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Cisco 200-301 Practice Test 6

Question 50

An engineer enters credentials and successfully connects to a switch. The device then checks whether that account may enter configuration mode. Which AAA function governs the second decision?

  1. Authentication
  2. Authorization
  3. Accounting
  4. Address translation

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Authorization evaluates what an already authenticated administrator is permitted to do on the switch. In this case the identity is known, but entering configuration mode or executing privileged commands may require an assigned role, privilege level, or an AAA policy decision. This separation supports least privilege: an engineer can sign in for inspection without automatically gaining the ability to alter device state. Accounting can then record the actions performed.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Authentication is the first AAA decision: it establishes that the presented credentials correspond to an identity allowed to log in. The scenario explicitly says the engineer has successfully connected, so the remaining question is not who the user is but whether that identity can enter configuration mode. Valid authentication can coexist with restricted command privileges; a separate authorization policy must enforce those limits.

C:

Accounting records activities such as login time, session duration, and executed commands for audit purposes. It can help investigators establish who entered configuration mode after the fact, but it does not itself grant or deny that privilege. Because the second step explicitly checks permission before allowing configuration, authorization is the relevant AAA function, with accounting serving a complementary monitoring role.

D:

Address translation rewrites IP addresses or ports at a network boundary and is unrelated to the AAA management-access workflow. Neither source NAT nor destination NAT can determine whether an authenticated administrator may issue configuration commands. The second decision is an identity-and-privilege check internal to device access control, not a packet-forwarding or IP address-mapping operation.

Question 51

R1 has a static route ip route 10.30.0.0 255.255.0.0 192.0.2.2. A new branch should receive traffic for only subnet 10.30.7.0/24; other 10.30.x.x destinations must continue using their existing routes. Which replacement statement correctly narrows the static destination prefix to that one branch subnet?

  1. ip route 10.30.7.0 255.255.255.0 192.0.2.2
  2. ip route 10.30.0.0 255.255.0.0 192.0.2.2
  3. ip route 10.30.7.0 0.0.0.255 192.0.2.2
  4. ip route 10.30.7.7 255.255.255.255 192.0.2.2

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

The IOS static-route statement uses the exact remote destination network 10.30.7.0, its contiguous /24 mask 255.255.255.0, and the reachable next hop 192.0.2.2. Replacing the existing /16 with this /24 confines the static path to the intended branch segment. Other 10.30.x.x destinations then follow their own installed routes instead of being inadvertently caught by an overly broad summary. Confirm the next hop remains reachable before relying on the route.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Leaving 10.30.0.0 255.255.0.0 in the static route continues covering every subnet inside 10.30.0.0/16 unless a more-specific installed route overrides it. The requirement explicitly asks for only 10.30.7.0/24 to use the branch next hop. Keeping the summary is therefore a risky traffic-capture error, not a narrowing of the destination. Static routes must be reviewed for their actual address coverage.

C:

The dotted-decimal value 0.0.0.255 is a wildcard mask often used in ACL or certain routing-protocol matching expressions, but ordinary IOS ip route destination masks use contiguous subnet masks such as 255.255.255.0. Substituting a wildcard in that position is not the correct route definition for /24. The source and destination syntax differ between configuration contexts; do not transfer an ACL wildcard into a static-route command.

D:

A static /32 host route to 10.30.7.7 would cover only that one exact host address. It would not forward packets for other members of 10.30.7.0/24 to the branch, leaving the stated subnet-level requirement unsatisfied. Host routes are appropriate when a single destination needs special next-hop treatment, whereas this scenario requires all addresses of one /24 network to be covered.

Question 52

A technician needs a concise operational report of which interfaces are currently trunking and the VLANs allowed and forwarding on those trunks. Which command should be used?

  1. show ip interface brief
  2. show vlan brief
  3. show interfaces trunk
  4. show mac address-table

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

show interfaces trunk lists interfaces currently operating as trunks and displays information such as trunk encapsulation/status, native VLAN, permitted VLANs, and VLANs active or forwarding on the trunk. It therefore directly addresses both parts of the request: identify operational trunk ports and inspect which VLANs can traverse them. If a required VLAN is absent, compare the allowed list, local VLAN database, and spanning-tree forwarding state before changing configurations.

