.
  3. Inspect client connector state, network tunnel health, identity source, route exclusions, and effective access policy.
  4. Inspect observed resolver clients, domain pivots, domain categorization, timestamps, threat indicators, and access logs.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Inspect private app connector reachability, application FQDN or IP definitions, identity group, posture, and access decisions. This checks the relevant condition before an engineer modifies production access or detection behavior. Zero-trust private access grants application-scoped connectivity; being authenticated to the cloud portal does not imply authorization to every private network. The controlled response would be: Publish approved private applications through Secure Private Access with least-privilege identity and device conditions rather than broad network tunnels. Situation: A Secure Access private application connector is healthy yet a user is denied because its identity group is not authorized.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect connector registration, reachability to application backends, DNS resolution, user session logs, and connector redundancy. This evidence addresses Private app connector resilience and troubleshooting; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect private app connector reachability, application FQDN or IP definitions, identity group, posture, and access decisions. Situation: A Secure Access private application connector is healthy yet a user is denied because its identity group is not authorized.

C:

Inspect client connector state, network tunnel health, identity source, route exclusions, and effective access policy. This evidence addresses Remote identity and traffic steering in SSE; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect private app connector reachability, application FQDN or IP definitions, identity group, posture, and access decisions. Situation: A Secure Access private application connector is healthy yet a user is denied because its identity group is not authorized.

D:

Inspect observed resolver clients, domain pivots, domain categorization, timestamps, threat indicators, and access logs. This evidence addresses Investigate infrastructure attribution and false positives; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect private app connector reachability, application FQDN or IP definitions, identity group, posture, and access decisions. Situation: A Secure Access private application connector is healthy yet a user is denied because its identity group is not authorized.

Question 31

A hosted CRM user grants broad access to sensitive leads because staff believe the SaaS provider owns all application permissions. Which observed result BEST confirms that the security requirement is met?

  1. Only documented application tiers can communicate and blocked lateral movement appears in policy evidence.
  2. A compromised workload identity cannot delete unrelated assets and changes are attributable to an approved actor.
  3. Sensitive objects remain encrypted and only approved application identities can decrypt them under documented key policy.
  4. A control checklist identifies responsible teams for patching, identities, configuration, and data even when underlying infrastructure is provider managed.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

A control checklist identifies responsible teams for patching, identities, configuration, and data even when underlying infrastructure is provider managed. This is an observable acceptance condition, rather than an assumption that enabling a feature alone proves security. Cloud providers secure their portion of the stack, but moving an application to SaaS does not eliminate the customer's identity and data obligations. Situation: A hosted CRM user grants broad access to sensitive leads because staff believe the SaaS provider owns all application permissions.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Only documented application tiers can communicate and blocked lateral movement appears in policy evidence. This outcome tests Cisco Secure Workload microsegmentation and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: A control checklist identifies responsible teams for patching, identities, configuration, and data even when underlying infrastructure is provider managed. Situation: A hosted CRM user grants broad access to sensitive leads because staff believe the SaaS provider owns all application permissions.

B:

A compromised workload identity cannot delete unrelated assets and changes are attributable to an approved actor. This outcome tests Cloud IAM least privilege and logging and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: A control checklist identifies responsible teams for patching, identities, configuration, and data even when underlying infrastructure is provider managed. Situation: A hosted CRM user grants broad access to sensitive leads because staff believe the SaaS provider owns all application permissions.

C:

Sensitive objects remain encrypted and only approved application identities can decrypt them under documented key policy. This outcome tests Cloud application encryption and key responsibility and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: A control checklist identifies responsible teams for patching, identities, configuration, and data even when underlying infrastructure is provider managed. Situation: A hosted CRM user grants broad access to sensitive leads because staff believe the SaaS provider owns all application permissions.

Question 32

A company discovers three hundred outdated laptops with no assigned owner in its endpoint platform. Which TWO complementary steps provide the most defensible remediation and its supporting assessment? Select TWO.

