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Cisco 350-701 Practice Test 8

Question 70

A scanner marks an internet-facing gateway critical and another equally scored component is not installed anywhere. Which TWO complementary steps provide the most defensible remediation and its supporting assessment? Select TWO.

  1. Protected traffic crosses the tunnel with authenticated peers and encrypted data even behind the intended NAT device.
  2. Review asset versions, affected component evidence, external reachability, exploit preconditions, compensating controls, and vendor advisories.
  3. Triage software vulnerabilities using version applicability, exploit exposure, available remediation, and business impact alongside published CVE and CVSS data.
  4. Apply context-aware output encoding, anti-CSRF protections, and correct cookie controls at the relevant trust boundary.
  5. Review message authentication results, sender/domain similarities, original contact directory, transaction changes, and escalation records.

Explanation

Correct Answers

B:

Review asset versions, affected component evidence, external reachability, exploit preconditions, compensating controls, and vendor advisories. This checks the relevant condition before an engineer modifies production access or detection behavior. A CVE identifies a disclosed issue and CVSS summarizes severity characteristics; neither alone proves exposure or exploitation of a particular asset. The controlled response would be: Triage software vulnerabilities using version applicability, exploit exposure, available remediation, and business impact alongside published CVE and CVSS data. This supplies the diagnostic evidence needed for the complementary action. Situation: A scanner marks an internet-facing gateway critical and another equally scored component is not installed anywhere.

C:

Triage software vulnerabilities using version applicability, exploit exposure, available remediation, and business impact alongside published CVE and CVSS data. This control addresses the failure mechanism and narrows the enforcement boundary. A CVE identifies a disclosed issue and CVSS summarizes severity characteristics; neither alone proves exposure or exploitation of a particular asset. Confirm pre-change conditions using: Review asset versions, affected component evidence, external reachability, exploit preconditions, compensating controls, and vendor advisories. This is the implementation portion of the complementary pair. Situation: A scanner marks an internet-facing gateway critical and another equally scored component is not installed anywhere.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Protected traffic crosses the tunnel with authenticated peers and encrypted data even behind the intended NAT device. This step could matter for IPsec IKE and NAT traversal but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Triage software vulnerabilities using version applicability, exploit exposure, available remediation, and business impact alongside published CVE and CVSS data. and Review asset versions, affected component evidence, external reachability, exploit preconditions, compensating controls, and vendor advisories. Situation: A scanner marks an internet-facing gateway critical and another equally scored component is not installed anywhere.

D:

Apply context-aware output encoding, anti-CSRF protections, and correct cookie controls at the relevant trust boundary. This step could matter for Web injection and request forgery but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Triage software vulnerabilities using version applicability, exploit exposure, available remediation, and business impact alongside published CVE and CVSS data. and Review asset versions, affected component evidence, external reachability, exploit preconditions, compensating controls, and vendor advisories. Situation: A scanner marks an internet-facing gateway critical and another equally scored component is not installed anywhere.

E:

Review message authentication results, sender/domain similarities, original contact directory, transaction changes, and escalation records. This step could matter for Business email compromise verification but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Triage software vulnerabilities using version applicability, exploit exposure, available remediation, and business impact alongside published CVE and CVSS data. and Review asset versions, affected component evidence, external reachability, exploit preconditions, compensating controls, and vendor advisories. Situation: A scanner marks an internet-facing gateway critical and another equally scored component is not installed anywhere.

Question 71

A QR-code phishing campaign bypasses ordinary visible-link inspection and directs users to a credential page. Which TWO complementary steps provide the most defensible remediation and its supporting assessment? Select TWO.

  1. Inspect phishing URL redirects, domain registration context, email authentication outcomes, clicked-user telemetry, and current block rules.
  2. Inspect sender and destination mismatch, sign-in geography, authentication strength, new device enrollment, and user-reported prompts.
  3. Verify payment or access-change requests through an independently established channel and enforce dual approval for high-impact changes.
  4. Repeated authorized execution preserves the intended single rule and failed updates can be reverted without unintended duplicate objects.
  5. Combine suspicious message reporting, web destination inspection, reputation controls, and user training with enforceable authentication policies.

