Microsoft SC-900 Practice Test 73
Question 720
An internal auditor asks where to find available Microsoft's service compliance documentation. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?
- Inspect eDiscovery cases, custodians, holds, search results and export or review actions.
- Inspect Content explorer's classification breakdown and permission-scoped item drill-down.
- Inspect Service Trust Portal document categories and available audit reports for the requested service.
- Inspect record declarations, retention settings, disposition reviews and action history.
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:Inspect Service Trust Portal document categories and available audit reports for the requested service. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. The Service Trust Portal offers Microsoft service assurance resources; customers remain responsible for their own compliance obligations.
Incorrect Answers
A:Inspect eDiscovery cases, custodians, holds, search results and export or review actions. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Purview eDiscovery. Its appropriate purpose is: eDiscovery supports legal and regulatory evidence workflows; it is distinct from real-time data loss prevention. For the stated case, Service Trust Portal is the closer match. The Service Trust Portal offers Microsoft service assurance resources; customers remain responsible for their own compliance obligations.
B:Inspect Content explorer's classification breakdown and permission-scoped item drill-down. This item belongs to a different control area: Content explorer. Its appropriate purpose is: Content explorer helps inspect classified data inventory; Activity explorer focuses on actions and activity history. For the stated case, Service Trust Portal is the closer match. The Service Trust Portal offers Microsoft service assurance resources; customers remain responsible for their own compliance obligations.
D:Inspect record declarations, retention settings, disposition reviews and action history. This item belongs to a different control area: Records management. Its appropriate purpose is: Records management adds governance and disposition requirements; it differs from simply adding a decorative classification tag. For the stated case, Service Trust Portal is the closer match. The Service Trust Portal offers Microsoft service assurance resources; customers remain responsible for their own compliance obligations.
Question 721
A database VM should accept TCP traffic from an app subnet but reject general Internet connections. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?
- Expected source events are searchable in the intended workspace and support threat analytics.
- Operators can navigate from a unified incident to related evidence across connected Defender services.
- Affected endpoints generate actionable detections and responders can investigate the activity chain.
- Disallowed network flows are blocked by the expected rule without disrupting explicitly permitted connections.
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:Disallowed network flows are blocked by the expected rule without disrupting explicitly permitted connections. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. NSGs provide ordered L3/L4 traffic filtering in Azure, not deep web-request inspection.
Incorrect Answers
A:Expected source events are searchable in the intended workspace and support threat analytics. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Sentinel SIEM ingestion. Its appropriate purpose is: A SIEM collects and correlates security telemetry; data ingestion is foundational before analytic rules can detect events. For the stated case, Network security groups is the closer match. NSGs provide ordered L3/L4 traffic filtering in Azure, not deep web-request inspection.
B:Operators can navigate from a unified incident to related evidence across connected Defender services. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Defender portal. Its appropriate purpose is: The Defender portal provides a unified security operations interface; it is not a replacement for configuring every underlying product. For the stated case, Network security groups is the closer match. NSGs provide ordered L3/L4 traffic filtering in Azure, not deep web-request inspection.
C:Affected endpoints generate actionable detections and responders can investigate the activity chain. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Endpoint EDR. Its appropriate purpose is: Endpoint detection and response targets device-level malicious behavior, not Microsoft 365 document retention. For the stated case, Network security groups is the closer match. NSGs provide ordered L3/L4 traffic filtering in Azure, not deep web-request inspection.
Question 722
A laptop fleet wants workers to sign in with biometrics or PIN without sending those gestures to a remote server. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?
- Use location-based Conditional Access rules only as one evaluated sign-in signal, not as proof of identity.
- Deploy Windows Hello for Business for strong device-associated user authentication on supported Windows endpoints.
- Assign Azure resource RBAC at the smallest practical resource scope for resource management operations.
- Register an application and control its service principal permissions for unattended application access.
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:Deploy Windows Hello for Business for strong device-associated user authentication on supported Windows endpoints. This is the directly applicable response. Windows Hello for Business replaces reusable password use in supported scenarios with device-bound asymmetric credentials and local user verification.