Incorrect Answers

A:

show ip interface brief displays interface IPv4 address information and line/protocol status on capable IOS devices. It is a useful first check when investigating a down routed interface or wrong SVI address. It does not enumerate current 802.1Q trunks and their allowed, active, and forwarding VLAN lists, which are the specific operational details requested here. Use the trunk-focused display for that Layer 2 question.

B:

show vlan brief summarizes the VLAN database and often shows access-port membership. It can confirm that VLAN 20 or 30 exists, but it does not provide the detailed operational trunk allowed lists and forwarding state per trunk. An engineer might use both commands in a complete diagnosis, yet only the trunk display directly answers which interfaces are trunking and what VLANs are eligible to cross each.

D:

show mac address-table reports learned Ethernet MAC addresses, their VLAN association, and the switch ports toward those destinations. That helps trace endpoint traffic or confirm a host has been learned. A learned MAC on a trunk does not tell the operator the complete VLAN allowed list or whether every permitted VLAN is currently forwarding. The requested view is an interface/trunk membership summary rather than endpoint forwarding-table content.

Question 53

Three co-located 2.4-GHz Wi-Fi networks need a conservative nonoverlapping 20-MHz channel plan where regulatory channels 1, 6 and 11 are available. Which grouping fits?

  1. Use channels 1, 2 and 3 to distribute three adjacent cells
  2. Use channels 1, 4 and 7 because three-channel separation prevents any overlap
  3. Channels 1, 6 and 11 for nonoverlapping 2.4-GHz 20-MHz cells
  4. Configure channels 6, 8 and 10 because all are in the middle of the band

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

For a conventional 20-MHz plan in a regulatory domain where all three are available, channels 1, 6, and 11 are the standard conservatively nonoverlapping 2.4-GHz set. Their center-frequency spacing reduces adjacent-channel overlap compared with nearby alternatives. Appropriate RF power, physical spacing, client density, and interference surveys still matter, because even nonoverlapping cells may compete for airtime when co-channel energy is detectable. The scenario provides the regulatory availability needed to select this set.

Incorrect Answers

A:

2.4-GHz Wi-Fi channels have center frequencies separated by about 5 MHz, while an ordinary 20-MHz WLAN occupies far more than one channel step. Choosing adjacent centers 1, 2, and 3 creates substantial overlapping spectra, so cells can interfere even if each AP has a different channel number. The stated requirement is three conservatively separated cells, not merely three distinct identifiers.

B:

Channels 1, 4, and 7 are only three channel numbers apart. That is insufficient spacing for a conservative nonoverlapping 20-MHz design in the 2.4-GHz band, even where the three numbers are permitted by local regulation. The resulting overlap can cause adjacent-channel interference and poor airtime use. Channel separation should be evaluated with the actual bandwidth and physical RF plan, not just a simple numeric difference.

D:

Channels 6, 8, and 10 are clustered within the middle of the 2.4-GHz spectrum, with only two-number gaps between adjacent selections. For 20-MHz operation their occupied spectra overlap considerably, so separating AP labels would not prevent adjacent-channel interference. A site may legitimately reuse the same chosen channel at appropriate physical separation, but the question explicitly asks for three co-located conservative nonoverlapping choices.

Question 54

R1 cannot form an adjacency to R2 across an Ethernet interface. Which command first shows OSPF neighbor router IDs, states and neighbor addresses for troubleshooting?

  1. show interfaces trunk
  2. show cdp neighbors
  3. show ip arp
  4. show ip ospf neighbor

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

show ip ospf neighbor displays OSPFv2 neighbors, including router IDs, neighbor IP addresses, relevant interfaces, and state such as INIT, 2-WAY, EXSTART, or FULL when a neighbor is present. That output directly indicates whether R2 has been discovered and how far the adjacency has progressed. If no neighbor appears, follow with interface, IP connectivity, area, Hello/dead timer, passive-interface, authentication, and MTU checks as appropriate. It is the correct initial operational view for this exact failure.

