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Cisco 200-301 Practice Test 2

Question 10

An intern follows a stranger carrying equipment through a secured network closet door without checking an access badge. Which physical-access failure should training address?

  1. ARP spoofing
  2. DHCP relay misconfiguration
  3. Unauthorized NTP peering
  4. Tailgating through a controlled entry point

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Tailgating is the act of gaining entry to a restricted area by following someone through an access-controlled door without being independently authorized. The intern should have verified the stranger's access badge or followed the organization's visitor escort process rather than assuming that carrying equipment proved entitlement. Training should emphasize challenging unverified entrants and securing the door because network closets expose switches, cables, and management consoles to physical tampering.

Incorrect Answers

A:

ARP spoofing occurs when a network participant supplies misleading IP-to-MAC mapping information to redirect or observe local Layer 2 traffic. No ARP messages or neighbor-cache manipulation are described here. The security failure occurs at the locked closet entrance, where a person is admitted without an individual authorization check, so classifying it as an Ethernet addressing attack misses the physical boundary.

B:

A DHCP relay misconfiguration would interfere with forwarding IP address requests toward a DHCP server across a subnet boundary. It could prevent clients from obtaining correct network parameters, but it cannot explain why an unknown person entered a controlled equipment room. The relevant prevention measures are identity verification and controlled physical entry, not changing the DHCP relay settings.

C:

Unauthorized NTP peering could cause a device to synchronize with an untrusted time source and make logs unreliable. That is a network-management security concern, not a physical access event. The stem gives no time-source evidence; it describes entering a restricted closet by following another person without a badge check, which is the classic tailgating pattern.

Question 11

A Cisco IOS router should forward IPv4 destinations that lack specific routes to reachable next-hop 192.0.2.1. Which global configuration command adds the required static default route?

  1. ip default-gateway 192.0.2.1 on a router with IP routing enabled
  2. ip route 192.0.2.1 255.255.255.255 0.0.0.0
  3. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.0.2.1
  4. ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 192.0.2.1

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

The command ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.0.2.1 installs a candidate IPv4 default route via the reachable neighbor 192.0.2.1. Both all-zero fields identify the /0 destination, which is considered only when no longer installed prefix matches the packet destination. The next hop must be resolvable through an operating interface, and policy or better-matching routes may still affect actual forwarding. This command is the ordinary IOS router configuration for the described fallback path.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The ip default-gateway setting is mainly used to provide management reachability on a device that is not acting as an IP router. The question explicitly specifies a Cisco router forwarding IPv4 destinations, so a configured Layer 3 route must participate in normal route lookup. Using this management-style gateway setting does not install the requested 0.0.0.0/0 destination entry in the routing table.

B:

This command places 192.0.2.1 in the destination position and treats 0.0.0.0 as a forwarding next hop. A static route must instead name the network being reached, its subnet mask, and a valid next hop or exit interface. The intended route is the catch-all IPv4 prefix; this syntax neither names the default destination nor describes the requested reachable gateway correctly.

D:

The mask 255.255.255.0 represents a /24, not the zero-length destination prefix needed for a default route. A route for 0.0.0.0/24 would match a limited IPv4 address range rather than act as a last-resort entry for arbitrary destinations. Replacing the mask with 0.0.0.0 is essential; the reachable next hop alone cannot turn a /24 route into a catch-all route.

Question 12

An enterprise has switches from several vendors and needs a standards-based Layer 2 method to advertise interface and device identity to directly connected peers. Which protocol should it use?

