Cisco 200-301 Practice Test 1
Question 1
A Cisco IOS route table contains S 203.0.113.0/24 [1/0] via 192.0.2.2. What does the leading S identify in this entry?
- It is an OSPF-learned path
- It is a static route
- It is an attached local interface address
- It is a directly connected subnet
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:The leading S is IOS's route-source code for a manually configured static route. In this entry, 203.0.113.0/24 is the destination prefix and 192.0.2.2 is its next hop. The bracketed [1/0] reports an administrative distance of 1 followed by a metric of 0; those fields do not identify a routing protocol. Reading the source code separately from the next hop and route preference is the decisive skill tested here.
Incorrect Answers
A:OSPF-learned routes are identified by an O in Cisco IOS routing output, not by S. OSPF entries may also list a next-hop address after the word via, which makes that field an unreliable indicator of the route's origin. Here the first code is S, so interpreting the record as OSPF would misread the source before even considering the bracketed values.
C:A local interface address is usually represented by a route marked L, generally a host-length /32 for IPv4. It identifies an address owned by this router, not a destination that must be reached through another router. The displayed route instead begins with S and points to 192.0.2.2 as a next hop, so a local-interface interpretation is inconsistent with the entry.
D:A directly connected IPv4 network is normally marked C when the appropriate routed interface and its network are operational. Connected routes describe on-link reachability, often displaying an exit interface, rather than requiring a manually configured next-hop statement. This entry has an S code and a via next hop, so it is a configured static route even though the destination itself is a normal /24 network.
Question 2
A new accounting workstation is connected to Gi1/0/8. Its traffic must be untagged in VLAN 20 and the port must never negotiate a trunk. Which TWO interface commands directly satisfy the requirement? Choose TWO.
- switchport mode access
- switchport trunk native vlan 20
- switchport access vlan 20
- ip routing
- switchport mode dynamic desirable
Explanation
Correct Answers
A:The switchport mode access command makes Gi1/0/8 a static access interface rather than an interface that negotiates an 802.1Q trunk through DTP. That meets the explicit requirement that this workstation-facing port must never negotiate a trunk. It does not, by itself, choose which access VLAN carries the untagged frames; switchport access vlan 20 supplies that separate setting. Both commands are needed for the complete configuration.
C:The switchport access vlan 20 command assigns the untagged data traffic on an access port to VLAN 20. In this scenario the connected accounting workstation does not add VLAN tags, so the switch must classify its incoming frames into the intended access VLAN. This command supplies the VLAN assignment but not the administrative mode; switchport mode access must also be configured to prohibit dynamic trunk negotiation. VLAN 20 must exist and be usable on the switch.
Incorrect Answers
B:A trunk native VLAN controls the treatment of untagged frames on an operational 802.1Q trunk. That is a legitimate trunking parameter, but it does not transform the interface into the required static access port or set the workstation data VLAN in access mode. Using it here confuses trunk-native behavior with access-VLAN membership and leaves the no-trunk-negotiation requirement unsatisfied.
D:The global ip routing setting enables IPv4 routing on a capable switch; it does not assign a Layer 2 switchport to a data VLAN. The problem is not an inter-subnet forwarding decision, since the workstation's untagged frames first need correct local VLAN classification. Configuring global routing would therefore leave Gi1/0/8 without the required explicit access role and access VLAN 20.
E:Dynamic desirable actively attempts to form a trunk with a compatible peer using Dynamic Trunking Protocol. That behavior is the opposite of the stated demand that a PC-facing port never negotiate trunking. Even if the peer did not agree to a trunk, leaving dynamic negotiation enabled is not an acceptable way to assert a fixed access-port security and forwarding policy.
Question 3
A branch uses a dedicated router as its Layer 3 gateway between two IPv4 subnets. Its access switches are explicitly configured for Layer 2 forwarding only. Which function must the router perform to deliver packets between those subnets?
- Use the destination IPv4 address and its routing table to select a next hop or outgoing interface
- Use only an Ethernet MAC table to bridge frames inside one VLAN
- Ask the Layer 2 access switches to route between SVIs even though IP routing is disabled on them
- Classify traffic by application signatures without selecting a Layer 3 route
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:The dedicated router must inspect the destination IPv4 address, match it against installed routing information, and choose the appropriate next hop or outgoing routed interface. The access switches are explicitly limited to Layer 2 forwarding, so their MAC tables cannot deliver packets across two IP subnets. When the router forwards a packet, it uses Layer 3 reachability and then resolves the appropriate link-layer delivery on the chosen egress network. This is the required inter-subnet gateway behavior.