Incorrect Answers
A:Use location-based Conditional Access rules only as one evaluated sign-in signal, not as proof of identity. This item belongs to a different control area: Conditional Access locations. Its appropriate purpose is: Conditional Access can evaluate network locations alongside identities and risk, but location by itself should not be assumed trustworthy. For the stated case, Windows Hello for Business is the closer match. Windows Hello for Business replaces reusable password use in supported scenarios with device-bound asymmetric credentials and local user verification.
C:Assign Azure resource RBAC at the smallest practical resource scope for resource management operations. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure resource RBAC versus Entra roles. Its appropriate purpose is: Azure RBAC governs Azure resource permissions, whereas Microsoft Entra roles govern directory services. For the stated case, Windows Hello for Business is the closer match. Windows Hello for Business replaces reusable password use in supported scenarios with device-bound asymmetric credentials and local user verification.
D:Register an application and control its service principal permissions for unattended application access. This item belongs to a different control area: Service principals. Its appropriate purpose is: Service principals represent applications or services rather than individual human users; credentials and consent must be governed. For the stated case, Windows Hello for Business is the closer match. Windows Hello for Business replaces reusable password use in supported scenarios with device-bound asymmetric credentials and local user verification.
Question 723
An Azure function reads secrets from a vault and the developer wants to eliminate a client secret in configuration. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?
- Use Microsoft Entra Privileged Identity Management to require time-limited activation of eligible privileged roles.
- Schedule Microsoft Entra access reviews to let owners recertify whether users still need access.
- Assign an Azure managed identity to a supported workload so it obtains Entra tokens without storing app passwords.
- Automate defined joiner, mover and leaver identity tasks using Microsoft Entra Lifecycle Workflows where supported.
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:Assign an Azure managed identity to a supported workload so it obtains Entra tokens without storing app passwords. This is the directly applicable response. Managed identities remove workload credential handling for supported Azure resources but still require appropriate authorization.
Incorrect Answers
A:Use Microsoft Entra Privileged Identity Management to require time-limited activation of eligible privileged roles. This item belongs to a different control area: Privileged Identity Management eligible roles. Its appropriate purpose is: PIM reduces standing privilege and provides just-in-time activation controls for supported roles. For the stated case, Managed identities is the closer match. Managed identities remove workload credential handling for supported Azure resources but still require appropriate authorization.
B:Schedule Microsoft Entra access reviews to let owners recertify whether users still need access. This item belongs to a different control area: Access reviews. Its appropriate purpose is: Access reviews periodically reassess existing permissions, unlike a new initial access request. For the stated case, Managed identities is the closer match. Managed identities remove workload credential handling for supported Azure resources but still require appropriate authorization.
D:Automate defined joiner, mover and leaver identity tasks using Microsoft Entra Lifecycle Workflows where supported. This item belongs to a different control area: Lifecycle workflows. Its appropriate purpose is: Lifecycle workflows automate repeatable identity onboarding and offboarding tasks; review of ongoing entitlements remains a separate control. For the stated case, Managed identities is the closer match. Managed identities remove workload credential handling for supported Azure resources but still require appropriate authorization.
Question 724
A project needs automatic tagging of selected content with an appropriate lifecycle rule where supported. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?
- Inspect policy indicators, generated alerts, case evidence and role-controlled access.
- Inspect score breakdown, applicable improvement actions and updates to action completion.
- Inspect eDiscovery cases, custodians, holds, search results and export or review actions.
- Inspect label configuration, policy publication or auto-application scope and labeled item status.
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:Inspect label configuration, policy publication or auto-application scope and labeled item status. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Retention labels govern specific items; a broad location-level retention policy does not provide the same fine-grained labeling behavior.
Incorrect Answers
A:Inspect policy indicators, generated alerts, case evidence and role-controlled access. This item belongs to a different control area: Insider risk management. Its appropriate purpose is: Insider risk policies correlate relevant insider indicators; they do not authorize indiscriminate surveillance or replace privacy and employment policy. For the stated case, Retention labels is the closer match. Retention labels govern specific items; a broad location-level retention policy does not provide the same fine-grained labeling behavior.
