Microsoft SC-900 Practice Test 74
Question 730
An accounts clerk receives invoice attachments that may contain malware. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?
- Only approved flows traverse the central firewall while prohibited traffic is logged or denied.
- Malicious attachments are blocked or handled according to the configured action before users consume them.
- Test events meeting detection criteria produce expected alerts or incidents without overwhelming false positives.
- Administrators can manage target VMs through Bastion while direct public RDP or SSH exposure is absent.
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:Malicious attachments are blocked or handled according to the configured action before users consume them. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. Safe Attachments focuses on file-based email threats, whereas Safe Links protects URLs.
Incorrect Answers
A:Only approved flows traverse the central firewall while prohibited traffic is logged or denied. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure Firewall. Its appropriate purpose is: Azure Firewall is a managed stateful network security service; it is not an identity provider or a retention tool. For the stated case, Defender for Office 365 Safe Attachments is the closer match. Safe Attachments focuses on file-based email threats, whereas Safe Links protects URLs.
C:Test events meeting detection criteria produce expected alerts or incidents without overwhelming false positives. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Sentinel analytics rules. Its appropriate purpose is: Sentinel analytics rules evaluate telemetry to raise detections; collecting logs alone is insufficient to identify a defined pattern. For the stated case, Defender for Office 365 Safe Attachments is the closer match. Safe Attachments focuses on file-based email threats, whereas Safe Links protects URLs.
D:Administrators can manage target VMs through Bastion while direct public RDP or SSH exposure is absent. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure Bastion. Its appropriate purpose is: Bastion supplies browser- or client-mediated secure VM management access; it is not a DDoS service. For the stated case, Defender for Office 365 Safe Attachments is the closer match. Safe Attachments focuses on file-based email threats, whereas Safe Links protects URLs.
Question 731
A student portal receives SQL-injection-style requests through its public HTTPS endpoint. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?
- Inspect WAF rules, managed-rule matches and HTTP request logs for the affected endpoint.
- Inspect device vulnerability inventory, recommendations, software exposure and remediation status.
- Inspect policy assignments, noncompliant resources and recommendation-to-remediation mappings.
- Inspect automation rule triggers, Logic Apps playbook runs and action execution outcomes.
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:Inspect WAF rules, managed-rule matches and HTTP request logs for the affected endpoint. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. A WAF targets application-layer HTTP risks such as injection, unlike basic network port filtering.
Incorrect Answers
B:Inspect device vulnerability inventory, recommendations, software exposure and remediation status. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender Vulnerability Management. Its appropriate purpose is: Vulnerability management focuses on identifying and prioritizing exposures; it is distinct from active incident correlation. For the stated case, Azure Web Application Firewall is the closer match. A WAF targets application-layer HTTP risks such as injection, unlike basic network port filtering.
C:Inspect policy assignments, noncompliant resources and recommendation-to-remediation mappings. This item belongs to a different control area: Cloud security policies and recommendations. Its appropriate purpose is: A recommendation identifies a technical improvement; a documented policy or assigned standard provides expectations for assessed resources. For the stated case, Azure Web Application Firewall is the closer match. A WAF targets application-layer HTTP risks such as injection, unlike basic network port filtering.
D:Inspect automation rule triggers, Logic Apps playbook runs and action execution outcomes. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Sentinel SOAR playbooks. Its appropriate purpose is: SOAR automates and orchestrates workflows; it complements rather than replaces detection analytics and human judgment. For the stated case, Azure Web Application Firewall is the closer match. A WAF targets application-layer HTTP risks such as injection, unlike basic network port filtering.
Question 732
An internal investigation must find relevant communication records while avoiding accidental alteration. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.
- Use Microsoft Purview eDiscovery to identify, preserve and collect relevant content for authorized investigations.
- Inspect assessments, improvement actions, assigned owners and uploaded evidence.
- Test sharing of covered sensitive data triggers the intended warning, block or audit action as configured.
- Use Microsoft Purview Activity explorer to review events associated with labels and protection activities in supported workloads.
- Inspect eDiscovery cases, custodians, holds, search results and export or review actions.