Incorrect Answers
B:A switch MAC address table associates learned Ethernet destinations with ports inside the same Layer 2 VLAN. It is effective for local known-unicast forwarding, but it does not select a route for a destination in a different IPv4 subnet. The given design specifically places that inter-subnet role on a router, so restricting the operation to MAC bridging would strand off-subnet packets.
C:Switched virtual interfaces can route between VLAN networks on a multilayer switch, but that design requires the switch to support and enable Layer 3 forwarding. The scenario expressly states that its access switches are Layer 2-only with routing disabled. Asking those devices to route through SVIs therefore contradicts the platform assumptions rather than solving the router's required destination-based forwarding task.
D:Application-aware classification can help a firewall or capable router apply policy based on a traffic category. It does not supply the destination network lookup that determines where an IPv4 packet should be forwarded. The branch router still needs a matching route and an egress next hop; inspecting application signatures without that routing decision cannot deliver traffic between the two subnets.
Question 4
A branch switch still accepts an obsolete management protocol with known flaws. An attacker could use it to compromise configuration access. What term best labels the exploitable weakness in the device?
- Threat actor
- Vulnerability
- Mitigation
- Security audit log
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:A vulnerability is a weakness in software, hardware, configuration, or an administrative process that an attacker might exploit. Here the switch still exposes an obsolete management protocol with known flaws, creating an avenue toward unauthorized configuration access. The weakness exists even before an attacker acts; removing or replacing that protocol would be a mitigation. Separating vulnerability, threat actor, and control terminology is central to evaluating this scenario.
Incorrect Answers
A:A threat actor is the person, group, or other entity that could attempt the unauthorized action. The stem instead asks for the exploitable weakness that exists on the switch before any particular attacker uses it. An attacker could take advantage of the obsolete protocol, but calling the protocol implementation a threat actor confuses the source of a possible attack with the susceptible condition on the device.
C:A mitigation is a measure intended to reduce the probability or impact of an attack, such as disabling the obsolete service, patching its implementation, or restricting management access. Those actions would address the problem after it is identified. The question asks what to call the already exploitable condition itself, so the proper classification is a vulnerability rather than the remedial action.
D:A security audit log records events such as management sessions, authentication failures, or configuration changes. Logs help detect and investigate misuse, but their existence does not describe the defect that permits an attacker to gain access. The obsolete protocol is the vulnerable surface; monitoring it is useful defensive evidence, not the name of the underlying weakness.
Question 5
A network team configures the same syslog and NTP policy manually on 200 switches. Audit results show inconsistent parameters. Which benefit of configuration automation addresses the failure most directly?
- Applying a versioned configuration pattern consistently across devices
- Increasing the physical bandwidth of each uplink
- Replacing routing tables with a single shared MAC table
- Disabling every device audit log to reduce CPU work
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:A reviewed, version-controlled configuration baseline can be applied repeatedly to all 200 switches, reducing differences caused by engineers entering commands by hand. Templates or an automation tool can explicitly set the same syslog destinations, NTP servers, and policy parameters for each applicable device. A sound rollout still tests the template, records changes, and validates device responses; automation makes configurations consistent but can spread an incorrect template just as consistently if unchecked.
Incorrect Answers
B:The bandwidth of a switch uplink is determined by the interface hardware, transceivers, cabling, and negotiated link capability. A configuration automation system cannot turn a fixed-rate physical port into a faster one merely by replaying a standard syslog and NTP policy. The symptom is inconsistent administrative settings across devices, not a physical capacity limit, so bandwidth increases are unrelated to the requested benefit.
C:Routers use IP routing information to select paths between networks, while ordinary Layer 2 switches learn MAC addresses to forward frames inside VLANs. Automating their configuration does not merge these two distinct forwarding databases into a single shared table. The case concerns preventing human variation when configuring services on many switches, and a common declarative baseline directly addresses that source of inconsistency.
D:Suppressing device logs would remove useful evidence of configuration changes, service failures, and compliance differences. It would actually make it harder to determine whether all 200 switches received the intended syslog and NTP policy. The appropriate automation benefit is consistent deployment with validation, not disabling the audit trail needed to prove the configuration was applied correctly.