  1. A controlled malicious test file is detected or blocked under the intended endpoint policy while approved software remains functional.
  2. Use supported device management controls to enforce software update, application inventory, and secure configuration requirements for endpoints.
  3. Inspect installed modules, version compatibility, connector status, management profile, and identity mapping.
  4. Inspect MDM enrollment status, device serial identifiers, operating system version, policy compliance, and assigned owner.
  5. Maintain managed device inventory with ownership, encryption, update, and enrollment policies before granting enterprise application access.

Explanation

Correct Answers

D:

Inspect MDM enrollment status, device serial identifiers, operating system version, policy compliance, and assigned owner. This checks the relevant condition before an engineer modifies production access or detection behavior. A managed device inventory links technical posture to accountability; simply knowing an IP address does not establish device trust. The controlled response would be: Maintain managed device inventory with ownership, encryption, update, and enrollment policies before granting enterprise application access. This supplies the diagnostic evidence needed for the complementary action. Situation: A company discovers three hundred outdated laptops with no assigned owner in its endpoint platform.

E:

Maintain managed device inventory with ownership, encryption, update, and enrollment policies before granting enterprise application access. This control addresses the failure mechanism and narrows the enforcement boundary. A managed device inventory links technical posture to accountability; simply knowing an IP address does not establish device trust. Confirm pre-change conditions using: Inspect MDM enrollment status, device serial identifiers, operating system version, policy compliance, and assigned owner. This is the implementation portion of the complementary pair. Situation: A company discovers three hundred outdated laptops with no assigned owner in its endpoint platform.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A controlled malicious test file is detected or blocked under the intended endpoint policy while approved software remains functional. This step could matter for Cisco Secure Endpoint antimalware policy but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Maintain managed device inventory with ownership, encryption, update, and enrollment policies before granting enterprise application access. and Inspect MDM enrollment status, device serial identifiers, operating system version, policy compliance, and assigned owner. Situation: A company discovers three hundred outdated laptops with no assigned owner in its endpoint platform.

B:

Use supported device management controls to enforce software update, application inventory, and secure configuration requirements for endpoints. This step could matter for MDM application and patch compliance but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Maintain managed device inventory with ownership, encryption, update, and enrollment policies before granting enterprise application access. and Inspect MDM enrollment status, device serial identifiers, operating system version, policy compliance, and assigned owner. Situation: A company discovers three hundred outdated laptops with no assigned owner in its endpoint platform.

C:

Inspect installed modules, version compatibility, connector status, management profile, and identity mapping. This step could matter for Cisco Secure Client module and posture visibility but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Maintain managed device inventory with ownership, encryption, update, and enrollment policies before granting enterprise application access. and Inspect MDM enrollment status, device serial identifiers, operating system version, policy compliance, and assigned owner. Situation: A company discovers three hundred outdated laptops with no assigned owner in its endpoint platform.

Question 33

A firewall automation tool reads only the first page of a paginated API response and reports missing policy entries. Before changing security policy, what evidence should the engineer examine FIRST?

  1. Inspect existing policy objects, API conflict or retry responses, object identifiers, approvals, and rollback artifacts.
  2. Inspect API documentation, token scope, request headers, JSON schema, response status, and transaction logs.
  3. Review asset versions, affected component evidence, external reachability, exploit preconditions, compensating controls, and vendor advisories.
  4. Inspect sender and destination mismatch, sign-in geography, authentication strength, new device enrollment, and user-reported prompts.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Inspect API documentation, token scope, request headers, JSON schema, response status, and transaction logs. This checks the relevant condition before an engineer modifies production access or detection behavior. A script's HTTP 200 response must be interpreted with its API contract; exceptions, authentication, and payload semantics need explicit checking. The controlled response would be: Call security appliance APIs with scoped tokens, supported methods, validated payloads, and explicit handling of HTTP failures. Situation: A firewall automation tool reads only the first page of a paginated API response and reports missing policy entries.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect existing policy objects, API conflict or retry responses, object identifiers, approvals, and rollback artifacts. This evidence addresses Idempotent policy automation and rollback; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect API documentation, token scope, request headers, JSON schema, response status, and transaction logs. Situation: A firewall automation tool reads only the first page of a paginated API response and reports missing policy entries.

