Microsoft SC-900 Practice Test 69
Question 680
A cloud admin only needs Global Administrator rights during monthly maintenance windows. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?
- Inspect PIM eligible and active assignments, activation policies and role activation logs.
- Inspect application and service principal objects, consented permissions and authentication credential lifecycle.
- Inspect tenant user and group objects, enterprise application registration and sign-in events.
- Inspect registered passkey credentials, permitted authentication-method settings and sign-in method details.
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:Inspect PIM eligible and active assignments, activation policies and role activation logs. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. PIM reduces standing privilege and provides just-in-time activation controls for supported roles.
Incorrect Answers
B:Inspect application and service principal objects, consented permissions and authentication credential lifecycle. This item belongs to a different control area: Service principals. Its appropriate purpose is: Service principals represent applications or services rather than individual human users; credentials and consent must be governed. For the stated case, Privileged Identity Management eligible roles is the closer match. PIM reduces standing privilege and provides just-in-time activation controls for supported roles.
C:Inspect tenant user and group objects, enterprise application registration and sign-in events. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Entra ID cloud identity. Its appropriate purpose is: Microsoft Entra ID provides cloud directory and identity services, not network packet filtering or document retention. For the stated case, Privileged Identity Management eligible roles is the closer match. PIM reduces standing privilege and provides just-in-time activation controls for supported roles.
D:Inspect registered passkey credentials, permitted authentication-method settings and sign-in method details. This item belongs to a different control area: Passkeys and FIDO2. Its appropriate purpose is: FIDO2 passkeys bind authentication to the legitimate relying party and resist credential phishing more effectively than SMS codes. For the stated case, Privileged Identity Management eligible roles is the closer match. PIM reduces standing privilege and provides just-in-time activation controls for supported roles.
Question 681
A compliance officer wants searchable evidence of selected administrative and user actions in the tenant. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?
- Use the Microsoft Service Trust Portal to retrieve available Microsoft compliance, audit and trust-related documentation.
- Create and publish Microsoft Purview sensitivity labels that classify and protect content according to policy.
- Use the Microsoft Purview portal to discover and administer supported compliance, information protection and risk capabilities.
- Use Microsoft Purview Audit to search supported Microsoft 365 audit events for accountability and investigations.
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:Use Microsoft Purview Audit to search supported Microsoft 365 audit events for accountability and investigations. This is the directly applicable response. Audit provides activity logging and search, not a tool to classify documents or automatically enforce retention.
Incorrect Answers
A:Use the Microsoft Service Trust Portal to retrieve available Microsoft compliance, audit and trust-related documentation. This item belongs to a different control area: Service Trust Portal. Its appropriate purpose is: The Service Trust Portal offers Microsoft service assurance resources; customers remain responsible for their own compliance obligations. For the stated case, Microsoft Purview Audit is the closer match. Audit provides activity logging and search, not a tool to classify documents or automatically enforce retention.
B:Create and publish Microsoft Purview sensitivity labels that classify and protect content according to policy. This item belongs to a different control area: Sensitivity labels. Its appropriate purpose is: Sensitivity labels classify content and may apply protection; labels must be made available through appropriate policy publishing. For the stated case, Microsoft Purview Audit is the closer match. Audit provides activity logging and search, not a tool to classify documents or automatically enforce retention.
C:Use the Microsoft Purview portal to discover and administer supported compliance, information protection and risk capabilities. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Purview portal. Its appropriate purpose is: The Purview portal is a central interface for multiple compliance and data-governance solutions, not itself a finished compliance certification. For the stated case, Microsoft Purview Audit is the closer match. Audit provides activity logging and search, not a tool to classify documents or automatically enforce retention.
Question 682
An investigator encounters unfamiliar malicious domains and wants context on the associated campaign. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?
- Inspect attack mitigation telemetry, protected public IP association and network traffic anomaly patterns.
- Inspect threat intelligence indicators, associated reports and their links to observed activity.
- Inspect incident timelines, alert evidence, related entities and assigned ownership.
- Inspect WAF rules, managed-rule matches and HTTP request logs for the affected endpoint.
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:Inspect threat intelligence indicators, associated reports and their links to observed activity. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Threat intelligence adds context on threats and indicators; it does not by itself implement endpoint blocking or identity authorization.