Incorrect Answers

A:

show interfaces trunk is a Layer 2 switching diagnostic that reports operational 802.1Q trunk ports and VLAN membership. It can be relevant if an OSPF peering issue is ultimately traced to VLAN carriage, but it does not display OSPF neighbor router IDs or adjacency states. Since R1 cannot form the OSPF adjacency, first inspect the protocol's neighbor table rather than inferring state from unrelated trunk output.

B:

show cdp neighbors identifies directly connected Cisco devices advertising CDP on supported links. Seeing the peer in CDP proves some local discovery connectivity but not that OSPF timers, area, subnet, authentication, or router IDs are compatible. The question requires protocol state and neighbor addressing, which must be read from OSPF operational commands rather than the generic Layer 2 device-discovery summary.

C:

show ip arp maps known local IPv4 neighbors to link-layer addresses, which can help diagnose whether an on-link IP next hop has resolved at Layer 2. ARP reachability does not establish that OSPF Hello packets were exchanged or that the routers reached FULL adjacency. It also does not list OSPF neighbor router IDs and states, so a protocol-specific show command is the more direct first test.

Question 55

A team wants to push repeatable interface configuration to Cisco routers through SSH using YAML-defined plays and an inventory of devices. Which mechanism most directly fits?

  1. DNS zone replication
  2. Ansible playbooks and inventory
  3. SNMP trap-only collection
  4. An unmanaged Ethernet hub

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Ansible uses YAML playbooks to describe repeatable tasks and an inventory to identify targeted network devices and connection variables. With suitable network collections and supported SSH transports, it can apply reviewed Cisco IOS interface settings to many routers consistently. The operator should choose appropriate modules, protect credentials, test on a small device set, and examine reported changes rather than assuming all devices share identical features. This directly matches the requested YAML-and-inventory configuration workflow.

Incorrect Answers

A:

DNS zone replication distributes domain-name records among name servers to support consistent name resolution. It does not execute router interface commands, maintain a fleet inventory for configuration, or run YAML-defined plays across SSH transports. Although automation may update DNS data, that is a different problem domain. The team wants declarative network device management with repeated tasks and idempotent configuration, which needs an automation platform that understands network modules.

C:

SNMP traps are event notifications pushed from managed devices to a monitoring receiver. They are useful for detecting interface changes or other supported events, but a trap collector is not a YAML playbook engine and does not organize ordered configuration tasks over SSH. Some SNMP variants support controlled writes, but that is not the inventory-and-playbook mechanism specified by the scenario. Configuration deployment and event notification serve different purposes.

D:

An unmanaged Ethernet hub repeats received electrical signals toward attached ports without interpreting Cisco IOS configuration tasks. It cannot store YAML plays, authenticate to routers, or apply device-specific interface configuration. Adding a hub would also fail to address consistency problems caused by manual editing. The question concerns centralized software orchestration, not a change in the physical Ethernet collision or broadcast topology.

Question 56

An IOS router interface on the WAN is expected to obtain its IPv4 address dynamically from an upstream DHCP server. Which interface command supplies that behavior?

  1. ip helper-address 198.51.100.1
  2. ip address dhcp
  3. ip dhcp pool WAN
  4. ntp server 198.51.100.1

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

ip address dhcp is the IOS interface configuration that makes that interface request an IPv4 address and related options from an available DHCP server rather than using a fixed local address. For the described WAN connection, apply it on the appropriate routed interface and ensure the upstream DHCP exchange and link are permitted. Verify the resulting lease and interface status with appropriate show commands; a pool or helper statement would serve different DHCP roles.

Incorrect Answers

A:

ip helper-address under an IOS interface supports relaying selected broadcast service requests, commonly DHCP client broadcasts, toward a configured server across a routed boundary. It is normally used on a router interface facing clients on another subnet. The question instead needs the WAN interface itself to become a DHCP client and obtain an address lease; a relay destination does not request or install the router's own IP address.

