Microsoft SC-900 Practice Test 29
Question 280
A university has dozens of cloud apps and wants centrally managed student sign-ins instead of local passwords in each app. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?
- Inspect whether access policies, segmentation, application safeguards and encryption operate at independent layers.
- Inspect identity records, provider trust configuration, account lifecycle status and application sign-in integration.
- Review the sign-in context, permissions granted and enforcement of checks even for internal network requests.
- Identify storage encryption state, TLS connection settings and custody of cryptographic keys.
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:Inspect identity records, provider trust configuration, account lifecycle status and application sign-in integration. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. An identity provider handles authentication while a directory stores and organizes identities and attributes; neither equals the protected application.
Incorrect Answers
A:Inspect whether access policies, segmentation, application safeguards and encryption operate at independent layers. This item belongs to a different control area: Defense in depth. Its appropriate purpose is: Defense in depth reduces reliance on any one protection; it is not a claim that all risks can be eliminated. For the stated case, Identity providers and directories is the closer match. An identity provider handles authentication while a directory stores and organizes identities and attributes; neither equals the protected application.
C:Review the sign-in context, permissions granted and enforcement of checks even for internal network requests. This item belongs to a different control area: Zero Trust. Its appropriate purpose is: Zero Trust does not automatically trust a user, device or connection because it originates on a corporate network. For the stated case, Identity providers and directories is the closer match. An identity provider handles authentication while a directory stores and organizes identities and attributes; neither equals the protected application.
D:Identify storage encryption state, TLS connection settings and custody of cryptographic keys. This item belongs to a different control area: Encryption. Its appropriate purpose is: Encryption makes data unreadable to an unauthorized party without the appropriate key; it differs from a one-way hash. For the stated case, Identity providers and directories is the closer match. An identity provider handles authentication while a directory stores and organizes identities and attributes; neither equals the protected application.
Question 281
A project needs phishing-resistant sign-in credentials for a privileged group working across browsers and devices. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?
- Users sign in with the intended phishing-resistant cryptographic authentication method instead of sharing reusable secrets.
- Test sign-ins from targeted and excluded networks receive the configured location-aware control.
- Approved guests access only shared resources and can be removed without exposing a generic shared account.
- The intended application sessions are governed and unrelated apps are not accidentally blocked.
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:Users sign in with the intended phishing-resistant cryptographic authentication method instead of sharing reusable secrets. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. FIDO2 passkeys bind authentication to the legitimate relying party and resist credential phishing more effectively than SMS codes.
Incorrect Answers
B:Test sign-ins from targeted and excluded networks receive the configured location-aware control. This item belongs to a different control area: Conditional Access locations. Its appropriate purpose is: Conditional Access can evaluate network locations alongside identities and risk, but location by itself should not be assumed trustworthy. For the stated case, Passkeys and FIDO2 is the closer match. FIDO2 passkeys bind authentication to the legitimate relying party and resist credential phishing more effectively than SMS codes.
C:Approved guests access only shared resources and can be removed without exposing a generic shared account. This item belongs to a different control area: External guest collaboration. Its appropriate purpose is: B2B collaboration supports external users while preserving explicit guest access and tenant policy boundaries. For the stated case, Passkeys and FIDO2 is the closer match. FIDO2 passkeys bind authentication to the legitimate relying party and resist credential phishing more effectively than SMS codes.
D:The intended application sessions are governed and unrelated apps are not accidentally blocked. This item belongs to a different control area: Conditional Access application targeting. Its appropriate purpose is: A policy should be tested for targeted principals and applications, with emergency-access exclusions where appropriate. For the stated case, Passkeys and FIDO2 is the closer match. FIDO2 passkeys bind authentication to the legitimate relying party and resist credential phishing more effectively than SMS codes.
Question 282
A company needs enforceable protection against certain sensitive data leaving supported Microsoft 365 locations. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?
- A privacy review can explain how personal information is governed and how customers exercise supported data controls.
- Test sharing of covered sensitive data triggers the intended warning, block or audit action as configured.