Incorrect Answers
A:Inspect attack mitigation telemetry, protected public IP association and network traffic anomaly patterns. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure DDoS Protection. Its appropriate purpose is: DDoS Protection addresses distributed denial-of-service traffic aimed at network services; it does not replace a web-application rule engine. For the stated case, Microsoft Threat Intelligence is the closer match. Threat intelligence adds context on threats and indicators; it does not by itself implement endpoint blocking or identity authorization.
C:Inspect incident timelines, alert evidence, related entities and assigned ownership. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Sentinel incident investigation. Its appropriate purpose is: Incident management helps investigate and coordinate alerts; it differs from automatic enforcement through a playbook. For the stated case, Microsoft Threat Intelligence is the closer match. Threat intelligence adds context on threats and indicators; it does not by itself implement endpoint blocking or identity authorization.
D:Inspect WAF rules, managed-rule matches and HTTP request logs for the affected endpoint. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure Web Application Firewall. Its appropriate purpose is: A WAF targets application-layer HTTP risks such as injection, unlike basic network port filtering. For the stated case, Microsoft Threat Intelligence is the closer match. Threat intelligence adds context on threats and indicators; it does not by itself implement endpoint blocking or identity authorization.
Question 683
An email security review finds malicious files that users downloaded from apparently ordinary messages. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.
- Separate workloads into appropriately designed Azure virtual networks and subnets with explicit connectivity boundaries.
- Inspect Safe Attachments policy scope, file verdicts and attachment detection reports.
- A targeted remediation clears the relevant security recommendation without loosening the intended standard.
- Use Defender for Office 365 Safe Attachments to analyze suspicious email attachments with configured protection policies.
- Inspect analytic rule query logic, schedule, thresholds and representative matching events.
Explanation
Correct Answers
B:Inspect Safe Attachments policy scope, file verdicts and attachment detection reports. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Safe Attachments focuses on file-based email threats, whereas Safe Links protects URLs.
D:Use Defender for Office 365 Safe Attachments to analyze suspicious email attachments with configured protection policies. This is the directly applicable response. Safe Attachments focuses on file-based email threats, whereas Safe Links protects URLs.
Incorrect Answers
A:Separate workloads into appropriately designed Azure virtual networks and subnets with explicit connectivity boundaries. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure virtual network segmentation. Its appropriate purpose is: Virtual networks provide logical network isolation; separate security policies may still be needed to limit allowed flows. For the stated case, Defender for Office 365 Safe Attachments is the closer match. Safe Attachments focuses on file-based email threats, whereas Safe Links protects URLs.
C:A targeted remediation clears the relevant security recommendation without loosening the intended standard. This item belongs to a different control area: Cloud security policies and recommendations. Its appropriate purpose is: A recommendation identifies a technical improvement; a documented policy or assigned standard provides expectations for assessed resources. For the stated case, Defender for Office 365 Safe Attachments is the closer match. Safe Attachments focuses on file-based email threats, whereas Safe Links protects URLs.
E:Inspect analytic rule query logic, schedule, thresholds and representative matching events. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Sentinel analytics rules. Its appropriate purpose is: Sentinel analytics rules evaluate telemetry to raise detections; collecting logs alone is insufficient to identify a defined pattern. For the stated case, Defender for Office 365 Safe Attachments is the closer match. Safe Attachments focuses on file-based email threats, whereas Safe Links protects URLs.
Question 684
A SOC wants a defined alert type to automatically create a ticket and notify an on-call team. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?
- Relevant on-premises directory attack behavior generates supported identity threat detections.
- A qualifying incident triggers the approved response steps with auditable execution results.
- Unapproved cloud app usage becomes visible to reviewers with relevant discovery evidence.
- The intended risky session action is monitored or restricted according to configured controls.
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:A qualifying incident triggers the approved response steps with auditable execution results. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. SOAR automates and orchestrates workflows; it complements rather than replaces detection analytics and human judgment.
Incorrect Answers
A:Relevant on-premises directory attack behavior generates supported identity threat detections. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Identity. Its appropriate purpose is: Defender for Identity monitors on-premises identity threats and domain controller signals; it is not a cloud app SaaS discovery catalog. For the stated case, Microsoft Sentinel SOAR playbooks is the closer match. SOAR automates and orchestrates workflows; it complements rather than replaces detection analytics and human judgment.