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

Inspect phishing URL redirects, domain registration context, email authentication outcomes, clicked-user telemetry, and current block rules. This checks the relevant condition before an engineer modifies production access or detection behavior. A secure email channel and DNS/web controls reduce exposure but cannot certify that every newly registered domain is benign. The controlled response would be: Combine suspicious message reporting, web destination inspection, reputation controls, and user training with enforceable authentication policies. This supplies the diagnostic evidence needed for the complementary action. Situation: A QR-code phishing campaign bypasses ordinary visible-link inspection and directs users to a credential page.

E:

Combine suspicious message reporting, web destination inspection, reputation controls, and user training with enforceable authentication policies. This control addresses the failure mechanism and narrows the enforcement boundary. A secure email channel and DNS/web controls reduce exposure but cannot certify that every newly registered domain is benign. Confirm pre-change conditions using: Inspect phishing URL redirects, domain registration context, email authentication outcomes, clicked-user telemetry, and current block rules. This is the implementation portion of the complementary pair. Situation: A QR-code phishing campaign bypasses ordinary visible-link inspection and directs users to a credential page.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Inspect sender and destination mismatch, sign-in geography, authentication strength, new device enrollment, and user-reported prompts. This step could matter for Credential phishing and account takeover but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Combine suspicious message reporting, web destination inspection, reputation controls, and user training with enforceable authentication policies. and Inspect phishing URL redirects, domain registration context, email authentication outcomes, clicked-user telemetry, and current block rules. Situation: A QR-code phishing campaign bypasses ordinary visible-link inspection and directs users to a credential page.

C:

Verify payment or access-change requests through an independently established channel and enforce dual approval for high-impact changes. This step could matter for Business email compromise verification but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Combine suspicious message reporting, web destination inspection, reputation controls, and user training with enforceable authentication policies. and Inspect phishing URL redirects, domain registration context, email authentication outcomes, clicked-user telemetry, and current block rules. Situation: A QR-code phishing campaign bypasses ordinary visible-link inspection and directs users to a credential page.

D:

Repeated authorized execution preserves the intended single rule and failed updates can be reverted without unintended duplicate objects. This step could matter for Idempotent policy automation and rollback but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Combine suspicious message reporting, web destination inspection, reputation controls, and user training with enforceable authentication policies. and Inspect phishing URL redirects, domain registration context, email authentication outcomes, clicked-user telemetry, and current block rules. Situation: A QR-code phishing campaign bypasses ordinary visible-link inspection and directs users to a credential page.

Question 72

A Secure Access private application connector is healthy yet a user is denied because its identity group is not authorized. Which TWO complementary steps provide the most defensible remediation and its supporting assessment? Select TWO.

  1. Validate private application connector capacity and connectivity alongside identity decisions and policy enforcement before relaxing restrictions.
  2. Publish approved private applications through Secure Private Access with least-privilege identity and device conditions rather than broad network tunnels.
  3. Inspect private app connector reachability, application FQDN or IP definitions, identity group, posture, and access decisions.
  4. The architecture provides required identity-aware web or private application protection without mislabeling security services alone as an SD-WAN fabric.
  5. Inspect observed resolver clients, domain pivots, domain categorization, timestamps, threat indicators, and access logs.

Explanation

Correct Answers

B:

Publish approved private applications through Secure Private Access with least-privilege identity and device conditions rather than broad network tunnels. This control addresses the failure mechanism and narrows the enforcement boundary. Zero-trust private access grants application-scoped connectivity; being authenticated to the cloud portal does not imply authorization to every private network. Confirm pre-change conditions using: Inspect private app connector reachability, application FQDN or IP definitions, identity group, posture, and access decisions. This is the implementation portion of the complementary pair. Situation: A Secure Access private application connector is healthy yet a user is denied because its identity group is not authorized.