C:

Review asset versions, affected component evidence, external reachability, exploit preconditions, compensating controls, and vendor advisories. This evidence addresses CVE and CVSS vulnerability prioritization; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect API documentation, token scope, request headers, JSON schema, response status, and transaction logs. Situation: A firewall automation tool reads only the first page of a paginated API response and reports missing policy entries.

D:

Inspect sender and destination mismatch, sign-in geography, authentication strength, new device enrollment, and user-reported prompts. This evidence addresses Credential phishing and account takeover; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect API documentation, token scope, request headers, JSON schema, response status, and transaction logs. Situation: A firewall automation tool reads only the first page of a paginated API response and reports missing policy entries.

Question 34

A QR-code phishing campaign bypasses ordinary visible-link inspection and directs users to a credential page. Which observed result BEST confirms that the security requirement is met?

  1. An authenticated unmanaged laptop is denied restricted data despite being on the corporate Wi-Fi, while approved sessions stay scoped.
  2. Known malicious destinations are contained and exposed identities are investigated rather than relying only on awareness posters.
  3. An impostor email does not redirect supplier payments or change account settings without a separately validated authorization.
  4. A forged login page cannot grant privileged access using only a stolen password and abnormal sign-ins generate reviewable alerts.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Known malicious destinations are contained and exposed identities are investigated rather than relying only on awareness posters. This is an observable acceptance condition, rather than an assumption that enabling a feature alone proves security. A secure email channel and DNS/web controls reduce exposure but cannot certify that every newly registered domain is benign. Situation: A QR-code phishing campaign bypasses ordinary visible-link inspection and directs users to a credential page.

Incorrect Answers

A:

An authenticated unmanaged laptop is denied restricted data despite being on the corporate Wi-Fi, while approved sessions stay scoped. This outcome tests Zero trust continuous authorization and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: Known malicious destinations are contained and exposed identities are investigated rather than relying only on awareness posters. Situation: A QR-code phishing campaign bypasses ordinary visible-link inspection and directs users to a credential page.

C:

An impostor email does not redirect supplier payments or change account settings without a separately validated authorization. This outcome tests Business email compromise verification and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: Known malicious destinations are contained and exposed identities are investigated rather than relying only on awareness posters. Situation: A QR-code phishing campaign bypasses ordinary visible-link inspection and directs users to a credential page.

D:

A forged login page cannot grant privileged access using only a stolen password and abnormal sign-ins generate reviewable alerts. This outcome tests Credential phishing and account takeover and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: Known malicious destinations are contained and exposed identities are investigated rather than relying only on awareness posters. Situation: A QR-code phishing campaign bypasses ordinary visible-link inspection and directs users to a credential page.

Question 35

An analyst sees a domain scored 96 in Investigate and wants to block every related IP without checking shared hosting. Which observed result BEST confirms that the security requirement is met?

  1. Unsupported AI destinations cannot receive restricted records while authorized safe business use is distinguishable in audit logs.
  2. High-risk destinations receive contextual response while low-risk but confirmed malicious domains are not automatically ignored.
  3. A suspicious destination is associated with affected users and a tested response without sweeping unrelated shared cloud infrastructure.
  4. An approved web app remains reachable while a test prohibited destination produces an attributable deny event.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

High-risk destinations receive contextual response while low-risk but confirmed malicious domains are not automatically ignored. This is an observable acceptance condition, rather than an assumption that enabling a feature alone proves security. Cisco Secure Access Investigate risk scores combine indicators; a score is decision support and not a sole definitive compromise verdict. Situation: An analyst sees a domain scored 96 in Investigate and wants to block every related IP without checking shared hosting.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Unsupported AI destinations cannot receive restricted records while authorized safe business use is distinguishable in audit logs. This outcome tests AI application guardrails and shadow AI and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: High-risk destinations receive contextual response while low-risk but confirmed malicious domains are not automatically ignored. Situation: An analyst sees a domain scored 96 in Investigate and wants to block every related IP without checking shared hosting.