B:Inspect score breakdown, applicable improvement actions and updates to action completion. This item belongs to a different control area: Compliance score. Its appropriate purpose is: Compliance score measures tracked improvement progress; it is not a universal regulatory certification or breach-risk guarantee. For the stated case, Retention labels is the closer match. Retention labels govern specific items; a broad location-level retention policy does not provide the same fine-grained labeling behavior.
C:Inspect eDiscovery cases, custodians, holds, search results and export or review actions. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Purview eDiscovery. Its appropriate purpose is: eDiscovery supports legal and regulatory evidence workflows; it is distinct from real-time data loss prevention. For the stated case, Retention labels is the closer match. Retention labels govern specific items; a broad location-level retention policy does not provide the same fine-grained labeling behavior.
Question 725
A SOC wants a defined alert type to automatically create a ticket and notify an on-call team. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?
- Inspect session policy scope, controlled activities and matched cloud app session events.
- Inspect monitored domain controllers, identity alerts and suspicious activity timelines.
- Inspect discovered app inventory, traffic evidence and application risk scores.
- Inspect automation rule triggers, Logic Apps playbook runs and action execution outcomes.
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:Inspect automation rule triggers, Logic Apps playbook runs and action execution outcomes. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. SOAR automates and orchestrates workflows; it complements rather than replaces detection analytics and human judgment.
Incorrect Answers
A:Inspect session policy scope, controlled activities and matched cloud app session events. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Cloud Apps session controls. Its appropriate purpose is: Session controls provide real-time governance of supported cloud app activities; discovery alone does not enforce session behaviors. For the stated case, Microsoft Sentinel SOAR playbooks is the closer match. SOAR automates and orchestrates workflows; it complements rather than replaces detection analytics and human judgment.
B:Inspect monitored domain controllers, identity alerts and suspicious activity timelines. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Identity. Its appropriate purpose is: Defender for Identity monitors on-premises identity threats and domain controller signals; it is not a cloud app SaaS discovery catalog. For the stated case, Microsoft Sentinel SOAR playbooks is the closer match. SOAR automates and orchestrates workflows; it complements rather than replaces detection analytics and human judgment.
C:Inspect discovered app inventory, traffic evidence and application risk scores. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Cloud Apps discovery. Its appropriate purpose is: Cloud app discovery assesses shadow IT usage, not the same task as investigating on-premises domain controller compromise. For the stated case, Microsoft Sentinel SOAR playbooks is the closer match. SOAR automates and orchestrates workflows; it complements rather than replaces detection analytics and human judgment.
Question 726
A cloud engineer cannot restart a VM despite having an Entra directory administration role. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?
- The engineer can perform the allowed resource action but cannot manage unrelated resources or tenant identity settings.
- On-premises identity changes are reflected in Entra ID according to the configured sync topology.
- Expected in-scope users and attribute updates appear in Entra ID without duplicate cloud accounts.
- A managed tenant identity can sign in to integrated cloud resources under assigned access policies.
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:The engineer can perform the allowed resource action but cannot manage unrelated resources or tenant identity settings. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. Azure RBAC governs Azure resource permissions, whereas Microsoft Entra roles govern directory services.
Incorrect Answers
B:On-premises identity changes are reflected in Entra ID according to the configured sync topology. This item belongs to a different control area: Hybrid identity. Its appropriate purpose is: Hybrid identity coordinates on-premises and cloud identity management; it does not automatically move every workload to Azure. For the stated case, Azure resource RBAC versus Entra roles is the closer match. Azure RBAC governs Azure resource permissions, whereas Microsoft Entra roles govern directory services.
C:Expected in-scope users and attribute updates appear in Entra ID without duplicate cloud accounts. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Entra Connect synchronization. Its appropriate purpose is: Directory synchronization must be scoped and observed; enabling it without verifying source objects can create identity drift. For the stated case, Azure resource RBAC versus Entra roles is the closer match. Azure RBAC governs Azure resource permissions, whereas Microsoft Entra roles govern directory services.
