Cisco 200-301 Practice Test 5
Question 40
A host in VLAN 10 ARPs for its configured HSRP virtual default-gateway address. Under normal operation, which device responds on behalf of that virtual gateway?
- Every physical router simultaneously responds with a distinct unicast MAC
- Only the central DHCP server responds because the host got its gateway from DHCP
- The current HSRP active router responds for the virtual IP
- The root spanning-tree bridge must respond even if it has no IP routing function
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:The current HSRP active router is responsible for the virtual gateway identity and normally answers ARP for the group's virtual IPv4 address using the appropriate virtual MAC. Hosts can therefore keep one default-gateway address while the underlying physical forwarding device changes during a failover. The standby router monitors the group and may take over when the active member is lost. This provides gateway resilience without requiring DHCP clients to change their configured gateway on every transition.
Incorrect Answers
A:HSRP presents a shared virtual-gateway identity to the VLAN rather than having every physical member independently answer with a distinct gateway MAC. If multiple routers gave conflicting ARP responses for one virtual IP, hosts could learn inconsistent next hops. Under normal HSRP operation the active member represents the virtual address, while standby members monitor its availability and can take over when required.
B:A DHCP server can supply the configured default-gateway IPv4 address in the client's lease, but it does not normally reply to ARP for that local gateway. ARP requests on the VLAN are handled by the device currently representing the HSRP virtual gateway. Address provisioning and neighbor resolution are separate network functions; receiving a DHCP option does not make the DHCP server the gateway's link-layer owner.
D:Spanning tree chooses a root bridge for Layer 2 loop prevention and forwarding topology; it does not automatically give that switch the VLAN's HSRP virtual IP. A root bridge might be a different device from the active first-hop router, and it may have no Layer 3 routing function at all. The ARP response for a virtual gateway belongs to the HSRP active member, not simply to the STP root.
Question 41
An administrator has created an SSID in a Cisco WLC GUI and configured its security policy, but users cannot discover or join the WLAN because the WLAN profile is administratively disabled. What must be changed first?
- Change the wired uplink to Telnet mode
- Disable all 802.11 encryption on the SSID
- Remove the SSID from every assigned policy profile
- Enable the WLAN/profile in the controller configuration
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:The WLAN profile's administrative enable state is a prerequisite for the controller to make the configured SSID available to clients. Enable that WLAN and ensure its policy profile, AP policy-tag assignment, and broadcast settings are compatible with the intended deployment. The stated failure occurs before association because the WLAN is disabled, so changing unrelated authentication or wired management settings will not restore service.
Incorrect Answers
A:Telnet is a cleartext terminal-management protocol and has no role in enabling a WLAN that the controller has administratively disabled. Changing the wired uplink's remote-access protocol would not make the SSID appear in beacon frames or permit new client associations. It would also weaken management security compared with a properly configured SSH or HTTPS controller interface.
B:Removing WLAN encryption would modify the security posture, not repair the disabled WLAN profile. The controller will continue withholding client service while that administrative state is off, even if the authentication method is changed. Once the WLAN is enabled, keep the intended protection and troubleshoot client keys, policy mappings, or radio coverage only if those cause a separate problem.
C:An SSID ordinarily needs an appropriate controller policy mapping so associated traffic obtains the intended VLAN and security treatment. Removing all policy assignments is therefore counterproductive and does not change the administratively disabled status described in the question. If clients later associate but fail to pass data, policy-profile and AP-tag mappings would be worth checking then.
Question 42
A switch with IPv4 routing enabled shows C 10.30.40.0/24 is directly connected, Vlan40. What does this routing-table entry establish?
- The switch has an active connected route for 10.30.40.0/24 through Vlan40
- The default route has been learned through Vlan40
- Every host in the VLAN is registered as an OSPF neighbor
- The switch has learned the entire network through a static route via an external next hop
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:The leading C in Cisco IOS's IP routing table denotes a directly connected network; here 10.30.40.0/24 is attached through the operational Vlan40 switched virtual interface. With Layer 3 switching enabled and the SVI up, the switch has an installed route for peers in that subnet. A separate L host entry usually represents the specific SVI address owned by the switch. The table line does not imply OSPF or a manually entered static route.
Incorrect Answers
B:A default route in IPv4 is the catch-all prefix 0.0.0.0/0, not the specific connected 10.30.40.0/24 displayed here. The switch might have a separate default learned from a routing process or configured by an administrator, but this C entry says nothing about it. To inspect a default, look for an installed 0/0 candidate and the relevant route code.
C:An active SVI can route for hosts without any host acting as an OSPF router. An OSPF adjacency requires compatible routing-protocol configuration, interfaces, neighbor exchanges, and router IDs, none of which is shown by the C entry. Ordinary workstations remain IP hosts, and a connected subnet route is created from interface addressing rather than from their participation in a dynamic routing protocol.