C:

ip dhcp pool WAN introduces local DHCP server pool configuration on an IOS router, allowing it to distribute addresses to clients when other pool settings are supplied. It does not configure its own WAN interface to obtain a lease from the provider or upstream network. The important distinction is who is requesting an address and who is offering one. Here the router WAN port is the requesting DHCP client.

D:

ntp server 198.51.100.1 configures a time-synchronization source for the router's clock and has no role in assigning IPv4 interface addresses or gateway parameters. Reliable time is valuable for log correlation, but it does not replace an upstream DHCP lease exchange. The specific requirement is a dynamically addressed WAN interface, so the configuration must enable the DHCP client function under that interface.

Question 57

A wireless network currently permits legacy WPA with TKIP, but its client devices support WPA2 AES-CCMP. Which security transition most directly removes the older TKIP dependence?

  1. Configure WPA2 with AES-CCMP for supported clients
  2. Disable WLAN authentication and make the SSID open
  3. Switch the access VLAN to native VLAN 1
  4. Make the DHCP pool larger

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

WPA2 with AES-CCMP removes dependence on legacy WPA/TKIP for supported clients and provides a stronger wireless data-protection baseline. Configure the WLAN security mode and cipher consistently on the access points or controller, and verify the clients can complete the selected authentication method. The requirement explicitly says the clients support this combination, eliminating a common compatibility obstacle. Security is not improved by changing VLAN numbering or DHCP capacity while leaving TKIP enabled.

Incorrect Answers

B:

An open WLAN removes normal link-layer authentication and confidentiality rather than replacing TKIP with a modern protected association. A captive portal may still provide application-layer access checks, but it does not make the 802.11 link equivalent to WPA2 AES-CCMP encryption. Because the user explicitly wants to eliminate an old cipher while retaining secure access, removing security is contrary to the intent and increases exposure.

C:

A trunk native VLAN determines how certain untagged wired Ethernet frames are classified. It cannot switch a wireless SSID's cipher from TKIP to CCMP or change the wireless authentication handshake. VLAN design should be reviewed separately for data segmentation, but the observed weakness is in 802.11 protection settings. Changing a native VLAN might break connectivity without addressing the outdated wireless encryption mechanism.

D:

A larger DHCP address pool helps when clients associate successfully but cannot obtain a lease because available addresses have been exhausted. It neither changes how WPA/TKIP protects radio frames nor negotiates AES-CCMP security. The security upgrade must be performed in the WLAN's authentication and encryption configuration. DHCP capacity would be a separate post-association troubleshooting concern if clients subsequently reported addressing failures.

Question 58

A Cisco access switch has CDP enabled. A technician wants the adjacent Cisco router’s reported IP address and platform description, not just its neighboring port ID. Which command best supplies those details?

  1. show ip route
  2. show vlan brief
  3. show cdp neighbors detail
  4. show interfaces counters errors

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

show cdp neighbors detail expands Cisco Discovery Protocol neighbor data beyond device IDs and local/remote port information. When the peer advertises them, it commonly includes platform description and one or more IP management addresses, exactly the fields requested. CDP must be enabled and functional on both participating interfaces, and the information should be treated as discovery evidence rather than authenticated identity. The basic neighbor display would provide less detail.

Incorrect Answers

A:

show ip route displays installed Layer 3 destination networks and their forwarding next hops. The table may include a route to the adjacent router's advertised address, but it cannot reliably reveal that device's Cisco platform model, device identifier, or all management addresses. The technician wants attributes learned from a direct discovery advertisement, not simply whether an IP prefix is reachable through a route.

B:

show vlan brief lists VLANs and common access-port membership on a switch. It is useful when confirming whether a port belongs to the intended data VLAN, but has no CDP neighbor platform or management-address fields. Even a correct VLAN configuration does not reveal which model of router is connected. A detailed discovery command is needed for that directly attached Cisco peer.