Question 6
A branch router must present internal server 192.168.50.10 to partners as the persistent translated address 203.0.113.10. What global IOS command defines that one-to-one inside-source mapping?
ip nat pool SERVER 192.168.50.10 203.0.113.10 netmask 255.255.255.0ip nat inside source static 192.168.50.10 203.0.113.10ip nat outside source static 192.168.50.10 203.0.113.10ip route 203.0.113.10 255.255.255.255 192.168.50.10
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:The ip nat inside source static command binds the inside-local server 192.168.50.10 to the fixed inside-global address 203.0.113.10. That translation can be used consistently by the partners when the network and access policies permit the traffic. The Cisco router also needs the relevant interfaces classified as NAT inside and outside and appropriate IP reachability; the mapping command alone does not create every security or routing prerequisite.
Incorrect Answers
A:An ip nat pool declares an available range of translated addresses for rules that use dynamic translation; it does not establish the stated fixed one-to-one server mapping by itself. The example also mixes the inside-local and desired global addresses as though they were pool endpoints. The requirement is to give 192.168.50.10 a persistent external identity, which calls for a static inside-source association rather than a generic pool declaration.
C:Outside-source NAT represents and translates the address of a host from the outside-network perspective. That is a different direction of address mapping from the scenario's ordinary internal server that must appear to partners under a fixed public-facing identity. Reversing inside source and outside source does not simply produce the same mapping with a different word order; it changes the NAT function being configured.
D:A static ip route installs a destination forwarding path and identifies a next hop, but it does not modify packet source addresses. Even if the router could reach the partner through a correct route, the internal server would still use its untranslated source identity unless a NAT rule applied. The stated problem requires an inside-local to inside-global address binding, not only a route toward the external address.
Question 7
A router has 10.20.0.0/16 via R1, 10.20.30.0/24 via R2, and 0.0.0.0/0 via R3. A packet is addressed to 10.20.30.55. Which next hop wins ordinary destination-based lookup?
- R1 because its /16 covers more total addresses
- R2 because the /24 is the longest matching prefix
- R3 because a default route is always preferred
- All three are used in round-robin regardless of prefix length
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:All three displayed routes can match the destination 10.20.30.55, but 10.20.30.0/24 matches 24 leading address bits, more than the /16 and /0 entries. The router therefore forwards through R2 under ordinary longest-prefix matching. Administrative distance matters when selecting between competing route sources for the same prefix; it does not cause a broader /16 or default to override an installed, more-specific /24.
Incorrect Answers
A:The /16 route through R1 does include 10.20.30.55, but it covers a much broader range of addresses than the available 10.20.30.0/24 route. Normal destination forwarding uses the longest matching installed prefix, not the route with the greatest possible address coverage. Because the /24 is more specific, R1 would be selected only if that /24 entry were absent or otherwise unusable.
C:A default route represents the least-specific IPv4 prefix, 0.0.0.0/0, and provides fallback forwarding when no more-specific installed route matches. It does not have a universal preference over all other routes. Here the destination matches both the /16 and, more importantly, the /24 through R2, so R3's default should not be chosen in ordinary route lookup.
D:Equal-cost multipath may share traffic among eligible routes to the same destination prefix, subject to routing protocol and forwarding rules. The three entries here use different prefix lengths and are not interchangeable ECMP members merely because their next hops differ. The /24 wins first by destination specificity, before any equal-cost next-hop sharing for that selected prefix would be considered.
Question 8
An uplink between two Cisco Catalyst switches must be a static 802.1Q trunk and transport only data VLANs 20 and 30. Which TWO switchport commands directly set the required mode and allowed list? Choose TWO.
- switchport mode trunk
- switchport mode access
- switchport access vlan 20
- switchport trunk allowed vlan 20,30
- switchport trunk native vlan 30
Explanation
Correct Answers
A:Switchport mode trunk explicitly sets the Cisco switch interface to a trunk role instead of making it depend on dynamic trunk negotiation. That permits the interface to carry traffic belonging to multiple VLANs over one physical link, as required for the inter-switch uplink. However, trunk mode alone does not restrict the transported VLANs to the specified pair; switchport trunk allowed vlan 20,30 supplies the second required control.
D:Switchport trunk allowed vlan 20,30 constrains the operational trunk to carrying the two specified VLANs, rather than the default broader allowed set. In a switch-to-switch design, this reduces unintended VLAN propagation and satisfies the exact data-VLAN list requirement. The interface must independently be in trunk mode, and the peer's trunking and VLAN settings need to be compatible for the link to work as intended.