  1. CDP, a Cisco-proprietary discovery protocol
  2. LLDP, based on IEEE 802.1AB
  3. OSPF, an interior gateway routing protocol
  4. 802.1Q, an Ethernet VLAN tagging method

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Link Layer Discovery Protocol is standardized by IEEE 802.1AB and advertises device and interface identity to directly connected compatible neighbors. It works at Layer 2, so a router does not need to establish OSPF adjacency merely for a switch to learn neighboring chassis or port information. LLDP is the appropriate interoperability choice when the enterprise explicitly requires a standards-based discovery method across multiple switch vendors.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Cisco Discovery Protocol advertises information about connected devices and is useful for troubleshooting supported Cisco neighbors. However, it is a Cisco-origin protocol rather than the IEEE 802.1AB multivendor discovery standard requested by the team. A network containing other vendors should not assume universal CDP support; using it alone could leave compatible non-Cisco peers undiscovered even while their Ethernet links work.

C:

OSPF is an interior gateway routing protocol used by Layer 3 devices to exchange routing reachability information. Its neighbor relationships and link-state databases support network path computation, not the general Ethernet port and chassis identity advertisement requested here. Two directly connected switches may need LLDP information even if neither is running OSPF, so a routing protocol is not a substitute for the specified discovery function.

D:

IEEE 802.1Q adds VLAN identification to Ethernet frames carried over applicable trunk links. It allows a single physical uplink to transport several VLANs while preserving their traffic separation. It does not advertise a neighbor's management name, chassis ID, or interface details, which are the information LLDP is designed to communicate. Confusing VLAN tagging with device discovery would solve the wrong Layer 2 requirement.

Question 13

A provider needs a 20-kilometer point-to-point optical link between campuses, with matched transceivers designed for that reach. Which medium is the likely choice?

  1. Category 6 twisted-pair copper across an ordinary Ethernet horizontal channel
  2. Short-reach multimode fiber paired with optics engineered only for in-building links
  3. Passive twinaxial direct-attach copper cabling between the two sites
  4. Single-mode fiber with compatible long-reach optics supports kilometer-scale spans

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Single-mode optical fiber, paired with compatible long-reach transceivers at both ends, is appropriate for links spanning kilometers. Its optical propagation characteristics and suitable transceiver designs allow far greater reach than ordinary twisted-pair copper or short-reach multimode assemblies. The engineer still needs to validate wavelength, connector type, attenuation budget, fiber plant, and any optics-specific reach limit; simply selecting single-mode fiber without matching modules would not guarantee a working twenty-kilometer path.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A conventional Category 6 twisted-pair Ethernet horizontal channel is designed for distances around a hundred meters under applicable standards, not a twenty-kilometer campus link. It is an appropriate access medium within a building when cable category and link speed match. For this intercampus span the attenuation and reach requirements exceed ordinary copper Ethernet, and the problem already specifies optical transceivers intended for long distance.

B:

Multimode fiber combined with short-reach modules is suitable for relatively short optical links such as connections within an equipment room or data hall. The option expressly describes optics engineered only for in-building reach. That is inadequate for the required twenty-kilometer connection, even if a fiber connector physically fits. Optical link engineering must match the actual distance, fiber grade, wavelength, and link budget at both endpoints.

C:

Twinaxial direct-attach cabling normally connects nearby equipment ports and is not designed as a multi-kilometer optical transport medium. It can be a practical short copper interconnect in a rack, avoiding standalone optical modules for the right interfaces. It cannot meet a twenty-kilometer site-to-site requirement, and it would not constitute the matched long-reach optical link requested by the problem.

Question 14

OSPF process 10 on R1 must include IPv4 interface address 192.0.2.5/24 in single area 0 using a router-mode network statement. Which IOS command is appropriate?

  1. network 192.0.2.0 255.255.255.0 area 0
  2. network 192.0.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 1
  3. network 192.0.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
  4. ip route 192.0.2.0 255.255.255.0 area 0

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Within router ospf 10 configuration, network 192.0.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 selects local interfaces whose IPv4 addresses match the specified /24 range and enables their OSPFv2 participation in area 0. The 0.0.0.255 value is a wildcard, the inverse of a /24 mask, not a forwarding subnet mask. A router-mode network statement matches local interface addresses rather than directly defining a next-hop static route. The selected interface must still be operational and otherwise compatible with its OSPF peers.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The second field of a Cisco IOS OSPF router-mode network command is a wildcard mask, not the normal 255.255.255.0 subnet mask. A /24 range is matched with the inverse form 0.0.0.255, which leaves the final octet free. Copying a subnet mask into the wildcard field can select different or unintended interfaces and does not express the required area-0 /24 match.