C:

Inspect private app connector reachability, application FQDN or IP definitions, identity group, posture, and access decisions. This checks the relevant condition before an engineer modifies production access or detection behavior. Zero-trust private access grants application-scoped connectivity; being authenticated to the cloud portal does not imply authorization to every private network. The controlled response would be: Publish approved private applications through Secure Private Access with least-privilege identity and device conditions rather than broad network tunnels. This supplies the diagnostic evidence needed for the complementary action. Situation: A Secure Access private application connector is healthy yet a user is denied because its identity group is not authorized.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Validate private application connector capacity and connectivity alongside identity decisions and policy enforcement before relaxing restrictions. This step could matter for Private app connector resilience and troubleshooting but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Publish approved private applications through Secure Private Access with least-privilege identity and device conditions rather than broad network tunnels. and Inspect private app connector reachability, application FQDN or IP definitions, identity group, posture, and access decisions. Situation: A Secure Access private application connector is healthy yet a user is denied because its identity group is not authorized.

D:

The architecture provides required identity-aware web or private application protection without mislabeling security services alone as an SD-WAN fabric. This step could matter for SSE compared with SASE architecture but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Publish approved private applications through Secure Private Access with least-privilege identity and device conditions rather than broad network tunnels. and Inspect private app connector reachability, application FQDN or IP definitions, identity group, posture, and access decisions. Situation: A Secure Access private application connector is healthy yet a user is denied because its identity group is not authorized.

E:

Inspect observed resolver clients, domain pivots, domain categorization, timestamps, threat indicators, and access logs. This step could matter for Investigate infrastructure attribution and false positives but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Publish approved private applications through Secure Private Access with least-privilege identity and device conditions rather than broad network tunnels. and Inspect private app connector reachability, application FQDN or IP definitions, identity group, posture, and access decisions. Situation: A Secure Access private application connector is healthy yet a user is denied because its identity group is not authorized.

Question 73

An internal host transmits unusually high byte volumes to an unfamiliar external address but IDS signatures remain silent. Which observed result BEST confirms that the security requirement is met?

  1. Supported appliances receive tracked approved policies through the chosen management plane without granting excessive console privilege.
  2. Intended users receive the correct policy and connection failures can be attributed to a specific AAA stage.
  3. An unusual high-volume conversation is identified with attributable endpoints without claiming NetFlow reveals complete application content.
  4. Investigators can associate suspicious encrypted connections with affected devices while private payload content remains protected.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

An unusual high-volume conversation is identified with attributable endpoints without claiming NetFlow reveals complete application content. This is an observable acceptance condition, rather than an assumption that enabling a feature alone proves security. Flow telemetry summarizes communicating endpoints and counters; packet payload inspection requires different data sources. Situation: An internal host transmits unusually high byte volumes to an unfamiliar external address but IDS signatures remain silent.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Supported appliances receive tracked approved policies through the chosen management plane without granting excessive console privilege. This outcome tests Cisco Security Cloud Control management boundary and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: An unusual high-volume conversation is identified with attributable endpoints without claiming NetFlow reveals complete application content. Situation: An internal host transmits unusually high byte volumes to an unfamiliar external address but IDS signatures remain silent.

B:

Intended users receive the correct policy and connection failures can be attributed to a specific AAA stage. This outcome tests RADIUS network access troubleshooting and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: An unusual high-volume conversation is identified with attributable endpoints without claiming NetFlow reveals complete application content. Situation: An internal host transmits unusually high byte volumes to an unfamiliar external address but IDS signatures remain silent.

D:

Investigators can associate suspicious encrypted connections with affected devices while private payload content remains protected. This outcome tests Encrypted network telemetry and correlated detection and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: An unusual high-volume conversation is identified with attributable endpoints without claiming NetFlow reveals complete application content. Situation: An internal host transmits unusually high byte volumes to an unfamiliar external address but IDS signatures remain silent.

Question 74

A merger combines separate cloud tenants but the team cannot compare effective access across providers. Which Cisco security control or operational response BEST addresses the stated need?