Incorrect Answers
B:Switchport mode access fixes a port to the ordinary single-data-VLAN access role. It is suitable for typical untagged endpoint traffic but cannot provide the requested multi-VLAN 802.1Q switch-to-switch trunk. The requirement explicitly names two VLANs on one uplink, so forcing access mode removes the tag-based transport capability needed for the inter-switch connection.
C:Switchport access vlan 20 associates an access-port data VLAN with untagged endpoint frames. It neither establishes a static trunk nor sets the trunk's allowed-VLAN list. On this switch-to-switch uplink, the engineer must use trunk mode and an allowed list containing VLANs 20 and 30; configuring an access VLAN belongs to a different switchport operating mode.
E:The native VLAN setting governs how untagged frames are classified on an 802.1Q trunk and should be consistent between peers. It does not define which tagged VLANs are allowed to traverse the uplink. Setting the native VLAN to 30 would therefore not replace the required allowed list of 20 and 30, and could introduce an unnecessary mismatch if the opposite switch retained a different native VLAN.
Question 9
A small campus needs a design with access switches connecting to a combined distribution-and-core pair, minimizing separate backbone hardware. Which topology applies?
- A two-tier campus design collapses distribution and core functions
- Use a three-tier campus with separate access, distribution and core switches for every role
- Deploy a leaf–spine server fabric with each rack leaf attached to separate spine devices
- Mesh every access switch directly to every other access switch with no aggregation layer
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:A two-tier campus uses an access layer for endpoint connections and a collapsed distribution/core layer for aggregation and Layer 3 transit. That matches the specified paired upper switches without needing a separate backbone tier. The design can provide resilience while minimizing equipment at a smaller site; it is not the same as a three-tier architecture, where aggregation and the high-speed core are separately deployed functional layers.
Incorrect Answers
B:A three-tier campus gives distinct access, distribution, and core roles, commonly appropriate when campus scale and policy boundaries justify the separate core. The case expressly asks to minimize separate backbone hardware by combining the two upper functions. Building an independent core would add the layer the organization wants to collapse, so this choice does not describe the requested topology.
C:A leaf-spine fabric is typically designed for regular high-bandwidth east-west paths between data-center server racks. Each leaf generally connects through a spine tier, rather than providing campus endpoint access below a collapsed distribution/core pair. It is a sound topology for a different traffic pattern, but the described deployment is a compact campus hierarchy, not a many-rack server fabric.
D:A complete mesh between every access switch greatly increases the number of physical links and creates a different forwarding and loop-management problem. It also omits the described pair of upper aggregation devices. The requested compact campus uses a structured access tier and combined distribution/core tier, rather than direct all-to-all connectivity among endpoint switches.
Question 10
An intern follows a stranger carrying equipment through a secured network closet door without checking an access badge. Which physical-access failure should training address?
- ARP spoofing
- DHCP relay misconfiguration
- Unauthorized NTP peering
- Tailgating through a controlled entry point
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:Tailgating is the act of gaining entry to a restricted area by following someone through an access-controlled door without being independently authorized. The intern should have verified the stranger's access badge or followed the organization's visitor escort process rather than assuming that carrying equipment proved entitlement. Training should emphasize challenging unverified entrants and securing the door because network closets expose switches, cables, and management consoles to physical tampering.
Incorrect Answers
A:ARP spoofing occurs when a network participant supplies misleading IP-to-MAC mapping information to redirect or observe local Layer 2 traffic. No ARP messages or neighbor-cache manipulation are described here. The security failure occurs at the locked closet entrance, where a person is admitted without an individual authorization check, so classifying it as an Ethernet addressing attack misses the physical boundary.
B:A DHCP relay misconfiguration would interfere with forwarding IP address requests toward a DHCP server across a subnet boundary. It could prevent clients from obtaining correct network parameters, but it cannot explain why an unknown person entered a controlled equipment room. The relevant prevention measures are identity verification and controlled physical entry, not changing the DHCP relay settings.
C:Unauthorized NTP peering could cause a device to synchronize with an untrusted time source and make logs unreliable. That is a network-management security concern, not a physical access event. The stem gives no time-source evidence; it describes entering a restricted closet by following another person without a badge check, which is the classic tailgating pattern.