D:A manually installed IPv4 static route is ordinarily marked S in IOS routing output, with a defined next hop or exit interface. The displayed C entry instead comes from the switch's own operational Vlan40 Layer 3 connection. A static route through another router might cover a remote prefix, but it is not the mechanism establishing this locally attached /24 network.
Question 43
A link-local next hop appears as fe80::a on an IPv6 interface. Which prefix classification applies?
- 2000::/3 because any fe80 address can be globally routed with a gateway
- fc00::/7 because a router next-hop address must use unique-local space
- fe80::/10 is the IPv6 link-local unicast range
- ff00::/8 because fe80::a is a multicast group used by all neighbors
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:The prefix fe80::/10 identifies IPv6 link-local unicast addresses, including fe80::a. These addresses support neighbor discovery and communication with directly attached devices and are not forwarded by routers onto other links. For a static route with a link-local next hop, Cisco IOS commonly needs an outgoing interface to disambiguate that neighbor's scope. This is different from an IPv6 ULA or a publicly allocated global-unicast prefix.
Incorrect Answers
A:The broad IPv6 global-unicast allocation 2000::/3 does not contain a destination beginning fe80. Even on a router that has a working global default gateway, an IPv6 link-local address cannot be routed beyond its local link. A remote globally routable interface address would be needed for ordinary intersite communication; fe80::a remains meaningful only in a particular interface context.
B:Unique-local IPv6 addressing uses fc00::/7, commonly fd-prefixed locally generated network prefixes. That address family can be routed internally between enterprise links according to policy, but it does not contain the provided fe80::a address. Router next hops often use link-local addresses because directly connected IPv6 neighbors communicate on the same interface, so an ULA is not required for a next hop.
D:IPv6 multicast destination groups begin with ff00::/8, not fe80. Although IPv6 neighbor discovery uses multicast groups such as solicited-node addresses, the provided fe80::a is a unicast address assigned in a local-link scope. Confusing a protocol's use of multicast with an individual neighbor's link-local unicast address would lead to an incorrect route or address classification.
Question 44
A campus switch receives DHCP OFFER messages on a user-facing port from an unauthorized device. Which Layer 2 feature can prevent those replies being forwarded from untrusted ports?
- DHCP snooping
- OSPF passive interface
- NTP client mode
- MAC address aging only
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:DHCP snooping establishes which switch ports are permitted to carry DHCP server replies. A user-facing access port should ordinarily remain untrusted, allowing a switch to discard a rogue DHCP OFFER arriving there rather than forwarding it to clients. Trusted uplinks toward authorized DHCP servers must be configured carefully, and a binding table can support related protections such as dynamic ARP inspection. The observed bad message type and ingress port precisely match snooping's enforcement point.
Incorrect Answers
B:An OSPF passive-interface configuration suppresses routing-neighbor formation on selected Layer 3 interfaces while possibly still advertising their networks. The rogue DHCP OFFER is a Layer 2 access-security problem, not an OSPF adjacency or route-advertisement problem. Making a routed interface passive would not teach a switch which user ports may deliver DHCP server responses, so the malicious offers would remain possible.
C:NTP client configuration tells a device which clock source to use and helps make syslog timestamps consistent. It does not inspect DHCP message classes or distinguish authorized from rogue DHCP servers. The problem is an OFFER entering from a user port, which requires a switching trust boundary; NTP would be pertinent only if the incident-response team also needed reliable device time for its audit trail.
D:MAC-address aging removes learned Ethernet forwarding entries after inactivity so a switch can relearn host locations. It does not validate DHCP client/server roles, parse OFFER messages, or stop a hostile access device from answering a discovery broadcast. Although MAC-table behavior affects ordinary frame delivery, preventing replies from untrusted ports requires an explicit DHCP protocol-aware feature rather than merely shorter or longer aging timers.
Question 45
A monitoring script must retrieve a controller inventory resource without modifying it. Which HTTP method most directly matches this read operation in REST?
- POST
- GET
- DELETE
- PATCH
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:GET is the standard HTTP method for retrieving the representation of a resource without intending to change that resource's state. For this controller inventory request, a read-authorized client sends GET to the appropriate resource URI and processes the returned representation and response code. It may use caching or conditional headers when supported, but must still authenticate and handle errors. The question explicitly excludes modification, so GET is the most direct semantic match.
Incorrect Answers
A:POST commonly submits data for creation or an action whose semantics are defined by the API. Some APIs expose read-like operations through POST, but for a conventional REST resource retrieval the method does not express the safe, read-only intent as directly as GET. A monitoring script should also avoid accidentally triggering a state-changing operation on the controller inventory endpoint.