C:

A suspicious destination is associated with affected users and a tested response without sweeping unrelated shared cloud infrastructure. This outcome tests Investigate infrastructure attribution and false positives and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: High-risk destinations receive contextual response while low-risk but confirmed malicious domains are not automatically ignored. Situation: An analyst sees a domain scored 96 in Investigate and wants to block every related IP without checking shared hosting.

D:

An approved web app remains reachable while a test prohibited destination produces an attributable deny event. This outcome tests Cisco Secure Access internet use policy and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: High-risk destinations receive contextual response while low-risk but confirmed malicious domains are not automatically ignored. Situation: An analyst sees a domain scored 96 in Investigate and wants to block every related IP without checking shared hosting.

Question 36

A laptop with disabled host firewall is still granted full wired access due to an overly broad access policy. Before changing security policy, what evidence should the engineer examine FIRST?

  1. Inspect prevention rules, process telemetry, behavioral detection coverage, isolation actions, and response history.
  2. Inspect sender authentication, impersonation indications, inbound/outbound message direction, detection verdict, and remediation authorization.
  3. Inspect agent health, malware protection state, required updates, disk encryption, identity, and posture policy result.
  4. Inspect last posture evaluation time, policy change triggers, endpoint alert status, session authorization, and remediation evidence.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Inspect agent health, malware protection state, required updates, disk encryption, identity, and posture policy result. This checks the relevant condition before an engineer modifies production access or detection behavior. Posture is device health evidence used in policy; authentication alone does not guarantee an endpoint meets security baseline. The controlled response would be: Evaluate endpoint security posture before authorizing sensitive network access and establish a restricted remediation path for failed devices. Situation: A laptop with disabled host firewall is still granted full wired access due to an overly broad access policy.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect prevention rules, process telemetry, behavioral detection coverage, isolation actions, and response history. This evidence addresses Endpoint protection versus detection response; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect agent health, malware protection state, required updates, disk encryption, identity, and posture policy result. Situation: A laptop with disabled host firewall is still granted full wired access due to an overly broad access policy.

B:

Inspect sender authentication, impersonation indications, inbound/outbound message direction, detection verdict, and remediation authorization. This evidence addresses Email Threat Defense anti impersonation controls; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect agent health, malware protection state, required updates, disk encryption, identity, and posture policy result. Situation: A laptop with disabled host firewall is still granted full wired access due to an overly broad access policy.

D:

Inspect last posture evaluation time, policy change triggers, endpoint alert status, session authorization, and remediation evidence. This evidence addresses Continuous endpoint trust and posture drift; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect agent health, malware protection state, required updates, disk encryption, identity, and posture policy result. Situation: A laptop with disabled host firewall is still granted full wired access due to an overly broad access policy.

Question 37

Remote staff can sign in to Secure Access but the private finance app fails after its internal address changes. Before changing security policy, what evidence should the engineer examine FIRST?

  1. Inspect domain risk score, lexical and behavior indicators, known security categorization, age, related infrastructure, and current business use.
  2. Inspect private app connector reachability, application FQDN or IP definitions, identity group, posture, and access decisions.
  3. Inspect connector registration, reachability to application backends, DNS resolution, user session logs, and connector redundancy.
  4. Inspect observed resolver clients, domain pivots, domain categorization, timestamps, threat indicators, and access logs.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Inspect connector registration, reachability to application backends, DNS resolution, user session logs, and connector redundancy. This checks the relevant condition before an engineer modifies production access or detection behavior. A successful user login proves authentication, not connector reachability or correct backend application mapping. The controlled response would be: Validate private application connector capacity and connectivity alongside identity decisions and policy enforcement before relaxing restrictions. Situation: Remote staff can sign in to Secure Access but the private finance app fails after its internal address changes.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect domain risk score, lexical and behavior indicators, known security categorization, age, related infrastructure, and current business use. This evidence addresses Investigate domain risk score interpretation; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect connector registration, reachability to application backends, DNS resolution, user session logs, and connector redundancy. Situation: Remote staff can sign in to Secure Access but the private finance app fails after its internal address changes.