C:Unapproved cloud app usage becomes visible to reviewers with relevant discovery evidence. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Cloud Apps discovery. Its appropriate purpose is: Cloud app discovery assesses shadow IT usage, not the same task as investigating on-premises domain controller compromise. For the stated case, Microsoft Sentinel SOAR playbooks is the closer match. SOAR automates and orchestrates workflows; it complements rather than replaces detection analytics and human judgment.
D:The intended risky session action is monitored or restricted according to configured controls. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Cloud Apps session controls. Its appropriate purpose is: Session controls provide real-time governance of supported cloud app activities; discovery alone does not enforce session behaviors. For the stated case, Microsoft Sentinel SOAR playbooks is the closer match. SOAR automates and orchestrates workflows; it complements rather than replaces detection analytics and human judgment.
Question 685
A project ends but its guest users remain members of a confidential collaboration group. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.
- Use location-based Conditional Access rules only as one evaluated sign-in signal, not as proof of identity.
- Schedule Microsoft Entra access reviews to let owners recertify whether users still need access.
- Inspect the review scope, reviewer decisions, cadence and application of review results.
- Inspect authentication method registration, authentication details and MFA satisfaction in sign-in logs.
- The intended application sessions are governed and unrelated apps are not accidentally blocked.
Explanation
Correct Answers
B:Schedule Microsoft Entra access reviews to let owners recertify whether users still need access. This is the directly applicable response. Access reviews periodically reassess existing permissions, unlike a new initial access request.
C:Inspect the review scope, reviewer decisions, cadence and application of review results. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Access reviews periodically reassess existing permissions, unlike a new initial access request.
Incorrect Answers
A:Use location-based Conditional Access rules only as one evaluated sign-in signal, not as proof of identity. This item belongs to a different control area: Conditional Access locations. Its appropriate purpose is: Conditional Access can evaluate network locations alongside identities and risk, but location by itself should not be assumed trustworthy. For the stated case, Access reviews is the closer match. Access reviews periodically reassess existing permissions, unlike a new initial access request.
D:Inspect authentication method registration, authentication details and MFA satisfaction in sign-in logs. This item belongs to a different control area: Multifactor authentication. Its appropriate purpose is: MFA combines different factor categories to reduce account takeover from a stolen password alone. For the stated case, Access reviews is the closer match. Access reviews periodically reassess existing permissions, unlike a new initial access request.
E:The intended application sessions are governed and unrelated apps are not accidentally blocked. This item belongs to a different control area: Conditional Access application targeting. Its appropriate purpose is: A policy should be tested for targeted principals and applications, with emergency-access exclusions where appropriate. For the stated case, Access reviews is the closer match. Access reviews periodically reassess existing permissions, unlike a new initial access request.
Question 686
A company notices that recently hired on-premises users are absent from its Microsoft 365 tenant. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.
- Enable self-service password reset with verified registration and appropriate identity checks for eligible users.
- Configure and monitor an appropriate supported Microsoft Entra Connect synchronization method for hybrid users.
- Known weak or organization-specific passwords are rejected where the configured protection is enforced.
- Inspect included and excluded users, target apps, conditions and report-only evaluation logs.
- Inspect synchronization health, scope filters, matching rules and recent export errors.
Explanation
Correct Answers
B:Configure and monitor an appropriate supported Microsoft Entra Connect synchronization method for hybrid users. This is the directly applicable response. Directory synchronization must be scoped and observed; enabling it without verifying source objects can create identity drift.
E:Inspect synchronization health, scope filters, matching rules and recent export errors. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Directory synchronization must be scoped and observed; enabling it without verifying source objects can create identity drift.
Incorrect Answers
A:Enable self-service password reset with verified registration and appropriate identity checks for eligible users. This item belongs to a different control area: Self-service password reset. Its appropriate purpose is: SSPR helps account recovery; it does not grant additional resource authorization or bypass verification. For the stated case, Microsoft Entra Connect synchronization is the closer match. Directory synchronization must be scoped and observed; enabling it without verifying source objects can create identity drift.