D:A managed tenant identity can sign in to integrated cloud resources under assigned access policies. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Entra ID cloud identity. Its appropriate purpose is: Microsoft Entra ID provides cloud directory and identity services, not network packet filtering or document retention. For the stated case, Azure resource RBAC versus Entra roles is the closer match. Azure RBAC governs Azure resource permissions, whereas Microsoft Entra roles govern directory services.
Question 727
A compliance manager needs to ensure message content is not removed before the policy retention window ends. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?
- Assessment owners can see outstanding control work, evidence and completion status for the chosen framework.
- Covered content is retained or disposed of according to the policy and location configuration.
- A qualifying risky activity is triaged through the authorized insider-risk workflow with documented disposition.
- Completed validated actions appropriately change the calculated progress score while gaps remain visible.
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:Covered content is retained or disposed of according to the policy and location configuration. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. Retention policies apply lifecycle rules to selected locations or content sets; they do not substitute for DLP sharing blocks.
Incorrect Answers
A:Assessment owners can see outstanding control work, evidence and completion status for the chosen framework. This item belongs to a different control area: Compliance Manager. Its appropriate purpose is: Compliance Manager maps control activities and improvements; it does not automatically guarantee legal compliance. For the stated case, Retention policies is the closer match. Retention policies apply lifecycle rules to selected locations or content sets; they do not substitute for DLP sharing blocks.
C:A qualifying risky activity is triaged through the authorized insider-risk workflow with documented disposition. This item belongs to a different control area: Insider risk management. Its appropriate purpose is: Insider risk policies correlate relevant insider indicators; they do not authorize indiscriminate surveillance or replace privacy and employment policy. For the stated case, Retention policies is the closer match. Retention policies apply lifecycle rules to selected locations or content sets; they do not substitute for DLP sharing blocks.
D:Completed validated actions appropriately change the calculated progress score while gaps remain visible. This item belongs to a different control area: Compliance score. Its appropriate purpose is: Compliance score measures tracked improvement progress; it is not a universal regulatory certification or breach-risk guarantee. For the stated case, Retention policies is the closer match. Retention policies apply lifecycle rules to selected locations or content sets; they do not substitute for DLP sharing blocks.
Question 728
A fleet security analyst wants to correlate malicious processes, network connections and affected devices. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.
- Inspect onboarded device inventory, detection alerts, process timelines and investigation findings.
- Use Microsoft Defender for Endpoint endpoint detection and response capabilities to investigate malicious device activity.
- A qualifying incident triggers the approved response steps with auditable execution results.
- Use Azure Key Vault to centrally control cryptographic key or certificate material and its authorized operations.
- Inspect data connectors, ingestion status, workspace tables and representative security events.
Explanation
Correct Answers
A:Inspect onboarded device inventory, detection alerts, process timelines and investigation findings. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Endpoint detection and response targets device-level malicious behavior, not Microsoft 365 document retention.
B:Use Microsoft Defender for Endpoint endpoint detection and response capabilities to investigate malicious device activity. This is the directly applicable response. Endpoint detection and response targets device-level malicious behavior, not Microsoft 365 document retention.
Incorrect Answers
C:A qualifying incident triggers the approved response steps with auditable execution results. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Sentinel SOAR playbooks. Its appropriate purpose is: SOAR automates and orchestrates workflows; it complements rather than replaces detection analytics and human judgment. For the stated case, Defender for Endpoint EDR is the closer match. Endpoint detection and response targets device-level malicious behavior, not Microsoft 365 document retention.
D:Use Azure Key Vault to centrally control cryptographic key or certificate material and its authorized operations. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure Key Vault keys and certificates. Its appropriate purpose is: Key Vault supports cryptographic key and certificate lifecycle; secret storage alone is not a substitute for proper key policy. For the stated case, Defender for Endpoint EDR is the closer match. Endpoint detection and response targets device-level malicious behavior, not Microsoft 365 document retention.