C:DELETE requests removal of the addressed resource and is a potentially destructive method, the opposite of a simple monitoring read. If the client has broad permissions and mistakenly invokes DELETE, controller inventory or configuration could be altered. A properly designed monitor should hold only read access and use a safe retrieval method, reserving DELETE for an independently authorized resource-deletion workflow.
D:PATCH is used to submit a partial modification to a resource, such as changing one configuration field without replacing the whole document. The script in this scenario merely wants to observe controller inventory and explicitly must not change it. PATCH therefore represents an inappropriate write operation; it would be relevant to an authorized configuration-management client rather than a read-only monitor.
Question 46
A router generates %LINK-3-UPDOWN in a syslog line. Under Cisco syslog conventions, what does the number 3 represent?
- The interface VLAN number
- The third retry attempt for a line protocol
- Severity 3, conventionally labeled error
- The time-to-live value of the original packet
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:In the standard Cisco syslog message structure, %LINK-3-UPDOWN places severity 3 between the LINK facility and the UPDOWN mnemonic. Severity 3 conventionally means an error-level condition; lower numbers represent greater urgency, with 0 reserved for emergencies. The line does not state the VLAN, transport port, or packet TTL in this field. Operators can use severity for alert thresholds while reading the remainder of the message to identify the affected interface.
Incorrect Answers
A:The numeral between the syslog facility and the mnemonic in a Cisco message is a severity classification, not a VLAN identifier. VLAN numbers appear in configuration, interface context, or sometimes the message payload, but do not occupy this fixed severity position. A facility such as LINK tells which subsystem generated the event, while the numeric field provides a level for filtering and escalation.
B:Cisco's conventional percent-delimited syslog header does not use that position to count retries. An event might describe a third attempted operation inside its message body, but the header value 3 has a standardized severity meaning. When troubleshooting an interface transition, read the actual event text and timestamp separately from the severity to avoid inventing an unsuccessful retry sequence.
D:An IPv4 TTL field is carried in an IP packet and is decreased by routers as a hop-limit safeguard. It is not the number in a Cisco syslog header, even when a link event was triggered by traffic problems. The fixed %FACILITY-SEVERITY-MNEMONIC structure identifies message origin and urgency, so the packet-level TTL would need to be inspected separately in a packet capture.
Question 47
A router has two independent routes to 192.0.2.0/24: a static route with administrative distance 1 and an OSPF route with administrative distance 110. Both next hops are reachable. Which route normally enters the forwarding table?
- The OSPF route because every dynamic route overrides static
- Both routes because their next hops differ
- The static route with distance 1
- The route installed most recently
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:For a pair of valid routes to the same destination prefix, administrative distance ranks how much the router trusts their sources. The statically configured route has administrative distance 1, lower and therefore preferred to the OSPF route at 110, so the static path normally supplies the forwarding next hop. Both addresses remain reachable, but reachability alone does not override source preference. The OSPF alternative could be used following withdrawal or failure of the preferred static path.
Incorrect Answers
A:An OSPF route does not automatically outrank a static route merely because it was learned dynamically. For routes to the exact same /24 prefix, Cisco's route-source selection ordinarily compares administrative distance first. The static entry has distance 1 and the OSPF entry has distance 110, so OSPF would be the preferred option only if the static route were removed, invalidated, or given a larger configured distance.
B:Two reachable next hops do not mean two different route sources are installed as equal-cost paths. ECMP generally applies to eligible routes with compatible selection attributes, including acceptable administrative distances and metrics for the same route source or design. In this case the static distance 1 is more preferred than OSPF distance 110, so both paths are not installed as equal-cost simply because both next hops work.
D:Installation time is not the governing preference when Cisco IOS has valid competing route sources with different administrative distances. Dynamic topology changes can influence which routes remain usable, but a newly learned OSPF route at distance 110 does not replace an otherwise valid distance-1 static route merely because it arrived later. Read the destination prefix, administrative distance, and route status instead of assuming that the latest update wins.
Question 48
An IP phone and a computer share one switch port. The computer needs untagged VLAN 10 and the phone should tag its voice frames for VLAN 110. Which TWO interface commands provide the VLAN assignments? Choose TWO.
- switchport access vlan 10
- switchport trunk allowed vlan 10,110
- switchport access vlan 110
- switchport voice vlan 110
- switchport mode dynamic auto
Explanation
Correct Answers
A:switchport access vlan 10 assigns the untagged data VLAN for frames arriving from the attached workstation on the phone-and-PC access connection. It complements the voice VLAN command rather than replacing it. The phone can send its voice traffic with an 802.1Q voice tag while transparently passing ordinary computer traffic untagged into VLAN 10. The two VLANs and associated network paths must exist for full service.