B:

The network address and wildcard in this option would correctly match interfaces with addresses in 192.0.2.0/24. The problem, however, explicitly requires OSPF area 0, and this command assigns matching interfaces to area 1. An OSPF area's numerical identifier is part of adjacency and routing design; an otherwise correct interface match does not compensate for placing the interface into the wrong area.

D:

The ip route command configures a static forwarding entry with a destination prefix and next hop or exit interface. It does not belong to the OSPF router-mode network statement syntax and does not accept an area keyword as shown. Even a valid static route would not itself cause the router's 192.0.2.5 interface to participate in OSPF area 0. The problem asks for routing-protocol interface activation, not merely reachability to a prefix.

Question 15

Engineers individually SSH to every router to implement a new QoS policy. A controller-based approach would most directly change which part of this workflow?

  1. Require every data packet to traverse an operator laptop
  2. Apply intent or policy centrally and distribute the resulting configurations through controller interfaces
  3. Remove all forwarding tables from switches
  4. Replace the enterprise IP addressing scheme with MAC-only switching

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

A controller-based workflow lets engineers define or approve a common QoS intent or policy in one management context, then translate and distribute the suitable settings through supported device interfaces. This removes many repetitive manual SSH sessions and improves version consistency across the network. The controller still needs correct device inventories, compatible platform capabilities, secure access, staged validation, and rollback planning; centralization improves orchestration without eliminating data-plane forwarding on the routers.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A network controller provides a management and policy plane, not a requirement to forward all user packets through an engineer's laptop. Devices continue to apply their installed forwarding information while controllers coordinate their configuration and intent. Routing customer data through an operator workstation would create an unnecessary bottleneck and security dependency, and it does not solve the problem of manually entering the same QoS policy on many routers.

C:

Switches and routers still need local forwarding tables to deliver packets at line rate, even when policies are centrally managed. The controller may influence those tables indirectly through routing or configuration, but its existence does not remove the data plane. Deleting all forwarding entries would break connectivity and contradict the goal of consistently implementing a working QoS policy across production devices.

D:

Controller-based networking can orchestrate IP addresses, routes, VLANs, and policy, but it does not make those fundamental network constructs disappear. A MAC-only design cannot provide ordinary IP routing between enterprise subnets merely because configurations are pushed centrally. The relevant change is replacing repetitive per-device administration with a coordinated intent-and-deployment process, not redesigning the enterprise into one Layer 2 address space.

Question 16

A branch router should synchronize its clock to reachable NTP server 192.0.2.123. Which global configuration line makes the router an NTP client of that server?

  1. clock set 192.0.2.123
  2. ntp server 192.0.2.123
  3. ntp master 192.0.2.123
  4. service timestamps log datetime

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

The global IOS ntp server 192.0.2.123 statement configures the reachable host as an NTP source for the router. The client can then exchange NTP messages and adjust its clock according to the selected valid peer and platform time-service behavior. Correct addressing, network reachability, acceptable server responses, and any configured NTP authentication remain prerequisites. This is distinct from setting a static clock value or merely controlling the format of log timestamps.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The clock set operation manually changes a device's local date and time rather than configuring it to poll a remote network time source. An IP address is not a complete clock-setting argument in the form displayed. The requirement calls for ongoing synchronization with the specified host, so a manual correction would not prevent future clock drift or supply the normal IOS NTP-client association.

C:

The ntp master feature permits an IOS device to act as a local authoritative time source, typically with an appropriate stratum argument when needed. It does not accept an upstream server IP address in the way shown to configure an ordinary NTP client. The scenario wants the router to synchronize from 192.0.2.123, not advertise its own local clock as a source for other devices.