E:Inspect data connectors, ingestion status, workspace tables and representative security events. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Sentinel SIEM ingestion. Its appropriate purpose is: A SIEM collects and correlates security telemetry; data ingestion is foundational before analytic rules can detect events. For the stated case, Defender for Endpoint EDR is the closer match. Endpoint detection and response targets device-level malicious behavior, not Microsoft 365 document retention.
Question 729
An operations engineer must detect whether a configuration artifact changed between two approved release stages. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?
- Authenticate the principal first and separately authorize only the permitted resource actions.
- Establish a standards-based trust between identity providers so one organization can authenticate users for a relying application.
- Use a suitable one-way cryptographic hash to check integrity rather than recover an original secret.
- Protect and verify identities as a primary perimeter for cloud access rather than relying only on a building network.
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:Use a suitable one-way cryptographic hash to check integrity rather than recover an original secret. This is the directly applicable response. Hashing supports integrity checks or password verification when designed correctly; hashing by itself does not provide encryption or confidentiality.
Incorrect Answers
A:Authenticate the principal first and separately authorize only the permitted resource actions. This item belongs to a different control area: Authentication and authorization. Its appropriate purpose is: Authentication proves identity or possession of credentials; authorization determines what that identity may do. For the stated case, Cryptographic hashing is the closer match. Hashing supports integrity checks or password verification when designed correctly; hashing by itself does not provide encryption or confidentiality.
B:Establish a standards-based trust between identity providers so one organization can authenticate users for a relying application. This item belongs to a different control area: Identity federation. Its appropriate purpose is: Federation extends authentication trust across security domains; it does not automatically grant unrestricted permissions. For the stated case, Cryptographic hashing is the closer match. Hashing supports integrity checks or password verification when designed correctly; hashing by itself does not provide encryption or confidentiality.
D:Protect and verify identities as a primary perimeter for cloud access rather than relying only on a building network. This item belongs to a different control area: Identity as security perimeter. Its appropriate purpose is: Cloud users and workloads access resources from varied networks, making authenticated identity and authorization central boundaries. For the stated case, Cryptographic hashing is the closer match. Hashing supports integrity checks or password verification when designed correctly; hashing by itself does not provide encryption or confidentiality.
Question 730
An accounts clerk receives invoice attachments that may contain malware. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?
- Only approved flows traverse the central firewall while prohibited traffic is logged or denied.
- Malicious attachments are blocked or handled according to the configured action before users consume them.
- Test events meeting detection criteria produce expected alerts or incidents without overwhelming false positives.
- Administrators can manage target VMs through Bastion while direct public RDP or SSH exposure is absent.
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:Malicious attachments are blocked or handled according to the configured action before users consume them. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. Safe Attachments focuses on file-based email threats, whereas Safe Links protects URLs.
Incorrect Answers
A:Only approved flows traverse the central firewall while prohibited traffic is logged or denied. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure Firewall. Its appropriate purpose is: Azure Firewall is a managed stateful network security service; it is not an identity provider or a retention tool. For the stated case, Defender for Office 365 Safe Attachments is the closer match. Safe Attachments focuses on file-based email threats, whereas Safe Links protects URLs.
C:Test events meeting detection criteria produce expected alerts or incidents without overwhelming false positives. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Sentinel analytics rules. Its appropriate purpose is: Sentinel analytics rules evaluate telemetry to raise detections; collecting logs alone is insufficient to identify a defined pattern. For the stated case, Defender for Office 365 Safe Attachments is the closer match. Safe Attachments focuses on file-based email threats, whereas Safe Links protects URLs.
D:Administrators can manage target VMs through Bastion while direct public RDP or SSH exposure is absent. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure Bastion. Its appropriate purpose is: Bastion supplies browser- or client-mediated secure VM management access; it is not a DDoS service. For the stated case, Defender for Office 365 Safe Attachments is the closer match. Safe Attachments focuses on file-based email threats, whereas Safe Links protects URLs.