Cisco 200-301 Practice Test 3
Question 20
Two distribution routers serve VLAN 30 and should provide a resilient default gateway to hosts without forcing DHCP clients to reconfigure when one router fails. What FHRP property enables this?
- Each host receives a different default-gateway IP for each outage
- The routers share a stable virtual gateway IP address on the client VLAN
- The routers disable the hosts’ ARP tables permanently
- Hosts must run OSPFv2 and elect a designated router
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:First-hop redundancy protocols such as HSRP present a virtual gateway IPv4 address on the host VLAN, while one router is responsible for forwarding for that virtual identity at a given time. If the active member fails, a healthy standby can take over the virtual IP and associated gateway behavior. Clients continue to use the same configured default gateway, avoiding DHCP reconfiguration during ordinary failover. Successful operation still depends on convergence and working upstream reachability.
Incorrect Answers
A:Giving hosts a different default-gateway address after each failure would require a mechanism to distribute or reconfigure that address and could interrupt ongoing sessions. An FHRP is designed specifically to hide the physical router change behind one stable virtual next-hop identity. The scenario says DHCP clients should not need to change settings, so per-outage gateway renumbering contradicts the intended resilient first-hop design.
C:Hosts normally use ARP to resolve the virtual default-gateway IP to the appropriate virtual MAC behavior on their local VLAN. Disabling their ARP caches permanently would break ordinary Ethernet neighbor resolution instead of making failover seamless. FHRP keeps a stable logical gateway identity and lets the active router change; it does not remove the need for link-layer address mapping between hosts and the first hop.
D:End-user workstations do not need to run OSPF or participate in a designated-router election to benefit from an HSRP virtual gateway. OSPF routing adjacencies are an infrastructure control-plane mechanism, while FHRP coordinates the default gateway presented to ordinary clients on a VLAN. Conflating those protocols would require unnecessary host-side routing configuration and would not explain how one gateway IP remains usable during router failure.
Question 21
For VLAN 20, three switches advertise bridge priorities 24576, 32768 and 4096. Assume normal valid bridge IDs and no administrative inconsistencies. Which switch wins the root election?
- The switch whose priority is 4096
- The switch whose priority is 32768
- The switch whose priority is 24576
- The switch with the highest MAC address regardless of its priority
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:The bridge with priority 4096 wins because standard spanning-tree root selection first compares the numerical Bridge ID and prefers the lowest value. Of the supplied priorities, 4096 is below 24576 and 32768, so no MAC-address tie-breaker is required. In a VLAN-specific spanning-tree instance, that switch becomes the root when all three are eligible and participating, and the other switches select paths toward it according to their received BPDUs and path costs.
Incorrect Answers
B:A priority of 32768 is numerically larger than both 24576 and 4096. Spanning tree does not award root status to the highest numerical priority; it prefers the lowest bridge identifier. The 32768 switch could become root if lower-priority candidates disappeared or were not in the same spanning-tree instance, but those exceptions are excluded by the problem's assumptions.
C:The 24576 value is lower than 32768 but remains higher than 4096. Spanning-tree elections compare all eligible Bridge IDs, so beating one neighbor is not sufficient when an even lower-priority bridge participates. This switch would lose to the 4096 candidate in VLAN 20, regardless of the order in which switches appeared on the network.
D:The MAC portion of the Bridge ID matters only after comparing the configured priority and its applicable system-ID extension. A highest MAC address is not automatically the root and, all else equal, a lower MAC would win a tie instead. The stated priorities already differ, so the root is determined by the 4096 value rather than by either MAC address.
Question 22
The route entry O 198.51.100.0/24 [110/45] via 10.0.12.2 appears in show ip route. Which number is the administrative distance of the installed OSPF route?
- 24
- 45
- 110
- 12
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:Cisco IOS presents this OSPF entry as [administrative distance/metric], so [110/45] means administrative distance 110 and route metric 45. The leading O indicates OSPF as the route source, the /24 describes the destination prefix, and 10.0.12.2 is the forwarding next hop. Administrative distance determines preference among competing routing sources for an identical prefix; it is not an IP octet or an interface identifier.
Incorrect Answers
A:The number 24 is the prefix length in the destination 198.51.100.0/24. It describes the size of the network that the route matches, not the relative preference of its routing source. IOS displays administrative distance and metric together inside square brackets, so a number outside those brackets cannot be assumed to be the distance merely because it appears in the route line.
B:The 45 is the route metric or cost shown after the slash in [110/45]. OSPF can compare costs when selecting eligible paths to a destination, but that number is not its administrative distance. The administrative-distance field is the first bracketed value. Confusing distance with cost would lead an administrator to misunderstand route-source preference versus within-protocol path selection.