C:Known weak or organization-specific passwords are rejected where the configured protection is enforced. This item belongs to a different control area: Password protection. Its appropriate purpose is: Password protection blocks weak password choices; it does not replace MFA or a full identity risk policy. For the stated case, Microsoft Entra Connect synchronization is the closer match. Directory synchronization must be scoped and observed; enabling it without verifying source objects can create identity drift.
D:Inspect included and excluded users, target apps, conditions and report-only evaluation logs. This item belongs to a different control area: Conditional Access application targeting. Its appropriate purpose is: A policy should be tested for targeted principals and applications, with emergency-access exclusions where appropriate. For the stated case, Microsoft Entra Connect synchronization is the closer match. Directory synchronization must be scoped and observed; enabling it without verifying source objects can create identity drift.
Question 687
A field workforce frequently works offline and needs secure local Windows sign-in backed by device-bound keys. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?
- On-premises identity changes are reflected in Entra ID according to the configured sync topology.
- Approved guests access only shared resources and can be removed without exposing a generic shared account.
- Test sign-ins from targeted and excluded networks receive the configured location-aware control.
- Users unlock or authenticate with a local gesture backed by a device-bound cryptographic credential.
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:Users unlock or authenticate with a local gesture backed by a device-bound cryptographic credential. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. Windows Hello for Business replaces reusable password use in supported scenarios with device-bound asymmetric credentials and local user verification.
Incorrect Answers
A:On-premises identity changes are reflected in Entra ID according to the configured sync topology. This item belongs to a different control area: Hybrid identity. Its appropriate purpose is: Hybrid identity coordinates on-premises and cloud identity management; it does not automatically move every workload to Azure. For the stated case, Windows Hello for Business is the closer match. Windows Hello for Business replaces reusable password use in supported scenarios with device-bound asymmetric credentials and local user verification.
B:Approved guests access only shared resources and can be removed without exposing a generic shared account. This item belongs to a different control area: External guest collaboration. Its appropriate purpose is: B2B collaboration supports external users while preserving explicit guest access and tenant policy boundaries. For the stated case, Windows Hello for Business is the closer match. Windows Hello for Business replaces reusable password use in supported scenarios with device-bound asymmetric credentials and local user verification.
C:Test sign-ins from targeted and excluded networks receive the configured location-aware control. This item belongs to a different control area: Conditional Access locations. Its appropriate purpose is: Conditional Access can evaluate network locations alongside identities and risk, but location by itself should not be assumed trustworthy. For the stated case, Windows Hello for Business is the closer match. Windows Hello for Business replaces reusable password use in supported scenarios with device-bound asymmetric credentials and local user verification.
Question 688
A business application needs controlled signing-key management separate from its deployment package. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?
- Use the Microsoft Defender portal to review integrated Defender alerts, incidents and security investigations.
- Use Azure Key Vault to centrally control cryptographic key or certificate material and its authorized operations.
- Enable applicable Defender for Cloud workload protection plans to detect threats affecting supported cloud workloads.
- Use Microsoft Defender for Endpoint attack surface reduction rules to restrict risky endpoint behaviors where supported.
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:Use Azure Key Vault to centrally control cryptographic key or certificate material and its authorized operations. This is the directly applicable response. Key Vault supports cryptographic key and certificate lifecycle; secret storage alone is not a substitute for proper key policy.
Incorrect Answers
A:Use the Microsoft Defender portal to review integrated Defender alerts, incidents and security investigations. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Defender portal. Its appropriate purpose is: The Defender portal provides a unified security operations interface; it is not a replacement for configuring every underlying product. For the stated case, Azure Key Vault keys and certificates is the closer match. Key Vault supports cryptographic key and certificate lifecycle; secret storage alone is not a substitute for proper key policy.
C:Enable applicable Defender for Cloud workload protection plans to detect threats affecting supported cloud workloads. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Cloud workload protection. Its appropriate purpose is: Cloud workload protection detects threat signals and suspicious runtime behavior; CSPM primarily addresses configuration posture. For the stated case, Azure Key Vault keys and certificates is the closer match. Key Vault supports cryptographic key and certificate lifecycle; secret storage alone is not a substitute for proper key policy.