D:

show interfaces counters errors displays packet error counters such as FCS, CRC, alignment, or other interface-specific statistics and helps diagnose cable or duplex faults. It does not parse CDP advertisements into a neighbor's platform description or advertised IP addresses. Those data are about a neighboring device's identity and capabilities rather than the physical reliability of the link. Use counters only if a separate link health issue is suspected.

Question 59

One physical host is required to run separate guest operating systems that each believe they have their own hardware. Which platform component provides that abstraction?

  1. A hypervisor allocates virtual hardware resources to independent virtual machines
  2. Use operating-system process namespaces alone to boot multiple fully independent guest kernels
  3. Use a software virtual Ethernet switch to allocate CPU, memory, and virtual disk hardware to guest OSs
  4. Assign separate VLAN IDs because Ethernet tagging independently virtualizes the operating systems

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

A hypervisor creates and manages virtual machines by allocating each guest virtual CPUs, memory, storage controllers, network adapters, and other abstracted hardware. A guest operating system can boot its own kernel against that virtual hardware while sharing physical resources under the hypervisor's control. This satisfies the requirement that multiple OS instances behave like independent computers. A virtual switch might connect their networks, but the hypervisor provides the broader compute and memory abstraction.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Operating-system namespaces isolate processes, filesystems, networks, and other resources within a shared host kernel in typical container architectures. They do not by themselves provide complete independent virtual hardware for multiple guest operating-system kernels. Containers can be useful for packaging applications that share a compatible kernel, but the scenario explicitly needs separately bootable operating systems that each perceive their own machines, calling for virtual machines under a hypervisor.

C:

A software virtual Ethernet switch connects virtual network interfaces and can forward traffic among virtual machines and physical uplinks. It does not independently assign all guest CPU cores, memory, virtual disks, and boot environments. Those resources are managed by a hypervisor or equivalent virtualization platform. The answer might be relevant if the question asked only how guest NICs exchange frames, but not how entire guest operating systems are hosted.

D:

VLAN tags separate Ethernet traffic into logical Layer 2 broadcast domains; they do not provide an emulated processor, physical memory isolation, or a separately booted guest operating-system kernel. VLANs could segment a set of already-existing virtual machines, but they are not the mechanism that makes those VMs exist on one physical server. The required abstraction is compute virtualization, not merely network segmentation.

Question 60

R1 is HSRP active for a VLAN, and R2 is standby. R1 loses power, while R2 remains healthy and the HSRP peer failure is detected. What is the expected gateway behavior?

  1. R2 can become active and take over virtual-gateway forwarding
  2. Every host must change to R2’s physical interface IP before forwarding resumes
  3. Both routers immediately reset to factory defaults
  4. The surviving router must disable Layer 3 routing to avoid duplicate gateways

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

HSRP maintains a shared virtual gateway IP and MAC identity for a redundancy group. When the active R1 becomes unavailable and failure detection completes, healthy standby R2 can transition to the active role and forward packets destined for the virtual gateway. Hosts normally keep using the same configured default-gateway IP throughout the transition, although a short interruption is possible. Successful failover still depends on appropriate group configuration and upstream routing on R2.

Incorrect Answers

B:

HSRP exists to avoid forcing clients to change their configured default gateway after an upstream router failure. The hosts reference the virtual gateway address rather than the individual physical address of whichever router is active. Manual client reconfiguration would defeat the protocol's purpose and is unnecessary under the stated healthy standby assumptions. Only troubleshooting a separately broken virtual group or network design would require host changes.

C:

An HSRP role election does not erase router startup configurations or invoke a factory reset. Losing power on R1 causes it to stop participating; R2 reacts after the appropriate failure-detection interval. The surviving router retains its operating configuration and can take the active role for the shared gateway. Erasing configuration would destroy the redundancy design rather than provide normal failover behavior.

D:

The surviving router should continue Layer 3 forwarding on behalf of the virtual gateway when HSRP promotes it to active. Disabling IP routing on R2 would break the host-to-remote-network path that the redundancy mechanism is meant to preserve. Split-brain prevention and active/standby coordination use HSRP state exchanges and priority rules, not a general shutdown of routing on the healthy standby device.

Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) (200-301) Practice Tests