Explanation
Correct Answers
A:Use Microsoft Purview eDiscovery to identify, preserve and collect relevant content for authorized investigations. This is the directly applicable response. eDiscovery supports legal and regulatory evidence workflows; it is distinct from real-time data loss prevention.
E:Inspect eDiscovery cases, custodians, holds, search results and export or review actions. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. eDiscovery supports legal and regulatory evidence workflows; it is distinct from real-time data loss prevention.
Incorrect Answers
B:Inspect assessments, improvement actions, assigned owners and uploaded evidence. This item belongs to a different control area: Compliance Manager. Its appropriate purpose is: Compliance Manager maps control activities and improvements; it does not automatically guarantee legal compliance. For the stated case, Microsoft Purview eDiscovery is the closer match. eDiscovery supports legal and regulatory evidence workflows; it is distinct from real-time data loss prevention.
C:Test sharing of covered sensitive data triggers the intended warning, block or audit action as configured. This item belongs to a different control area: Data loss prevention policies. Its appropriate purpose is: DLP controls risky data movement based on policy conditions; labeling alone does not enforce every transmission restriction. For the stated case, Microsoft Purview eDiscovery is the closer match. eDiscovery supports legal and regulatory evidence workflows; it is distinct from real-time data loss prevention.
D:Use Microsoft Purview Activity explorer to review events associated with labels and protection activities in supported workloads. This item belongs to a different control area: Activity explorer. Its appropriate purpose is: Activity explorer focuses on what happened to data, unlike Content explorer's inventory of classified content. For the stated case, Microsoft Purview eDiscovery is the closer match. eDiscovery supports legal and regulatory evidence workflows; it is distinct from real-time data loss prevention.
Question 733
A compliance officer wants searchable evidence of selected administrative and user actions in the tenant. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?
- The compliance analyst can access the intended Purview capability under the appropriate permissions.
- The investigator finds applicable activity events and can document who performed an action and when.
- The reviewer obtains the applicable provider assurance documentation without treating it as proof of the customer's controls.
- Intended users can apply the approved label and the configured protection behaves on labeled content.
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:The investigator finds applicable activity events and can document who performed an action and when. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. Audit provides activity logging and search, not a tool to classify documents or automatically enforce retention.
Incorrect Answers
A:The compliance analyst can access the intended Purview capability under the appropriate permissions. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Purview portal. Its appropriate purpose is: The Purview portal is a central interface for multiple compliance and data-governance solutions, not itself a finished compliance certification. For the stated case, Microsoft Purview Audit is the closer match. Audit provides activity logging and search, not a tool to classify documents or automatically enforce retention.
C:The reviewer obtains the applicable provider assurance documentation without treating it as proof of the customer's controls. This item belongs to a different control area: Service Trust Portal. Its appropriate purpose is: The Service Trust Portal offers Microsoft service assurance resources; customers remain responsible for their own compliance obligations. For the stated case, Microsoft Purview Audit is the closer match. Audit provides activity logging and search, not a tool to classify documents or automatically enforce retention.
D:Intended users can apply the approved label and the configured protection behaves on labeled content. This item belongs to a different control area: Sensitivity labels. Its appropriate purpose is: Sensitivity labels classify content and may apply protection; labels must be made available through appropriate policy publishing. For the stated case, Microsoft Purview Audit is the closer match. Audit provides activity logging and search, not a tool to classify documents or automatically enforce retention.
Question 734
A retiring employee's departure date should initiate consistent access removal and notification tasks. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?
- Expected in-scope users and attribute updates appear in Entra ID without duplicate cloud accounts.
- Known weak or organization-specific passwords are rejected where the configured protection is enforced.
- Authorized users can reset forgotten passwords after meeting the defined verification requirements.
- The specified lifecycle event triggers consistent identity tasks and leaves auditable results.
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:The specified lifecycle event triggers consistent identity tasks and leaves auditable results. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. Lifecycle workflows automate repeatable identity onboarding and offboarding tasks; review of ongoing entitlements remains a separate control.
Incorrect Answers
A:Expected in-scope users and attribute updates appear in Entra ID without duplicate cloud accounts. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Entra Connect synchronization. Its appropriate purpose is: Directory synchronization must be scoped and observed; enabling it without verifying source objects can create identity drift. For the stated case, Lifecycle workflows is the closer match. Lifecycle workflows automate repeatable identity onboarding and offboarding tasks; review of ongoing entitlements remains a separate control.