D:

Service timestamps log datetime controls the presentation of dates and times in local logging messages. It can be useful when correlating events across multiple routers, but the timestamps are only trustworthy if the underlying device clock is synchronized. This setting does not identify 192.0.2.123 as an NTP server or initiate the time-synchronization exchange required in the question.

Question 17

A router must protect entry into privileged EXEC mode with a stored secret instead of a cleartext enable password. Which global command is appropriate?

  1. enable password cisco123
  2. enable secret <strong-unique-value>
  3. line console 0 followed by transport input ssh
  4. logging buffered 8192

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

The global enable secret command configures the privileged EXEC password using a protected secret representation rather than relying on the older enable password mechanism. A strong, unique value should be used and handled under the organization's credential management policy. This specifically protects the transition to privileged mode; separate console or SSH login authentication and command authorization may also be required. Using the correct global command and management controls is the distinction tested by the stem.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Enable password is an older IOS mechanism for controlling privileged EXEC access and is weaker than the stored-secret mechanism requested by this question. A reusable example password such as cisco123 is also unsuitable for real management protection. Where enable secret is configured, it is the preferred credential mechanism. Selecting enable password would not meet the explicit desire for a protected stored secret rather than a cleartext-style enable password.

C:

Line console 0 enters the local console line configuration context, which is not where the global privileged-mode secret is configured. The transport input ssh command is associated with remote virtual terminal access rather than an ordinary console connection. These settings could have other management purposes but do not establish the requested enable secret for the privileged EXEC transition on the router.

D:

Logging buffered 8192 controls local logging storage capacity rather than an authentication or authorization secret. Logs may reveal attempts to enter privileged mode and help investigate misuse, but collecting events does not restrict access by itself. The scenario requires a protected privileged EXEC credential, so a logging buffer setting is irrelevant to the missing security mechanism.

Question 18

Two switches will form an LACP EtherChannel. Which TWO endpoint mode combinations can establish LACP negotiation on otherwise compatible interfaces? Choose TWO.

  1. Active on switch A and active on switch B
  2. Passive on switch A and passive on switch B
  3. Active on switch A and passive on switch B
  4. Static mode on at both ends without LACP
  5. PAgP desirable on one side and LACP passive on the other

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

When both ends are configured LACP active, each switch initiates Link Aggregation Control Protocol negotiation. If the participating Ethernet interfaces have compatible physical and switchport attributes, the peers can agree on one logical EtherChannel. The active/active combination therefore satisfies the requirement for standards-based negotiated aggregation. Member speed, duplex, VLAN and trunk compatibility still matter; matching the words active alone does not guarantee every possible channel configuration is valid.

C:

An LACP active endpoint sends negotiation messages, and a passive endpoint can respond, so an active/passive pair is a supported negotiated EtherChannel arrangement. Both physical interfaces must still be configured consistently for supported parameters, including port-channel membership and relevant Layer 2 characteristics. This combination tests initiation behavior rather than merely whether the switch can force links together; a passive peer needs an active partner to begin negotiation.

Incorrect Answers

B:

LACP passive mode responds to a partner's negotiation packets but does not initiate them on its own. With passive at both ends, neither switch begins the exchange needed to establish an LACP bundle, despite their other possible configuration compatibility. A passive peer can work when the other side is active; passive/passive cannot satisfy the question's requirement for a negotiated channel to form.

D:

Channel-group mode on can force a bundle without exchanging LACP protocol messages. That may create a static EtherChannel when the peer is configured compatibly, but it does not meet a requirement to establish aggregation through LACP negotiation. The question asks for valid negotiating mode combinations, so a forced on/on configuration should not be counted as an LACP result even if a logical bundle becomes operational.

E:

PAgP desirable is a Cisco-specific negotiation mode belonging to a different EtherChannel protocol family, whereas LACP passive expects the IEEE LACP exchange. A peer speaking PAgP cannot negotiate LACP with the passive side merely because both settings sound like link-aggregation modes. For LACP, use active with active or active with passive, and ensure the member interfaces otherwise agree.