  1. Coordinate consistent security intent across cloud platforms while retaining cloud-native enforcement and per-provider verification.
  2. Protect container workloads with approved image provenance, minimal privileges, network boundaries, and runtime monitoring.
  3. Configure Splunk cloud log inputs using supported integrations and correctly tagged sourcetypes, timestamps, and access to security indexes.
  4. Select preventative cloud configuration policies and continuous posture assessment against business risk, cloud framework, and allowed environments.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Coordinate consistent security intent across cloud platforms while retaining cloud-native enforcement and per-provider verification. This control addresses the failure mechanism and narrows the enforcement boundary. Multicloud governance can centralize design, but platform-specific APIs and capabilities must be validated rather than treating every cloud service as identical. Confirm pre-change conditions using: Inspect vendor resource types, identity federation, policy inheritance, enforcement integration, and drift reports. Situation: A merger combines separate cloud tenants but the team cannot compare effective access across providers.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Protect container workloads with approved image provenance, minimal privileges, network boundaries, and runtime monitoring. This response applies to Container workload identity and image governance, not the controlling requirement in this case. A container isolates processes but is not a complete trust boundary; host privileges, image supply chain, and runtime identity remain material. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Coordinate consistent security intent across cloud platforms while retaining cloud-native enforcement and per-provider verification. Situation: A merger combines separate cloud tenants but the team cannot compare effective access across providers.

C:

Configure Splunk cloud log inputs using supported integrations and correctly tagged sourcetypes, timestamps, and access to security indexes. This response applies to Splunk cloud source onboarding, not the controlling requirement in this case. Ingesting a log feed is not equivalent to normalizing it for investigations; sourcetype, event time, and parser correctness matter. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Coordinate consistent security intent across cloud platforms while retaining cloud-native enforcement and per-provider verification. Situation: A merger combines separate cloud tenants but the team cannot compare effective access across providers.

D:

Select preventative cloud configuration policies and continuous posture assessment against business risk, cloud framework, and allowed environments. This response applies to Cloud security posture policy selection, not the controlling requirement in this case. A cloud security posture view helps identify configuration drift, but a dashboard does not enforce remediation without policy and ownership. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Coordinate consistent security intent across cloud platforms while retaining cloud-native enforcement and per-provider verification. Situation: A merger combines separate cloud tenants but the team cannot compare effective access across providers.

Question 75

A device sends frequent small HTTPS bursts to a suspicious host while TLS decryption is prohibited by company privacy policy. Which observed result BEST confirms that the security requirement is met?

  1. Compliant users receive intended protected routes and application access without exposing unrelated networks.
  2. Unapproved categories or applications are denied while required business services match the intended allow criteria.
  3. An unusual high-volume conversation is identified with attributable endpoints without claiming NetFlow reveals complete application content.
  4. Investigators can associate suspicious encrypted connections with affected devices while private payload content remains protected.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Investigators can associate suspicious encrypted connections with affected devices while private payload content remains protected. This is an observable acceptance condition, rather than an assumption that enabling a feature alone proves security. Encrypted traffic analytics can leverage metadata and behavior; encryption reduces payload visibility and does not make a flow automatically benign. Situation: A device sends frequent small HTTPS bursts to a suspicious host while TLS decryption is prohibited by company privacy policy.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Compliant users receive intended protected routes and application access without exposing unrelated networks. This outcome tests Cisco Secure Client remote VPN policy and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: Investigators can associate suspicious encrypted connections with affected devices while private payload content remains protected. Situation: A device sends frequent small HTTPS bursts to a suspicious host while TLS decryption is prohibited by company privacy policy.

B:

Unapproved categories or applications are denied while required business services match the intended allow criteria. This outcome tests Application visibility control and URL filtering and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: Investigators can associate suspicious encrypted connections with affected devices while private payload content remains protected. Situation: A device sends frequent small HTTPS bursts to a suspicious host while TLS decryption is prohibited by company privacy policy.

C:

An unusual high-volume conversation is identified with attributable endpoints without claiming NetFlow reveals complete application content. This outcome tests NetFlow and telemetry flow analysis and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: Investigators can associate suspicious encrypted connections with affected devices while private payload content remains protected. Situation: A device sends frequent small HTTPS bursts to a suspicious host while TLS decryption is prohibited by company privacy policy.