B:Known weak or organization-specific passwords are rejected where the configured protection is enforced. This item belongs to a different control area: Password protection. Its appropriate purpose is: Password protection blocks weak password choices; it does not replace MFA or a full identity risk policy. For the stated case, Lifecycle workflows is the closer match. Lifecycle workflows automate repeatable identity onboarding and offboarding tasks; review of ongoing entitlements remains a separate control.
C:Authorized users can reset forgotten passwords after meeting the defined verification requirements. This item belongs to a different control area: Self-service password reset. Its appropriate purpose is: SSPR helps account recovery; it does not grant additional resource authorization or bypass verification. For the stated case, Lifecycle workflows is the closer match. Lifecycle workflows automate repeatable identity onboarding and offboarding tasks; review of ongoing entitlements remains a separate control.
Question 735
A public-facing service becomes unreachable during coordinated high-volume attacks from many sources. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?
- Inspect attack mitigation telemetry, protected public IP association and network traffic anomaly patterns.
- Inspect automation rule triggers, Logic Apps playbook runs and action execution outcomes.
- Inspect posture findings, resource coverage, attack paths where available and suggested remediations.
- Inspect threat intelligence indicators, associated reports and their links to observed activity.
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:Inspect attack mitigation telemetry, protected public IP association and network traffic anomaly patterns. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. DDoS Protection addresses distributed denial-of-service traffic aimed at network services; it does not replace a web-application rule engine.
Incorrect Answers
B:Inspect automation rule triggers, Logic Apps playbook runs and action execution outcomes. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Sentinel SOAR playbooks. Its appropriate purpose is: SOAR automates and orchestrates workflows; it complements rather than replaces detection analytics and human judgment. For the stated case, Azure DDoS Protection is the closer match. DDoS Protection addresses distributed denial-of-service traffic aimed at network services; it does not replace a web-application rule engine.
C:Inspect posture findings, resource coverage, attack paths where available and suggested remediations. This item belongs to a different control area: Cloud Security Posture Management. Its appropriate purpose is: CSPM evaluates configuration and exposure risk proactively, rather than solely responding to an endpoint malware alert. For the stated case, Azure DDoS Protection is the closer match. DDoS Protection addresses distributed denial-of-service traffic aimed at network services; it does not replace a web-application rule engine.
D:Inspect threat intelligence indicators, associated reports and their links to observed activity. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Threat Intelligence. Its appropriate purpose is: Threat intelligence adds context on threats and indicators; it does not by itself implement endpoint blocking or identity authorization. For the stated case, Azure DDoS Protection is the closer match. DDoS Protection addresses distributed denial-of-service traffic aimed at network services; it does not replace a web-application rule engine.
Question 736
A regulator requests defensible content search and collection from an approved matter. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.
- The analyst can trace relevant label or DLP activity to an auditable event record.
- Inspect label settings, publication policy scopes and actual label application to target documents.
- Use the compliance score in Microsoft Purview Compliance Manager as a progress indicator for assessed improvement actions.
- Inspect eDiscovery cases, custodians, holds, search results and export or review actions.
- Use Microsoft Purview eDiscovery to identify, preserve and collect relevant content for authorized investigations.
Explanation
Correct Answers
D:Inspect eDiscovery cases, custodians, holds, search results and export or review actions. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. eDiscovery supports legal and regulatory evidence workflows; it is distinct from real-time data loss prevention.
E:Use Microsoft Purview eDiscovery to identify, preserve and collect relevant content for authorized investigations. This is the directly applicable response. eDiscovery supports legal and regulatory evidence workflows; it is distinct from real-time data loss prevention.
Incorrect Answers
A:The analyst can trace relevant label or DLP activity to an auditable event record. This item belongs to a different control area: Activity explorer. Its appropriate purpose is: Activity explorer focuses on what happened to data, unlike Content explorer's inventory of classified content. For the stated case, Microsoft Purview eDiscovery is the closer match. eDiscovery supports legal and regulatory evidence workflows; it is distinct from real-time data loss prevention.