D:The value 12 is merely part of the IPv4 next-hop address 10.0.12.2. Those octets identify the adjacent forwarding destination and are not separate routing-protocol attributes. IOS places the distance in the first position inside [110/45], which the question explicitly includes. Reading an embedded address octet as administrative distance ignores the documented route-table field boundaries.
Question 23
An inventory application requires that its transmitted record stream arrive reliably and in order, even when packets are lost. Which transport behavior is required?
- TCP sequencing and retransmission provide an ordered reliable byte stream
- Use UDP datagrams because the UDP header automatically orders and retransmits missing packets
- Increase the IPv4 time-to-live field so intermediate routers resequence lost segments
- Disable all transport acknowledgments and treat each delivered packet as final
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:TCP uses sequence numbers to order a byte stream and acknowledgments to track which bytes have reached the receiver. When data is lost, TCP can retransmit it rather than exposing missing bytes as successful delivery to the application. That matches an inventory feed whose records must arrive in order and without transport-level gaps. The application must still handle connection failure and transaction integrity, but TCP provides the requested ordered, reliable transport semantics.
Incorrect Answers
B:UDP is connectionless and does not implement TCP-style sequencing, acknowledgment, and retransmission guarantees for an application stream. It can be appropriate for latency-sensitive traffic or software that provides its own loss handling, but the inventory requirement is explicit reliable in-order arrival. Merely selecting UDP cannot force missing datagrams to be recovered or delivered in the original order.
C:The IPv4 time-to-live field limits the number of routing hops a packet may traverse; a router decreases it as the packet is forwarded. Increasing TTL can affect whether packets survive a long path, but it cannot resequence lost TCP data or make intermediary routers reconstruct missing inventory records. Ordered delivery and recovery require suitable transport or application mechanisms, not an IP hop-limit change.
D:Disabling acknowledgments removes the receiver feedback that a reliable sender uses to detect what data was accepted. That would make it difficult to retransmit missing portions and confirm the required ordered stream. Some applications deliberately choose unacknowledged datagrams, but this case prioritizes accuracy and completeness under packet loss rather than accepting each isolated arrival as final.
Question 24
A company wants to reduce password reuse among router administrators while making their individual credentials auditable. Which approach is most defensible?
- Use individually assigned unique secrets stored in an approved password manager
- Give every engineer a single shared complex password
- Reuse the same credential on every lab and production router
- Email plaintext enable secrets during every maintenance window
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:Unique credentials per administrator permit the network to attribute access and changes to a specific individual instead of to a shared team password. A trusted password manager can generate high-entropy values and protect them without encouraging password reuse across routers or environments. Identity-based authorization, MFA where available, and audit logging complement this design. The approach directly addresses both stated requirements: lower credential reuse and better accountability for administrative actions.
Incorrect Answers
B:A single complex team password may resist simple guessing but still cannot identify which engineer used it to modify a router. Once that value is disclosed or an employee leaves, every shared system must be considered exposed. Complexity does not solve the lack of individual attribution, and it increases the blast radius of one leaked credential compared with unique administrator identities.
C:Using one credential across lab and production routers creates a common point of compromise: a password stolen from a less-protected lab can grant access to production devices. It also makes accountability weaker if several employees know the same value. The required approach separates identities and credentials by administrator, privilege level and environment instead of multiplying trust in one reused password.
D:Sending plaintext enable secrets by email produces uncontrolled copies in messages and inboxes, increasing the opportunity for accidental disclosure and credential theft. It also encourages sharing rather than individual identity verification. Maintenance coordination can be handled with an approved credential vault or privileged access workflow, allowing access and actions to remain attributable without transmitting the raw shared password.
Question 25
In a fabric design, the underlay uses routed links to provide IP reachability between edge devices, while an overlay carries virtualized endpoint segments. Which component is the underlay?
- The virtual segment identifiers exposed to the applications
- The physical and routed transport network between fabric nodes
- A user-facing API request to create a network policy
- A JSON document describing desired network configuration
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:The underlay is the actual physical and Layer 3 routed network connecting fabric nodes and allowing their transport addresses to reach one another. Overlay technologies may encapsulate endpoint frames or packets over that foundation to provide logical segmentation. A working underlay therefore needs appropriate links, IP routing and reachability before overlay endpoints can exchange traffic. This is distinct from virtual segment IDs or API definitions, which describe services riding on top of the transport.