Question 76

A developer's legitimate content delivery tool uses several unusual subdomains and triggers a false tunneling alert. Before changing security policy, what evidence should the engineer examine FIRST?

  1. Inspect queried subdomain patterns, TXT requests, query response rates, domain age, and originating host process.
  2. Inspect flow byte asymmetry, SaaS tenant, DLP events, process initiator, upload time, and user job role.
  3. Inspect SSO federation setup, conditional access rules, authenticator strength, location signals, and Duo activity logs.
  4. Inspect identity source, portal flow, guest sponsor rules, endpoint registration, and assigned authorization profile.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Inspect queried subdomain patterns, TXT requests, query response rates, domain age, and originating host process. This checks the relevant condition before an engineer modifies production access or detection behavior. DNS is a name-resolution protocol but can carry encoded data in labels or answers; unusual queries require contextual analysis to avoid false positives. The controlled response would be: Identify suspicious DNS-based data movement using query entropy, length, volume, domain ownership, and endpoint context before containment. Situation: A developer's legitimate content delivery tool uses several unusual subdomains and triggers a false tunneling alert.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Inspect flow byte asymmetry, SaaS tenant, DLP events, process initiator, upload time, and user job role. This evidence addresses HTTPS and cloud-storage exfiltration containment; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect queried subdomain patterns, TXT requests, query response rates, domain age, and originating host process. Situation: A developer's legitimate content delivery tool uses several unusual subdomains and triggers a false tunneling alert.

C:

Inspect SSO federation setup, conditional access rules, authenticator strength, location signals, and Duo activity logs. This evidence addresses Duo Adaptive Access and SSO context; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect queried subdomain patterns, TXT requests, query response rates, domain age, and originating host process. Situation: A developer's legitimate content delivery tool uses several unusual subdomains and triggers a false tunneling alert.

D:

Inspect identity source, portal flow, guest sponsor rules, endpoint registration, and assigned authorization profile. This evidence addresses Cisco ISE guest and BYOD identity policies; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect queried subdomain patterns, TXT requests, query response rates, domain age, and originating host process. Situation: A developer's legitimate content delivery tool uses several unusual subdomains and triggers a false tunneling alert.

Question 77

A security investigation finds that a service principal created new access keys but no audit trail links the change to its identity. Which observed result BEST confirms that the security requirement is met?

  1. A control checklist identifies responsible teams for patching, identities, configuration, and data even when underlying infrastructure is provider managed.
  2. A changed unsigned image or privileged unexpected workload is blocked from the approved deployment process.
  3. A compromised workload identity cannot delete unrelated assets and changes are attributable to an approved actor.
  4. A deliberately public data service or embedded secret is rejected in CI before a production resource is created.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A compromised workload identity cannot delete unrelated assets and changes are attributable to an approved actor. This is an observable acceptance condition, rather than an assumption that enabling a feature alone proves security. Cloud privilege is an enforceable API control; encrypting data at rest does not prevent an overprivileged identity from invoking destructive actions. Situation: A security investigation finds that a service principal created new access keys but no audit trail links the change to its identity.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A control checklist identifies responsible teams for patching, identities, configuration, and data even when underlying infrastructure is provider managed. This outcome tests Cloud provider customer responsibility map and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: A compromised workload identity cannot delete unrelated assets and changes are attributable to an approved actor. Situation: A security investigation finds that a service principal created new access keys but no audit trail links the change to its identity.

B:

A changed unsigned image or privileged unexpected workload is blocked from the approved deployment process. This outcome tests Container workload identity and image governance and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: A compromised workload identity cannot delete unrelated assets and changes are attributable to an approved actor. Situation: A security investigation finds that a service principal created new access keys but no audit trail links the change to its identity.

D:

A deliberately public data service or embedded secret is rejected in CI before a production resource is created. This outcome tests Infrastructure as Code security gate and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: A compromised workload identity cannot delete unrelated assets and changes are attributable to an approved actor. Situation: A security investigation finds that a service principal created new access keys but no audit trail links the change to its identity.