Question 19

A copper link shows severe late collisions, and one device is manually set to full duplex while its partner operates in half duplex. What is the most relevant fault?

  1. A damaged twisted-pair termination creating FCS errors even when both ends use matching duplex
  2. Excessive broadcast traffic on the VLAN with both Ethernet peers in full duplex
  3. An 802.1Q native VLAN mismatch between switches on a trunk
  4. A duplex mismatch between the two Ethernet peers

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

The two Ethernet peers are operating with incompatible duplex expectations: one transmits as full duplex and the other uses half-duplex collision handling. Such a mismatch can cause late collisions, frame errors and significantly reduced throughput. Correct both endpoints to compatible supported auto-negotiation or matching manual settings, then verify operational duplex and counters. The question supplies the mismatch directly, making it more decisive than a speculative cable, VLAN or congestion problem.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Damaged twisted-pair termination can corrupt received frames and cause FCS or CRC errors. Such faults are real physical-layer problems, but this option explicitly assumes matched duplex at both ends. The scenario instead states that one peer is configured full duplex while the other operates half duplex, a direct mismatch associated with collision-related symptoms. A cable fault is not the most relevant stated explanation for that configuration disagreement.

B:

Broadcast-heavy traffic can consume shared bandwidth and hurt application performance, but the option describes both peers running full duplex. The stem explicitly provides opposing duplex modes and late collisions, which point to an Ethernet duplex mismatch rather than simple Layer 2 congestion. Broadcast load does not explain why one interface obeys half-duplex collision rules while the other transmits as though it had a full-duplex link.

C:

A native VLAN mismatch on an 802.1Q trunk can cause untagged frames to enter the wrong VLAN and may generate switch warnings. It does not set Ethernet half-duplex behavior or create the stated duplex disagreement between link peers. The immediate fault described is at the link's duplex negotiation or manual configuration boundary, not at the VLAN classification layer of an otherwise matching trunk.

Question 20

Two distribution routers serve VLAN 30 and should provide a resilient default gateway to hosts without forcing DHCP clients to reconfigure when one router fails. What FHRP property enables this?

  1. Each host receives a different default-gateway IP for each outage
  2. The routers share a stable virtual gateway IP address on the client VLAN
  3. The routers disable the hosts’ ARP tables permanently
  4. Hosts must run OSPFv2 and elect a designated router

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

First-hop redundancy protocols such as HSRP present a virtual gateway IPv4 address on the host VLAN, while one router is responsible for forwarding for that virtual identity at a given time. If the active member fails, a healthy standby can take over the virtual IP and associated gateway behavior. Clients continue to use the same configured default gateway, avoiding DHCP reconfiguration during ordinary failover. Successful operation still depends on convergence and working upstream reachability.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Giving hosts a different default-gateway address after each failure would require a mechanism to distribute or reconfigure that address and could interrupt ongoing sessions. An FHRP is designed specifically to hide the physical router change behind one stable virtual next-hop identity. The scenario says DHCP clients should not need to change settings, so per-outage gateway renumbering contradicts the intended resilient first-hop design.

C:

Hosts normally use ARP to resolve the virtual default-gateway IP to the appropriate virtual MAC behavior on their local VLAN. Disabling their ARP caches permanently would break ordinary Ethernet neighbor resolution instead of making failover seamless. FHRP keeps a stable logical gateway identity and lets the active router change; it does not remove the need for link-layer address mapping between hosts and the first hop.

D:

End-user workstations do not need to run OSPF or participate in a designated-router election to benefit from an HSRP virtual gateway. OSPF routing adjacencies are an infrastructure control-plane mechanism, while FHRP coordinates the default gateway presented to ordinary clients on a VLAN. Conflating those protocols would require unnecessary host-side routing configuration and would not explain how one gateway IP remains usable during router failure.

Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) (200-301) Practice Tests