Incorrect Answers
A:Virtual segment identifiers describe the logical overlay that separates tenants or endpoint groups across the fabric. They rely on lower-layer connectivity between the participating edge nodes, but they are not themselves the routed transport that carries encapsulated packets. The underlay must provide physical links and network reachability; confusing the overlay identifiers with the underlay would hide the dependency the question is testing.
C:An API call can request a network policy or trigger automation that configures an overlay, but it is a control-plane interaction rather than a data-plane transport path. Even if the request succeeds, the underlying network still needs operational interfaces, IP addresses and routes between the fabric nodes. The question asks what carries the traffic beneath the overlay, not what management interface creates the policy.
D:A JSON desired-state document describes configuration or intent that software can interpret and apply. It does not physically connect devices or forward encapsulated packets between them. For this fabric, that role belongs to the link and routed-IP underlay; the JSON document might instruct a controller, but the controller's input is not the forwarding network itself.
Question 26
A newly connected workstation has no IPv4 address and must discover an available address, subnet mask, lease duration, and default gateway automatically. Which network service supplies these parameters?
- DNS resolver
- DHCP server
- SNMP manager
- Syslog collector
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:A DHCP server offers an IPv4 lease and associated parameters to a compatible client, potentially including subnet mask, default router, DNS servers and lease duration. A client typically discovers a server, receives an offer, requests the selected lease and receives an acknowledgment. When the server is outside the local broadcast network, a relay may forward the request. This mechanism supplies the automatic addressing behavior the new workstation requires.
Incorrect Answers
A:DNS translates names into resource-record answers, such as host IP addresses, but it does not lease a workstation's interface address, subnet mask, default gateway and lease lifetime. DNS information can be delivered as an option within a DHCP lease, which may make the two services appear related. The described first-time network configuration exchange is DHCP, not an ordinary hostname-resolution request.
C:An SNMP manager queries or receives management information from enabled device agents to monitor counters and operational state. It does not normally allocate client IPv4 addresses or negotiate leases with workstations. SNMP can help administrators observe a DHCP-related fault, but using an SNMP manager would not deliver the initial mask, gateway and lease data needed by this client.
D:A Syslog collector receives diagnostic events and status messages sent by routers, switches and other systems. These logs might show that a DHCP request failed or a server was unreachable, but the collector does not perform the DHCP offer and acknowledgment exchange. Monitoring an address problem is not equivalent to automatically assigning a valid client interface configuration.
Question 27
R1 initially forwards 172.16.9.42 through an installed 172.16.9.32/27 route to R2. When R2 becomes unreachable, that /27 disappears from the table, but a valid 172.16.0.0/16 route to R3 remains. No default route is available. How does R1 forward a new packet for 172.16.9.42?
- Drop the packet because a lost /27 can never be covered by a broader prefix
- Send it toward R2 using the deleted /27 entry
- Install a route to a source address instead of the packet destination
- Use the surviving /16 route through R3 because it still matches the destination
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:Initially, 172.16.9.42 matches both 172.16.9.32/27 and 172.16.0.0/16, so the longer /27 through R2 is selected. When that /27 disappears, the valid /16 is now the most specific installed matching prefix and forwards new packets toward R3. No default is necessary because the /16 already covers the destination. This illustrates how route withdrawal can cause normal fallback without retaining a dead next hop.
Incorrect Answers
A:Withdrawal of a more-specific route does not make every destination within it permanently unreachable. If another installed prefix still contains the destination, the router can select that surviving route. Here the broader 172.16.0.0/16 entry remains valid and includes 172.16.9.42, so a blanket drop would ignore an available forwarding path. Dropping would be appropriate only if no usable matching route existed.
B:The /27 route through R2 has been withdrawn after R2 became unreachable. Routers forward using currently installed valid entries rather than using a previously known next hop whose route has disappeared. The destination still matches the surviving /16 through R3, so continuing to send toward R2 would rely on stale forwarding state and contradict the scenario's route-table change.
C:Ordinary unicast destination-based routing selects a path by looking up the packet's destination address. Installing an unrelated source-address route would not restore the missing /27 and is not how conventional longest-prefix matching chooses the egress path. The packet's destination, 172.16.9.42, remains covered by 172.16.0.0/16, making the surviving R3 path relevant.
Question 28
A campus uses controller-based lightweight Cisco access points in Local mode. Which normal data-path behavior describes centrally switched client traffic in this architecture?
- Each wireless station must have a dedicated wired switch cable to the WLC
- The AP automatically performs all Layer 3 routing between WLAN clients without any controller policy
- The AP carries associated client traffic through CAPWAP to the controller for central switching
- The controller becomes unnecessary once clients authenticate and the AP powers on
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:In a centrally switched Cisco lightweight-AP Local-mode deployment, the access point encapsulates associated client data and carries it over CAPWAP to the wireless LAN controller. The controller then participates in the configured central switching arrangement. This is different from WLANs designed for local switching, such as applicable FlexConnect configurations. The AP still terminates the wireless radio link, but the specified client data path traverses the controller rather than being locally bridged at the AP.