B:

Inspect private app connector reachability, application FQDN or IP definitions, identity group, posture, and access decisions. This evidence addresses Cisco Secure Access private app access; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect connector registration, reachability to application backends, DNS resolution, user session logs, and connector redundancy. Situation: Remote staff can sign in to Secure Access but the private finance app fails after its internal address changes.

D:

Inspect observed resolver clients, domain pivots, domain categorization, timestamps, threat indicators, and access logs. This evidence addresses Investigate infrastructure attribution and false positives; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect connector registration, reachability to application backends, DNS resolution, user session logs, and connector redundancy. Situation: Remote staff can sign in to Secure Access but the private finance app fails after its internal address changes.

Question 38

A new cloud policy fires thousands of alerts because it interprets benign automation as lateral movement. Before changing security policy, what evidence should the engineer examine FIRST?

  1. Inspect vendor resource types, identity federation, policy inheritance, enforcement integration, and drift reports.
  2. Inspect log connector authentication, field parsing, source and host tagging, ingest volume, event arrival, and time normalization.
  3. Inspect common identity fields, event time windows, index access, detection logic, and sample known-bad events.
  4. Inspect provider service agreements, guest OS and application responsibilities, customer IAM, network settings, and data classification.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Inspect common identity fields, event time windows, index access, detection logic, and sample known-bad events. This checks the relevant condition before an engineer modifies production access or detection behavior. A SIEM correlation rule depends on reliable field extraction and shared identity context; large event counts alone do not equal threat detection. The controlled response would be: Correlate normalized cloud identity, network, and workload events in Splunk with scoped detections and validated false-positive behavior. Situation: A new cloud policy fires thousands of alerts because it interprets benign automation as lateral movement.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect vendor resource types, identity federation, policy inheritance, enforcement integration, and drift reports. This evidence addresses Multicloud identity and centralized policy governance; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect common identity fields, event time windows, index access, detection logic, and sample known-bad events. Situation: A new cloud policy fires thousands of alerts because it interprets benign automation as lateral movement.

B:

Inspect log connector authentication, field parsing, source and host tagging, ingest volume, event arrival, and time normalization. This evidence addresses Splunk cloud source onboarding; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect common identity fields, event time windows, index access, detection logic, and sample known-bad events. Situation: A new cloud policy fires thousands of alerts because it interprets benign automation as lateral movement.

D:

Inspect provider service agreements, guest OS and application responsibilities, customer IAM, network settings, and data classification. This evidence addresses Cloud provider customer responsibility map; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect common identity fields, event time windows, index access, detection logic, and sample known-bad events. Situation: A new cloud policy fires thousands of alerts because it interprets benign automation as lateral movement.

Question 39

A product engineer pastes unreleased source code into a personal public chatbot to troubleshoot a compiler error. Which Cisco security control or operational response BEST addresses the stated need?

  1. Direct relevant internet and private application traffic through supported cloud security enforcement with explicit user and device context.
  2. Interpret Cisco Secure Access Investigate domain risk and sub-scores with threat context before deciding to block or allow domains.
  3. Create data loss prevention policies for defined sensitive patterns and approved destinations, with detection tuning and response actions.
  4. Apply AI service visibility and policy to protect sensitive inputs, approved destinations, and user identity when staff use external generative AI tools.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Apply AI service visibility and policy to protect sensitive inputs, approved destinations, and user identity when staff use external generative AI tools. This control addresses the failure mechanism and narrows the enforcement boundary. A corporate AI policy requires enforceable data handling and approved services; blocking a few keywords does not alone control all exfiltration paths. Confirm pre-change conditions using: Inspect AI application usage records, policy category, sensitive text classification, prompt upload paths, and employee roles. Situation: A product engineer pastes unreleased source code into a personal public chatbot to troubleshoot a compiler error.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Direct relevant internet and private application traffic through supported cloud security enforcement with explicit user and device context. This response applies to Remote identity and traffic steering in SSE, not the controlling requirement in this case. A cloud security point of presence enforces policies only for the traffic and identities actually steered to it; the product name alone does not guarantee coverage. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Apply AI service visibility and policy to protect sensitive inputs, approved destinations, and user identity when staff use external generative AI tools. Situation: A product engineer pastes unreleased source code into a personal public chatbot to troubleshoot a compiler error.