Question 78

A governance team requires consistent approved outbound restrictions without a single universal native firewall API. Before changing security policy, what evidence should the engineer examine FIRST?

  1. Inspect vendor resource types, identity federation, policy inheritance, enforcement integration, and drift reports.
  2. Inspect OAuth app grants, external collaboration settings, admin roles, account lifecycle, and cloud sharing audit logs.
  3. Inspect storage encryption policy, customer-managed key dependencies, rotation schedule, secret locations, and access logs.
  4. Inspect asset inventory, cloud service exposure, cloud security baseline, exception handling, and assessment findings.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Inspect vendor resource types, identity federation, policy inheritance, enforcement integration, and drift reports. This checks the relevant condition before an engineer modifies production access or detection behavior. Multicloud governance can centralize design, but platform-specific APIs and capabilities must be validated rather than treating every cloud service as identical. The controlled response would be: Coordinate consistent security intent across cloud platforms while retaining cloud-native enforcement and per-provider verification. Situation: A governance team requires consistent approved outbound restrictions without a single universal native firewall API.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Inspect OAuth app grants, external collaboration settings, admin roles, account lifecycle, and cloud sharing audit logs. This evidence addresses SaaS configuration and tenant boundary protection; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect vendor resource types, identity federation, policy inheritance, enforcement integration, and drift reports. Situation: A governance team requires consistent approved outbound restrictions without a single universal native firewall API.

C:

Inspect storage encryption policy, customer-managed key dependencies, rotation schedule, secret locations, and access logs. This evidence addresses Cloud application encryption and key responsibility; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect vendor resource types, identity federation, policy inheritance, enforcement integration, and drift reports. Situation: A governance team requires consistent approved outbound restrictions without a single universal native firewall API.

D:

Inspect asset inventory, cloud service exposure, cloud security baseline, exception handling, and assessment findings. This evidence addresses Cloud security posture policy selection; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect vendor resource types, identity federation, policy inheritance, enforcement integration, and drift reports. Situation: A governance team requires consistent approved outbound restrictions without a single universal native firewall API.

Question 79

Employees upload confidential contracts to unapproved personal cloud accounts from managed laptops. Which Cisco security control or operational response BEST addresses the stated need?

  1. Apply tenant-scoped identity, secure sharing, and data-access governance to SaaS workflows including third-party integration tokens.
  2. Secure cloud workloads and data with appropriate encryption, managed key access, and explicit ownership of secret rotation and runtime use.
  3. Match public, private, hybrid, or community cloud and CASB controls to data access and service risk rather than selecting an architecture by label.
  4. Protect container workloads with approved image provenance, minimal privileges, network boundaries, and runtime monitoring.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Match public, private, hybrid, or community cloud and CASB controls to data access and service risk rather than selecting an architecture by label. This control addresses the failure mechanism and narrows the enforcement boundary. A CASB adds visibility and policy to cloud application usage; deployment model choice alone does not establish data governance. Confirm pre-change conditions using: Inspect regulatory hosting needs, SaaS usage, sanctioned tenants, visibility requirements, and access control capabilities. Situation: Employees upload confidential contracts to unapproved personal cloud accounts from managed laptops.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Apply tenant-scoped identity, secure sharing, and data-access governance to SaaS workflows including third-party integration tokens. This response applies to SaaS configuration and tenant boundary protection, not the controlling requirement in this case. SaaS security remains a shared responsibility: provider-hosted software does not make permissive tenant configuration secure. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Match public, private, hybrid, or community cloud and CASB controls to data access and service risk rather than selecting an architecture by label. Situation: Employees upload confidential contracts to unapproved personal cloud accounts from managed laptops.

B:

Secure cloud workloads and data with appropriate encryption, managed key access, and explicit ownership of secret rotation and runtime use. This response applies to Cloud application encryption and key responsibility, not the controlling requirement in this case. Encryption protects data against unauthorized reading but does not substitute for IAM; key lifecycle management and backups require explicit ownership. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Match public, private, hybrid, or community cloud and CASB controls to data access and service risk rather than selecting an architecture by label. Situation: Employees upload confidential contracts to unapproved personal cloud accounts from managed laptops.