Incorrect Answers
A:Wireless stations connect over 802.11 radio to a nearby access point, not through a dedicated Ethernet cable from every client to the WLC. The AP and controller can have an IP/CAPWAP relationship over the infrastructure. Requiring a physical cable per wireless client would defeat the purpose of WLAN access and misidentify the component that actually terminates the client radio association.
B:A lightweight AP in Local mode provides wireless client attachment and transports centrally switched traffic, but that does not make it an independent router for every WLAN subnet. Layer 3 gateway functions and policy are implemented by the appropriate network devices and controller architecture. The question asks for the normal centralized data path rather than asserting that controller policy and routing disappear once a station associates.
D:Controller participation does not become irrelevant the moment a client authenticates in this Local-mode centralized design. The AP continues using controller-based WLAN policy and the specified CAPWAP forwarding relationship. If the central controller becomes unavailable, client behavior depends on the deployment and platform; the question does not authorize treating the AP as an autonomous replacement with unchanged centrally switched service.
Question 29
An engineer assigns host address 10.40.18.46/27 to a workstation. Which network ID and prefix must appear for its connected subnet?
- 10.40.18.192/29
- 10.40.18.64/28
- 10.40.18.128/26
- 10.40.18.32/27
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:A /27 subnet has 32 addresses per block, giving final-octet boundaries of.0,.32,.64 and so on. Address 10.40.18.46 belongs to the.32–.63 block, making 10.40.18.32/27 its network ID. That subnet has conventional usable hosts.33 through.62 and broadcast.63. The result follows from the host's configured /27 mask, not from a similarly shaped /28 or /26 calculation.
Incorrect Answers
A:10.40.18.192/29 covers the last-octet range.192 through.199 and is unrelated to host 10.40.18.46. A /29 uses eight-address blocks, whereas the actual interface prefix is /27. Picking a valid-looking network identifier from a different prefix ignores the host's specified mask, which controls the subnet calculation. The required /27 block containing.46 begins at.32.
B:The 10.40.18.64/28 network contains.64 through.79 and would be relevant for a host such as.78 using /28. It does not include.46 and uses a different prefix length from the stated /27. The question asks for the connected subnet derived from 10.40.18.46/27, so applying a nearby /28 calculation cannot provide its correct network ID.
C:A /26 begins blocks at.0,.64,.128 and.192 in the final octet, but 10.40.18.128/26 is not the /27 containing.46. Its mask fixes only 26 network bits, while the workstation uses 27. The correct method is to apply the /27 mask to the given host address rather than choose a network from another mask or address interval.
Question 30
Two company offices want to carry internal subnet traffic securely across an untrusted internet connection without requiring each workstation to establish its own tunnel. Which deployment is best suited?
- Remote-access VPN configured independently on every employee laptop
- Ordinary FTP sessions between branch routers
- A site-to-site IPsec VPN between security gateways
- An Ethernet trunk carrying VLAN 1 across the public internet
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:A site-to-site IPsec VPN can establish an authenticated and encrypted path between gateways at the two offices. The gateways protect traffic for designated internal subnets while ordinary workstations use their normal default routes. This meets the requirement to protect cross-site traffic over an untrusted Internet without per-user tunnels. Administrators still need matching traffic selectors, reachable public endpoints, routing and appropriate firewall policy on both sides.
Incorrect Answers
A:Remote-access VPN is designed primarily for individual user devices that establish their own protected connection to a VPN service. It can be valuable for employees working away from the office, but the requirement explicitly avoids configuring a tunnel on every workstation. A site-to-site gateway arrangement protects traffic between the two office networks without making each internal endpoint a VPN client.
B:FTP transfers files between application endpoints and does not provide a transparent encrypted path for arbitrary IP subnets. Traditional FTP also lacks the confidentiality expected over an untrusted Internet link. Even if a file transfer succeeded between offices, it would not securely carry general routed office traffic or establish the specified network-to-network tunnel between security gateways.
D:An 802.1Q trunk identifies VLAN membership on Ethernet links and does not inherently encrypt site-to-site packets or create a secure tunnel over the public Internet. Extending Layer 2 tags across two locations would require another transport mechanism and still would not satisfy the confidentiality requirement. The described problem is protected routed subnet communication, for which an IPsec gateway VPN is more appropriate.