B:Inspect label settings, publication policy scopes and actual label application to target documents. This item belongs to a different control area: Sensitivity labels. Its appropriate purpose is: Sensitivity labels classify content and may apply protection; labels must be made available through appropriate policy publishing. For the stated case, Microsoft Purview eDiscovery is the closer match. eDiscovery supports legal and regulatory evidence workflows; it is distinct from real-time data loss prevention.
C:Use the compliance score in Microsoft Purview Compliance Manager as a progress indicator for assessed improvement actions. This item belongs to a different control area: Compliance score. Its appropriate purpose is: Compliance score measures tracked improvement progress; it is not a universal regulatory certification or breach-risk guarantee. For the stated case, Microsoft Purview eDiscovery is the closer match. eDiscovery supports legal and regulatory evidence workflows; it is distinct from real-time data loss prevention.
Question 737
A newly appointed compliance analyst needs a common Microsoft interface for DLP and information protection. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?
- Inspect DLP policy conditions, targeted locations, match events and user-facing policy outcomes.
- Inspect Content explorer's classification breakdown and permission-scoped item drill-down.
- Inspect label configuration, policy publication or auto-application scope and labeled item status.
- Inspect the relevant Purview solution pages, available roles and enabled features.
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:Inspect the relevant Purview solution pages, available roles and enabled features. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. The Purview portal is a central interface for multiple compliance and data-governance solutions, not itself a finished compliance certification.
Incorrect Answers
A:Inspect DLP policy conditions, targeted locations, match events and user-facing policy outcomes. This item belongs to a different control area: Data loss prevention policies. Its appropriate purpose is: DLP controls risky data movement based on policy conditions; labeling alone does not enforce every transmission restriction. For the stated case, Microsoft Purview portal is the closer match. The Purview portal is a central interface for multiple compliance and data-governance solutions, not itself a finished compliance certification.
B:Inspect Content explorer's classification breakdown and permission-scoped item drill-down. This item belongs to a different control area: Content explorer. Its appropriate purpose is: Content explorer helps inspect classified data inventory; Activity explorer focuses on actions and activity history. For the stated case, Microsoft Purview portal is the closer match. The Purview portal is a central interface for multiple compliance and data-governance solutions, not itself a finished compliance certification.
C:Inspect label configuration, policy publication or auto-application scope and labeled item status. This item belongs to a different control area: Retention labels. Its appropriate purpose is: Retention labels govern specific items; a broad location-level retention policy does not provide the same fine-grained labeling behavior. For the stated case, Microsoft Purview portal is the closer match. The Purview portal is a central interface for multiple compliance and data-governance solutions, not itself a finished compliance certification.
Question 738
A threat report shows users opening suspicious links despite initial message delivery. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.
- Apply Azure Web Application Firewall to inspect HTTP and HTTPS requests for common web-application attacks.
- Inspect assigned compliance standards, evaluated controls and their associated resource assessments.
- Use Defender for Office 365 Safe Links policies to evaluate and protect users from malicious links in supported email and collaboration scenarios.
- Security owners see prioritized exposures and applicable workload detections in the expected scope.
- Inspect Safe Links policy assignments, URL click events and detections.
Explanation
Correct Answers
C:Use Defender for Office 365 Safe Links policies to evaluate and protect users from malicious links in supported email and collaboration scenarios. This is the directly applicable response. Safe Links addresses URL-based threats; it does not inspect attached files for malware.
E:Inspect Safe Links policy assignments, URL click events and detections. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Safe Links addresses URL-based threats; it does not inspect attached files for malware.
Incorrect Answers
A:Apply Azure Web Application Firewall to inspect HTTP and HTTPS requests for common web-application attacks. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure Web Application Firewall. Its appropriate purpose is: A WAF targets application-layer HTTP risks such as injection, unlike basic network port filtering. For the stated case, Defender for Office 365 Safe Links is the closer match. Safe Links addresses URL-based threats; it does not inspect attached files for malware.
B:Inspect assigned compliance standards, evaluated controls and their associated resource assessments. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Cloud regulatory compliance. Its appropriate purpose is: Regulatory compliance views relate assessed technical controls to frameworks; they do not by themselves certify organizational legal compliance. For the stated case, Defender for Office 365 Safe Links is the closer match. Safe Links addresses URL-based threats; it does not inspect attached files for malware.