- The compliance analyst can access the intended Purview capability under the appropriate permissions.
- Authorized investigators can preserve and retrieve relevant evidence with traceable case handling.
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:Test sharing of covered sensitive data triggers the intended warning, block or audit action as configured. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. DLP controls risky data movement based on policy conditions; labeling alone does not enforce every transmission restriction.
Incorrect Answers
A:A privacy review can explain how personal information is governed and how customers exercise supported data controls. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft privacy principles. Its appropriate purpose is: Privacy principles guide responsible data handling and transparency; they do not automatically classify every document. For the stated case, Data loss prevention policies is the closer match. DLP controls risky data movement based on policy conditions; labeling alone does not enforce every transmission restriction.
C:The compliance analyst can access the intended Purview capability under the appropriate permissions. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Purview portal. Its appropriate purpose is: The Purview portal is a central interface for multiple compliance and data-governance solutions, not itself a finished compliance certification. For the stated case, Data loss prevention policies is the closer match. DLP controls risky data movement based on policy conditions; labeling alone does not enforce every transmission restriction.
D:Authorized investigators can preserve and retrieve relevant evidence with traceable case handling. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Purview eDiscovery. Its appropriate purpose is: eDiscovery supports legal and regulatory evidence workflows; it is distinct from real-time data loss prevention. For the stated case, Data loss prevention policies is the closer match. DLP controls risky data movement based on policy conditions; labeling alone does not enforce every transmission restriction.
Question 283
A developer wants to confirm that a downloaded installation package matches the publisher's trusted digest. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?
- External identities sign in through the trusted home provider and receive only the application's authorized access.
- A verified sign-in succeeds without automatically allowing operations that the identity has not been granted.
- The application accepts the intended provider's authenticated users and respects account disablement and configured access.
- A modified input produces a different computed digest while an unchanged trusted item passes the comparison.
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:A modified input produces a different computed digest while an unchanged trusted item passes the comparison. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. Hashing supports integrity checks or password verification when designed correctly; hashing by itself does not provide encryption or confidentiality.
Incorrect Answers
A:External identities sign in through the trusted home provider and receive only the application's authorized access. This item belongs to a different control area: Identity federation. Its appropriate purpose is: Federation extends authentication trust across security domains; it does not automatically grant unrestricted permissions. For the stated case, Cryptographic hashing is the closer match. Hashing supports integrity checks or password verification when designed correctly; hashing by itself does not provide encryption or confidentiality.
B:A verified sign-in succeeds without automatically allowing operations that the identity has not been granted. This item belongs to a different control area: Authentication and authorization. Its appropriate purpose is: Authentication proves identity or possession of credentials; authorization determines what that identity may do. For the stated case, Cryptographic hashing is the closer match. Hashing supports integrity checks or password verification when designed correctly; hashing by itself does not provide encryption or confidentiality.
C:The application accepts the intended provider's authenticated users and respects account disablement and configured access. This item belongs to a different control area: Identity providers and directories. Its appropriate purpose is: An identity provider handles authentication while a directory stores and organizes identities and attributes; neither equals the protected application. For the stated case, Cryptographic hashing is the closer match. Hashing supports integrity checks or password verification when designed correctly; hashing by itself does not provide encryption or confidentiality.
Question 284
A tenant created a sensitivity label but staff cannot see it because no publication policy targets them. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?
- Inspect the relevant Purview solution pages, available roles and enabled features.
- Inspect audit search parameters, event operations, actors and timestamps for the relevant workload.
- Inspect assessments, improvement actions, assigned owners and uploaded evidence.
- Inspect label settings, publication policy scopes and actual label application to target documents.
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:Inspect label settings, publication policy scopes and actual label application to target documents. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Sensitivity labels classify content and may apply protection; labels must be made available through appropriate policy publishing.