D:switchport voice vlan 110 designates VLAN 110 for tagged voice traffic from a compatible IP telephone, separately from the ordinary untagged access VLAN. In combination with switchport access vlan 10, it fulfills the two explicit port-membership requirements without enabling conventional switch-to-switch trunk negotiation. The phone must support the voice VLAN behavior and both VLANs must be operational on the switch and upstream network for end-to-end service.
Incorrect Answers
B:A trunk allowed-VLAN list applies to a port configured to operate as a normal multi-VLAN trunk between suitable endpoints. A standard Cisco IP-phone access-port design does not require turning the switchport into a conventional trunk or setting an allowed list. The data and voice memberships are expressed with access and voice VLAN commands, with compatible phone discovery and QoS settings where necessary.
C:switchport access vlan 110 would move the untagged workstation traffic into VLAN 110, contrary to the explicit need for the computer to use VLAN 10. VLAN 110 is intended for the phone's tagged voice frames, not as the untagged access VLAN here. Assign the access VLAN as 10 and identify voice 110 separately to preserve the correct data/voice separation.
E:switchport mode dynamic auto leaves the interface capable of responding to a peer's Dynamic Trunking Protocol negotiation rather than explicitly establishing a fixed phone-and-PC access design. It does not assign either the required data VLAN or the phone voice VLAN. A user-facing port should normally be set to its intended access role; the separately specified access and voice VLAN commands supply the necessary memberships.
Question 49
On a Windows workstation, the help desk needs DHCP lease details, DNS server assignments and interface addresses in one command. What should it run?
- ipconfig /displaydns
- route print
- ipconfig /all
- netstat -ano
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:On Windows, ipconfig /all enumerates detailed IP configuration for each network adapter. The display commonly includes IPv4/IPv6 addresses, subnet masks, default gateways, DHCP enablement, lease obtained/expiry times, and DNS servers. Those are exactly the kinds of facts the help desk requested together. Output must still be interpreted per adapter, especially when VPNs or multiple interfaces are present, rather than assuming every listed adapter is the active client connection.
Incorrect Answers
A:ipconfig /displaydns reports the Windows resolver's cached DNS records and can help determine whether an old name-to-address resolution remains cached. It does not provide the comprehensive per-adapter DHCP lease information, configured DNS server addresses, subnet mask, and gateway that the help desk needs. Use it for DNS cache troubleshooting after collecting the full adapter configuration, not as a substitute for ipconfig /all.
B:route print displays the workstation's IPv4 and IPv6 routing tables, including destination prefixes, gateway choices, interfaces, and metrics. It can be useful after identifying a wrong route or default gateway. However, it does not provide the complete DHCP lease dates, DNS server list, and per-adapter lease parameters demanded in one command by this case. The command is routing-focused rather than adapter-configuration-focused.
D:netstat -ano lists active sockets and listening endpoints with addresses, ports, connection states, and process IDs. That information is useful for tracking which local process owns a TCP connection, but not for retrieving the host's DHCP lease or configured resolver list. The user needs adapter parameters, not a snapshot of current transport sessions; choose the Windows command designed for the former.
Question 50
An engineer enters credentials and successfully connects to a switch. The device then checks whether that account may enter configuration mode. Which AAA function governs the second decision?
- Authentication
- Authorization
- Accounting
- Address translation
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:Authorization evaluates what an already authenticated administrator is permitted to do on the switch. In this case the identity is known, but entering configuration mode or executing privileged commands may require an assigned role, privilege level, or an AAA policy decision. This separation supports least privilege: an engineer can sign in for inspection without automatically gaining the ability to alter device state. Accounting can then record the actions performed.
Incorrect Answers
A:Authentication is the first AAA decision: it establishes that the presented credentials correspond to an identity allowed to log in. The scenario explicitly says the engineer has successfully connected, so the remaining question is not who the user is but whether that identity can enter configuration mode. Valid authentication can coexist with restricted command privileges; a separate authorization policy must enforce those limits.
C:Accounting records activities such as login time, session duration, and executed commands for audit purposes. It can help investigators establish who entered configuration mode after the fact, but it does not itself grant or deny that privilege. Because the second step explicitly checks permission before allowing configuration, authorization is the relevant AAA function, with accounting serving a complementary monitoring role.
D:Address translation rewrites IP addresses or ports at a network boundary and is unrelated to the AAA management-access workflow. Neither source NAT nor destination NAT can determine whether an authenticated administrator may issue configuration commands. The second decision is an identity-and-privilege check internal to device access control, not a packet-forwarding or IP address-mapping operation.