D:Use Microsoft Defender for Endpoint attack surface reduction rules to restrict risky endpoint behaviors where supported. This item belongs to a different control area: Endpoint attack surface reduction. Its appropriate purpose is: ASR rules reduce common exploit paths on endpoints and can be tested in audit mode before enforcement. For the stated case, Azure Key Vault keys and certificates is the closer match. Key Vault supports cryptographic key and certificate lifecycle; secret storage alone is not a substitute for proper key policy.
Question 689
An audit group mistakes a high compliance score for proof that every legal obligation is satisfied. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.
- Inspect score breakdown, applicable improvement actions and updates to action completion.
- Inspect Service Trust Portal document categories and available audit reports for the requested service.
- Use the compliance score in Microsoft Purview Compliance Manager as a progress indicator for assessed improvement actions.
- Use Microsoft Purview Audit to search supported Microsoft 365 audit events for accountability and investigations.
- Test sharing of covered sensitive data triggers the intended warning, block or audit action as configured.
Explanation
Correct Answers
A:Inspect score breakdown, applicable improvement actions and updates to action completion. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Compliance score measures tracked improvement progress; it is not a universal regulatory certification or breach-risk guarantee.
C:Use the compliance score in Microsoft Purview Compliance Manager as a progress indicator for assessed improvement actions. This is the directly applicable response. Compliance score measures tracked improvement progress; it is not a universal regulatory certification or breach-risk guarantee.
Incorrect Answers
B:Inspect Service Trust Portal document categories and available audit reports for the requested service. This item belongs to a different control area: Service Trust Portal. Its appropriate purpose is: The Service Trust Portal offers Microsoft service assurance resources; customers remain responsible for their own compliance obligations. For the stated case, Compliance score is the closer match. Compliance score measures tracked improvement progress; it is not a universal regulatory certification or breach-risk guarantee.
D:Use Microsoft Purview Audit to search supported Microsoft 365 audit events for accountability and investigations. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Purview Audit. Its appropriate purpose is: Audit provides activity logging and search, not a tool to classify documents or automatically enforce retention. For the stated case, Compliance score is the closer match. Compliance score measures tracked improvement progress; it is not a universal regulatory certification or breach-risk guarantee.
E:Test sharing of covered sensitive data triggers the intended warning, block or audit action as configured. This item belongs to a different control area: Data loss prevention policies. Its appropriate purpose is: DLP controls risky data movement based on policy conditions; labeling alone does not enforce every transmission restriction. For the stated case, Compliance score is the closer match. Compliance score measures tracked improvement progress; it is not a universal regulatory certification or breach-risk guarantee.
Question 690
A consulting firm needs six external auditors to review a SharePoint workspace for a limited engagement. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?
- The intended application sessions are governed and unrelated apps are not accidentally blocked.
- Approved requesters receive the packaged resources temporarily and their access expires as designed.
- Users unlock or authenticate with a local gesture backed by a device-bound cryptographic credential.
- Approved guests access only shared resources and can be removed without exposing a generic shared account.
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:Approved guests access only shared resources and can be removed without exposing a generic shared account. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. B2B collaboration supports external users while preserving explicit guest access and tenant policy boundaries.
Incorrect Answers
A:The intended application sessions are governed and unrelated apps are not accidentally blocked. This item belongs to a different control area: Conditional Access application targeting. Its appropriate purpose is: A policy should be tested for targeted principals and applications, with emergency-access exclusions where appropriate. For the stated case, External guest collaboration is the closer match. B2B collaboration supports external users while preserving explicit guest access and tenant policy boundaries.
B:Approved requesters receive the packaged resources temporarily and their access expires as designed. This item belongs to a different control area: Entitlement management access packages. Its appropriate purpose is: Entitlement management standardizes access bundles and access-request governance for groups, apps and sites. For the stated case, External guest collaboration is the closer match. B2B collaboration supports external users while preserving explicit guest access and tenant policy boundaries.
C:Users unlock or authenticate with a local gesture backed by a device-bound cryptographic credential. This item belongs to a different control area: Windows Hello for Business. Its appropriate purpose is: Windows Hello for Business replaces reusable password use in supported scenarios with device-bound asymmetric credentials and local user verification. For the stated case, External guest collaboration is the closer match. B2B collaboration supports external users while preserving explicit guest access and tenant policy boundaries.