Incorrect Answers
A:Inspect the relevant Purview solution pages, available roles and enabled features. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Purview portal. Its appropriate purpose is: The Purview portal is a central interface for multiple compliance and data-governance solutions, not itself a finished compliance certification. For the stated case, Sensitivity labels is the closer match. Sensitivity labels classify content and may apply protection; labels must be made available through appropriate policy publishing.
B:Inspect audit search parameters, event operations, actors and timestamps for the relevant workload. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Purview Audit. Its appropriate purpose is: Audit provides activity logging and search, not a tool to classify documents or automatically enforce retention. For the stated case, Sensitivity labels is the closer match. Sensitivity labels classify content and may apply protection; labels must be made available through appropriate policy publishing.
C:Inspect assessments, improvement actions, assigned owners and uploaded evidence. This item belongs to a different control area: Compliance Manager. Its appropriate purpose is: Compliance Manager maps control activities and improvements; it does not automatically guarantee legal compliance. For the stated case, Sensitivity labels is the closer match. Sensitivity labels classify content and may apply protection; labels must be made available through appropriate policy publishing.
Question 285
A compliance program needs standard security configuration expectations across multiple cloud subscriptions. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?
- A targeted remediation clears the relevant security recommendation without loosening the intended standard.
- A qualifying incident triggers the approved response steps with auditable execution results.
- Disallowed network flows are blocked by the expected rule without disrupting explicitly permitted connections.
- Supported malicious link access is blocked or warned according to the configured policy.
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:A targeted remediation clears the relevant security recommendation without loosening the intended standard. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. A recommendation identifies a technical improvement; a documented policy or assigned standard provides expectations for assessed resources.
Incorrect Answers
B:A qualifying incident triggers the approved response steps with auditable execution results. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Sentinel SOAR playbooks. Its appropriate purpose is: SOAR automates and orchestrates workflows; it complements rather than replaces detection analytics and human judgment. For the stated case, Cloud security policies and recommendations is the closer match. A recommendation identifies a technical improvement; a documented policy or assigned standard provides expectations for assessed resources.
C:Disallowed network flows are blocked by the expected rule without disrupting explicitly permitted connections. This item belongs to a different control area: Network security groups. Its appropriate purpose is: NSGs provide ordered L3/L4 traffic filtering in Azure, not deep web-request inspection. For the stated case, Cloud security policies and recommendations is the closer match. A recommendation identifies a technical improvement; a documented policy or assigned standard provides expectations for assessed resources.
D:Supported malicious link access is blocked or warned according to the configured policy. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Office 365 Safe Links. Its appropriate purpose is: Safe Links addresses URL-based threats; it does not inspect attached files for malware. For the stated case, Cloud security policies and recommendations is the closer match. A recommendation identifies a technical improvement; a documented policy or assigned standard provides expectations for assessed resources.
Question 286
A newly acquired business needs a directory-backed authentication source for cloud apps without creating separate app-local accounts. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?
- Protect sensitive information with appropriate encryption at rest and in transit and manage access to keys.
- Maintain documented governance decisions, risk ownership and compliance control evidence.
- Use a trusted identity provider and directory to manage identities and support application sign-in.
- Apply the customer's responsibility for identities, data and cloud configuration rather than assuming the provider performs every control.
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:Use a trusted identity provider and directory to manage identities and support application sign-in. This is the directly applicable response. An identity provider handles authentication while a directory stores and organizes identities and attributes; neither equals the protected application.
Incorrect Answers
A:Protect sensitive information with appropriate encryption at rest and in transit and manage access to keys. This item belongs to a different control area: Encryption. Its appropriate purpose is: Encryption makes data unreadable to an unauthorized party without the appropriate key; it differs from a one-way hash. For the stated case, Identity providers and directories is the closer match. An identity provider handles authentication while a directory stores and organizes identities and attributes; neither equals the protected application.
B:Maintain documented governance decisions, risk ownership and compliance control evidence. This item belongs to a different control area: Governance risk and compliance. Its appropriate purpose is: Governance sets direction, risk management evaluates exposure, and compliance verifies obligations against controls. For the stated case, Identity providers and directories is the closer match. An identity provider handles authentication while a directory stores and organizes identities and attributes; neither equals the protected application.