D:Security owners see prioritized exposures and applicable workload detections in the expected scope. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Cloud unified security posture. Its appropriate purpose is: Defender for Cloud combines CSPM and cloud workload protection capabilities; it is not the same as a single network security group. For the stated case, Defender for Office 365 Safe Links is the closer match. Safe Links addresses URL-based threats; it does not inspect attached files for malware.
Question 739
A firm wants to stop Office applications from launching unexpected child processes on staff devices. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.
- Apply Azure network security group rules to allow or deny traffic by source, destination, port and protocol at subnet or NIC scope.
- Inspect ASR rule configuration, audit or block events and exclusions for the affected endpoints.
- Use Microsoft Defender for Endpoint attack surface reduction rules to restrict risky endpoint behaviors where supported.
- An analyst can reconstruct the incident sequence and document an evidence-based disposition.
- Inspect policy assignments, noncompliant resources and recommendation-to-remediation mappings.
Explanation
Correct Answers
B:Inspect ASR rule configuration, audit or block events and exclusions for the affected endpoints. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. ASR rules reduce common exploit paths on endpoints and can be tested in audit mode before enforcement.
C:Use Microsoft Defender for Endpoint attack surface reduction rules to restrict risky endpoint behaviors where supported. This is the directly applicable response. ASR rules reduce common exploit paths on endpoints and can be tested in audit mode before enforcement.
Incorrect Answers
A:Apply Azure network security group rules to allow or deny traffic by source, destination, port and protocol at subnet or NIC scope. This item belongs to a different control area: Network security groups. Its appropriate purpose is: NSGs provide ordered L3/L4 traffic filtering in Azure, not deep web-request inspection. For the stated case, Endpoint attack surface reduction is the closer match. ASR rules reduce common exploit paths on endpoints and can be tested in audit mode before enforcement.
D:An analyst can reconstruct the incident sequence and document an evidence-based disposition. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Sentinel incident investigation. Its appropriate purpose is: Incident management helps investigate and coordinate alerts; it differs from automatic enforcement through a playbook. For the stated case, Endpoint attack surface reduction is the closer match. ASR rules reduce common exploit paths on endpoints and can be tested in audit mode before enforcement.
E:Inspect policy assignments, noncompliant resources and recommendation-to-remediation mappings. This item belongs to a different control area: Cloud security policies and recommendations. Its appropriate purpose is: A recommendation identifies a technical improvement; a documented policy or assigned standard provides expectations for assessed resources. For the stated case, Endpoint attack surface reduction is the closer match. ASR rules reduce common exploit paths on endpoints and can be tested in audit mode before enforcement.
Question 740
A help desk receives hundreds of routine password-reset calls from traveling employees. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?
- Inspect subscription or resource role assignments and effective permissions for the target resource.
- Inspect SSPR policy scope, method registration, registration status and reset audit logs.
- Inspect role definitions, active assignments and role audit events for tenant administrators.
- Inspect policy targeting, device compliance information and sign-in evaluation details.
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:Inspect SSPR policy scope, method registration, registration status and reset audit logs. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. SSPR helps account recovery; it does not grant additional resource authorization or bypass verification.
Incorrect Answers
A:Inspect subscription or resource role assignments and effective permissions for the target resource. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure resource RBAC versus Entra roles. Its appropriate purpose is: Azure RBAC governs Azure resource permissions, whereas Microsoft Entra roles govern directory services. For the stated case, Self-service password reset is the closer match. SSPR helps account recovery; it does not grant additional resource authorization or bypass verification.
C:Inspect role definitions, active assignments and role audit events for tenant administrators. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Entra role-based access control. Its appropriate purpose is: Entra administrative roles govern directory and identity operations; Azure resource RBAC is a separate scope model. For the stated case, Self-service password reset is the closer match. SSPR helps account recovery; it does not grant additional resource authorization or bypass verification.
D:Inspect policy targeting, device compliance information and sign-in evaluation details. This item belongs to a different control area: Conditional Access compliant devices. Its appropriate purpose is: Conditional Access combines signals and access controls; device compliance comes from the supported management and enrollment state. For the stated case, Self-service password reset is the closer match. SSPR helps account recovery; it does not grant additional resource authorization or bypass verification.