D:

Protect container workloads with approved image provenance, minimal privileges, network boundaries, and runtime monitoring. This response applies to Container workload identity and image governance, not the controlling requirement in this case. A container isolates processes but is not a complete trust boundary; host privileges, image supply chain, and runtime identity remain material. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Match public, private, hybrid, or community cloud and CASB controls to data access and service risk rather than selecting an architecture by label. Situation: Employees upload confidential contracts to unapproved personal cloud accounts from managed laptops.

Question 80

A newly registered domain scores near the medium-risk boundary but is used by an approved vendor after a documented migration. Which TWO complementary steps provide the most defensible remediation and its supporting assessment? Select TWO.

  1. Inspect domain risk score, lexical and behavior indicators, known security categorization, age, related infrastructure, and current business use.
  2. Interpret Cisco Secure Access Investigate domain risk and sub-scores with threat context before deciding to block or allow domains.
  3. Inspect security service requirements, remote site connectivity, traffic steering, policy locations, and branch routing control.
  4. A failover test maintains authorized access and a broken backend is diagnosed without broadly opening the private network.
  5. Correlate Investigate domain information with DNS activity, source endpoint, time range, and threat intelligence before escalating.

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

Inspect domain risk score, lexical and behavior indicators, known security categorization, age, related infrastructure, and current business use. This checks the relevant condition before an engineer modifies production access or detection behavior. Cisco Secure Access Investigate risk scores combine indicators; a score is decision support and not a sole definitive compromise verdict. The controlled response would be: Interpret Cisco Secure Access Investigate domain risk and sub-scores with threat context before deciding to block or allow domains. This supplies the diagnostic evidence needed for the complementary action. Situation: A newly registered domain scores near the medium-risk boundary but is used by an approved vendor after a documented migration.

B:

Interpret Cisco Secure Access Investigate domain risk and sub-scores with threat context before deciding to block or allow domains. This control addresses the failure mechanism and narrows the enforcement boundary. Cisco Secure Access Investigate risk scores combine indicators; a score is decision support and not a sole definitive compromise verdict. Confirm pre-change conditions using: Inspect domain risk score, lexical and behavior indicators, known security categorization, age, related infrastructure, and current business use. This is the implementation portion of the complementary pair. Situation: A newly registered domain scores near the medium-risk boundary but is used by an approved vendor after a documented migration.

Incorrect Answers

C:

Inspect security service requirements, remote site connectivity, traffic steering, policy locations, and branch routing control. This step could matter for SSE compared with SASE architecture but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Interpret Cisco Secure Access Investigate domain risk and sub-scores with threat context before deciding to block or allow domains. and Inspect domain risk score, lexical and behavior indicators, known security categorization, age, related infrastructure, and current business use. Situation: A newly registered domain scores near the medium-risk boundary but is used by an approved vendor after a documented migration.

D:

A failover test maintains authorized access and a broken backend is diagnosed without broadly opening the private network. This step could matter for Private app connector resilience and troubleshooting but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Interpret Cisco Secure Access Investigate domain risk and sub-scores with threat context before deciding to block or allow domains. and Inspect domain risk score, lexical and behavior indicators, known security categorization, age, related infrastructure, and current business use. Situation: A newly registered domain scores near the medium-risk boundary but is used by an approved vendor after a documented migration.

E:

Correlate Investigate domain information with DNS activity, source endpoint, time range, and threat intelligence before escalating. This step could matter for Investigate infrastructure attribution and false positives but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Interpret Cisco Secure Access Investigate domain risk and sub-scores with threat context before deciding to block or allow domains. and Inspect domain risk score, lexical and behavior indicators, known security categorization, age, related infrastructure, and current business use. Situation: A newly registered domain scores near the medium-risk boundary but is used by an approved vendor after a documented migration.

Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies (350-701) Practice Tests