D:Apply the customer's responsibility for identities, data and cloud configuration rather than assuming the provider performs every control. This item belongs to a different control area: Cloud shared responsibility. Its appropriate purpose is: Shared responsibility divides security obligations according to the cloud service model; provider data-center security does not replace tenant controls. For the stated case, Identity providers and directories is the closer match. An identity provider handles authentication while a directory stores and organizes identities and attributes; neither equals the protected application.
Question 287
A fleet owner needs to verify progress after patching vulnerable browser versions. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.
- Use Microsoft Defender Vulnerability Management to discover, prioritize and track exposed device software weaknesses.
- Inspect WAF rules, managed-rule matches and HTTP request logs for the affected endpoint.
- Use Azure Key Vault to centrally control cryptographic key or certificate material and its authorized operations.
- Inspect device vulnerability inventory, recommendations, software exposure and remediation status.
- Disallowed network flows are blocked by the expected rule without disrupting explicitly permitted connections.
Explanation
Correct Answers
A:Use Microsoft Defender Vulnerability Management to discover, prioritize and track exposed device software weaknesses. This is the directly applicable response. Vulnerability management focuses on identifying and prioritizing exposures; it is distinct from active incident correlation.
D:Inspect device vulnerability inventory, recommendations, software exposure and remediation status. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Vulnerability management focuses on identifying and prioritizing exposures; it is distinct from active incident correlation.
Incorrect Answers
B:Inspect WAF rules, managed-rule matches and HTTP request logs for the affected endpoint. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure Web Application Firewall. Its appropriate purpose is: A WAF targets application-layer HTTP risks such as injection, unlike basic network port filtering. For the stated case, Defender Vulnerability Management is the closer match. Vulnerability management focuses on identifying and prioritizing exposures; it is distinct from active incident correlation.
C:Use Azure Key Vault to centrally control cryptographic key or certificate material and its authorized operations. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure Key Vault keys and certificates. Its appropriate purpose is: Key Vault supports cryptographic key and certificate lifecycle; secret storage alone is not a substitute for proper key policy. For the stated case, Defender Vulnerability Management is the closer match. Vulnerability management focuses on identifying and prioritizing exposures; it is distinct from active incident correlation.
E:Disallowed network flows are blocked by the expected rule without disrupting explicitly permitted connections. This item belongs to a different control area: Network security groups. Its appropriate purpose is: NSGs provide ordered L3/L4 traffic filtering in Azure, not deep web-request inspection. For the stated case, Defender Vulnerability Management is the closer match. Vulnerability management focuses on identifying and prioritizing exposures; it is distinct from active incident correlation.
Question 288
An auditor asks who changed a key sharing permission in a Microsoft 365 site. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?
- The investigator finds applicable activity events and can document who performed an action and when.
- Known matching test content is detected and nonmatching benign content is not broadly misclassified.
- Test sharing of covered sensitive data triggers the intended warning, block or audit action as configured.
- Completed validated actions appropriately change the calculated progress score while gaps remain visible.
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:The investigator finds applicable activity events and can document who performed an action and when. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. Audit provides activity logging and search, not a tool to classify documents or automatically enforce retention.
Incorrect Answers
B:Known matching test content is detected and nonmatching benign content is not broadly misclassified. This item belongs to a different control area: Sensitive information type classification. Its appropriate purpose is: Classification identifies content characteristics to support protection policies; classifying alone does not block exfiltration. For the stated case, Microsoft Purview Audit is the closer match. Audit provides activity logging and search, not a tool to classify documents or automatically enforce retention.
C:Test sharing of covered sensitive data triggers the intended warning, block or audit action as configured. This item belongs to a different control area: Data loss prevention policies. Its appropriate purpose is: DLP controls risky data movement based on policy conditions; labeling alone does not enforce every transmission restriction. For the stated case, Microsoft Purview Audit is the closer match. Audit provides activity logging and search, not a tool to classify documents or automatically enforce retention.