B:

Interpret Cisco Secure Access Investigate domain risk and sub-scores with threat context before deciding to block or allow domains. This response applies to Investigate domain risk score interpretation, not the controlling requirement in this case. Cisco Secure Access Investigate risk scores combine indicators; a score is decision support and not a sole definitive compromise verdict. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Apply AI service visibility and policy to protect sensitive inputs, approved destinations, and user identity when staff use external generative AI tools. Situation: A product engineer pastes unreleased source code into a personal public chatbot to troubleshoot a compiler error.

C:

Create data loss prevention policies for defined sensitive patterns and approved destinations, with detection tuning and response actions. This response applies to Cloud DLP sensitive upload policy, not the controlling requirement in this case. DLP identifies and governs data movement but its coverage depends on content visibility, supported connectors, and correctly scoped classifiers. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Apply AI service visibility and policy to protect sensitive inputs, approved destinations, and user identity when staff use external generative AI tools. Situation: A product engineer pastes unreleased source code into a personal public chatbot to troubleshoot a compiler error.

Question 40

A malicious user sends unsolicited ARP updates claiming ownership of another endpoint's IP. Which Cisco security control or operational response BEST addresses the stated need?

  1. Associate an appropriate intrusion and file policy with the relevant FTD traffic rule, then tune detection against validated test cases.
  2. Separate groups with VLAN boundaries and apply identity or context-based SGT policy where infrastructure supports scalable group enforcement.
  3. Use Dynamic ARP Inspection with reliable IP-to-MAC bindings to reject forged ARP claims on untrusted access interfaces.
  4. Compare running Cisco IOS XE or Secure Firewall settings to an applicable CIS benchmark, document justified exceptions, and remediate deviations.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Use Dynamic ARP Inspection with reliable IP-to-MAC bindings to reject forged ARP claims on untrusted access interfaces. This control addresses the failure mechanism and narrows the enforcement boundary. DAI relies on trustworthy binding information; enabling inspection without handling static addressing can interrupt legitimate users. Confirm pre-change conditions using: Inspect DHCP snooping bindings or static ARP ACLs, trusted links, validation drops, and legitimate static IP exceptions. Situation: A malicious user sends unsolicited ARP updates claiming ownership of another endpoint's IP.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Associate an appropriate intrusion and file policy with the relevant FTD traffic rule, then tune detection against validated test cases. This response applies to FTD intrusion policy and malware detection, not the controlling requirement in this case. A network allow decision alone does not guarantee intrusion inspection; relevant inline policy and traffic visibility must be enabled. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Use Dynamic ARP Inspection with reliable IP-to-MAC bindings to reject forged ARP claims on untrusted access interfaces. Situation: A malicious user sends unsolicited ARP updates claiming ownership of another endpoint's IP.

B:

Separate groups with VLAN boundaries and apply identity or context-based SGT policy where infrastructure supports scalable group enforcement. This response applies to VLAN segmentation and SGT policy, not the controlling requirement in this case. VLANs group Layer 2 broadcast domains; SGT-based policies can follow endpoint identity across supported network paths independent of a particular subnet. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Use Dynamic ARP Inspection with reliable IP-to-MAC bindings to reject forged ARP claims on untrusted access interfaces. Situation: A malicious user sends unsolicited ARP updates claiming ownership of another endpoint's IP.

D:

Compare running Cisco IOS XE or Secure Firewall settings to an applicable CIS benchmark, document justified exceptions, and remediate deviations. This response applies to CIS device configuration baseline assessment, not the controlling requirement in this case. Security benchmarks are version-specific prescriptive baselines; blindly applying all recommendations without operational review can disrupt required services. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Use Dynamic ARP Inspection with reliable IP-to-MAC bindings to reject forged ARP claims on untrusted access interfaces. Situation: A malicious user sends unsolicited ARP updates claiming ownership of another endpoint's IP.

Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies (350-701) Practice Tests