D:Completed validated actions appropriately change the calculated progress score while gaps remain visible. This item belongs to a different control area: Compliance score. Its appropriate purpose is: Compliance score measures tracked improvement progress; it is not a universal regulatory certification or breach-risk guarantee. For the stated case, Microsoft Purview Audit is the closer match. Audit provides activity logging and search, not a tool to classify documents or automatically enforce retention.
Question 289
A nonprofit is replacing separate application passwords with centralized user lifecycle and sign-in administration. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?
- Inspect subscription or resource role assignments and effective permissions for the target resource.
- Inspect role definitions, active assignments and role audit events for tenant administrators.
- Inspect device enrollment, configured Windows Hello credentials and successful intended authentication method.
- Inspect tenant user and group objects, enterprise application registration and sign-in events.
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:Inspect tenant user and group objects, enterprise application registration and sign-in events. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Microsoft Entra ID provides cloud directory and identity services, not network packet filtering or document retention.
Incorrect Answers
A:Inspect subscription or resource role assignments and effective permissions for the target resource. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure resource RBAC versus Entra roles. Its appropriate purpose is: Azure RBAC governs Azure resource permissions, whereas Microsoft Entra roles govern directory services. For the stated case, Microsoft Entra ID cloud identity is the closer match. Microsoft Entra ID provides cloud directory and identity services, not network packet filtering or document retention.
B:Inspect role definitions, active assignments and role audit events for tenant administrators. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Entra role-based access control. Its appropriate purpose is: Entra administrative roles govern directory and identity operations; Azure resource RBAC is a separate scope model. For the stated case, Microsoft Entra ID cloud identity is the closer match. Microsoft Entra ID provides cloud directory and identity services, not network packet filtering or document retention.
C:Inspect device enrollment, configured Windows Hello credentials and successful intended authentication method. This item belongs to a different control area: Windows Hello for Business. Its appropriate purpose is: Windows Hello for Business replaces reusable password use in supported scenarios with device-bound asymmetric credentials and local user verification. For the stated case, Microsoft Entra ID cloud identity is the closer match. Microsoft Entra ID provides cloud directory and identity services, not network packet filtering or document retention.
Question 290
A hybrid enterprise wants detection of identity attacks targeting domain accounts and directory infrastructure. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?
- Traffic paths honor the intended segment boundaries and only deliberately connected networks can communicate.
- An authorized workload retrieves the secret while unauthorized principals are denied and access is logged.
- Malicious web request patterns are blocked or logged while legitimate web requests continue.
- Relevant on-premises directory attack behavior generates supported identity threat detections.
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:Relevant on-premises directory attack behavior generates supported identity threat detections. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. Defender for Identity monitors on-premises identity threats and domain controller signals; it is not a cloud app SaaS discovery catalog.
Incorrect Answers
A:Traffic paths honor the intended segment boundaries and only deliberately connected networks can communicate. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure virtual network segmentation. Its appropriate purpose is: Virtual networks provide logical network isolation; separate security policies may still be needed to limit allowed flows. For the stated case, Defender for Identity is the closer match. Defender for Identity monitors on-premises identity threats and domain controller signals; it is not a cloud app SaaS discovery catalog.
B:An authorized workload retrieves the secret while unauthorized principals are denied and access is logged. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure Key Vault secrets. Its appropriate purpose is: Key Vault manages keys, secrets and certificates; it is not a general-purpose file storage or SIEM service. For the stated case, Defender for Identity is the closer match. Defender for Identity monitors on-premises identity threats and domain controller signals; it is not a cloud app SaaS discovery catalog.
C:Malicious web request patterns are blocked or logged while legitimate web requests continue. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure Web Application Firewall. Its appropriate purpose is: A WAF targets application-layer HTTP risks such as injection, unlike basic network port filtering. For the stated case, Defender for Identity is the closer match. Defender for Identity monitors on-premises identity threats and domain controller signals; it is not a cloud app SaaS discovery catalog.