cert
cert-1
cert-2

Pass Microsoft SC-900 Exam in First Attempt Guaranteed!

Get 100% Latest Exam Questions, Accurate & Verified Answers to Pass the Actual Exam!
30 Days Free Updates, Instant Download!

cert-5
cert-6
SC-900 Exam - Verified By Experts
SC-900 Premium Bundle
$29.98

SC-900 Premium Bundle

$79.99
$109.97
  • Premium File 259 Questions & Answers. Last update: Nov 10, 2026
  • Training Course 147 Video Lectures
  • Study Guide 413 Pages
 
$109.97
$79.99
accept 69 downloads in last 7 days
block-screenshots
Purchase Microsoft SC-900 Exam Training Products Individually
Microsoft SC-900 Premium File
Premium File 259 Q&A
$76.99$69.99
Microsoft SC-900 Video Training Course
Training Course 147 Lectures
$21.99 $19.99
Microsoft SC-900 PDF Study Guide
Study Guide 413 Pages
$21.99 $19.99
Microsoft SC-900 Practice Test 28

Question 270

A project needs phishing-resistant sign-in credentials for a privileged group working across browsers and devices. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?

  1. Scope Conditional Access to selected cloud applications and test policy results before enforcement.
  2. Use location-based Conditional Access rules only as one evaluated sign-in signal, not as proof of identity.
  3. Invite and govern partner users with Microsoft Entra B2B collaboration instead of issuing shared internal passwords.
  4. Offer phishing-resistant FIDO2 passkey authentication with supported Microsoft Entra methods.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Offer phishing-resistant FIDO2 passkey authentication with supported Microsoft Entra methods. This is the directly applicable response. FIDO2 passkeys bind authentication to the legitimate relying party and resist credential phishing more effectively than SMS codes.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Scope Conditional Access to selected cloud applications and test policy results before enforcement. This item belongs to a different control area: Conditional Access application targeting. Its appropriate purpose is: A policy should be tested for targeted principals and applications, with emergency-access exclusions where appropriate. For the stated case, Passkeys and FIDO2 is the closer match. FIDO2 passkeys bind authentication to the legitimate relying party and resist credential phishing more effectively than SMS codes.

B:

Use location-based Conditional Access rules only as one evaluated sign-in signal, not as proof of identity. This item belongs to a different control area: Conditional Access locations. Its appropriate purpose is: Conditional Access can evaluate network locations alongside identities and risk, but location by itself should not be assumed trustworthy. For the stated case, Passkeys and FIDO2 is the closer match. FIDO2 passkeys bind authentication to the legitimate relying party and resist credential phishing more effectively than SMS codes.

C:

Invite and govern partner users with Microsoft Entra B2B collaboration instead of issuing shared internal passwords. This item belongs to a different control area: External guest collaboration. Its appropriate purpose is: B2B collaboration supports external users while preserving explicit guest access and tenant policy boundaries. For the stated case, Passkeys and FIDO2 is the closer match. FIDO2 passkeys bind authentication to the legitimate relying party and resist credential phishing more effectively than SMS codes.

Question 271

A security analyst wants risk-prioritized cloud configuration findings across changing Azure resources. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?

  1. Use Microsoft Defender XDR to correlate incidents and signals across supported Microsoft security products.
  2. Enable relevant Cloud Security Posture Management capabilities to identify cloud configuration risks and improve posture.
  3. Use supported Defender for Cloud Apps Conditional Access App Control session controls for cloud app activity when configured.
  4. Use Azure Bastion to reach supported Azure VMs over RDP or SSH without exposing public management ports directly.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Enable relevant Cloud Security Posture Management capabilities to identify cloud configuration risks and improve posture. This is the directly applicable response. CSPM evaluates configuration and exposure risk proactively, rather than solely responding to an endpoint malware alert.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Use Microsoft Defender XDR to correlate incidents and signals across supported Microsoft security products. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Defender XDR unified incidents. Its appropriate purpose is: Defender XDR correlates detections across product domains; it does not replace storage of encryption keys or data retention governance. For the stated case, Cloud Security Posture Management is the closer match. CSPM evaluates configuration and exposure risk proactively, rather than solely responding to an endpoint malware alert.

C:

Use supported Defender for Cloud Apps Conditional Access App Control session controls for cloud app activity when configured. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Cloud Apps session controls. Its appropriate purpose is: Session controls provide real-time governance of supported cloud app activities; discovery alone does not enforce session behaviors. For the stated case, Cloud Security Posture Management is the closer match. CSPM evaluates configuration and exposure risk proactively, rather than solely responding to an endpoint malware alert.

D:

Use Azure Bastion to reach supported Azure VMs over RDP or SSH without exposing public management ports directly. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure Bastion. Its appropriate purpose is: Bastion supplies browser- or client-mediated secure VM management access; it is not a DDoS service. For the stated case, Cloud Security Posture Management is the closer match. CSPM evaluates configuration and exposure risk proactively, rather than solely responding to an endpoint malware alert.

Question 272

A credential leak prompts a review of potentially compromised cloud users and automated response options. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.

  1. A noncompliant device is blocked or challenged while compliant devices can access the targeted app.
  2. Inspect SSPR policy scope, method registration, registration status and reset audit logs.
  3. Use Microsoft Entra ID Protection signals to identify and respond to risky users or sign-ins.
  4. Inspect detected risk events, risk levels, policy outcomes and remediation history.
  5. Connect on-premises Active Directory identities with Microsoft Entra ID for a coordinated hybrid identity experience.

Explanation

Correct Answers

C:

Use Microsoft Entra ID Protection signals to identify and respond to risky users or sign-ins. This is the directly applicable response. Identity Protection detects identity-related risk signals; a generic role assignment alone does not assess risk.

D:

Inspect detected risk events, risk levels, policy outcomes and remediation history. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Identity Protection detects identity-related risk signals; a generic role assignment alone does not assess risk.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A noncompliant device is blocked or challenged while compliant devices can access the targeted app. This item belongs to a different control area: Conditional Access compliant devices. Its appropriate purpose is: Conditional Access combines signals and access controls; device compliance comes from the supported management and enrollment state. For the stated case, Identity Protection risk detection is the closer match. Identity Protection detects identity-related risk signals; a generic role assignment alone does not assess risk.

B:

Inspect SSPR policy scope, method registration, registration status and reset audit logs. This item belongs to a different control area: Self-service password reset. Its appropriate purpose is: SSPR helps account recovery; it does not grant additional resource authorization or bypass verification. For the stated case, Identity Protection risk detection is the closer match. Identity Protection detects identity-related risk signals; a generic role assignment alone does not assess risk.

E:

Connect on-premises Active Directory identities with Microsoft Entra ID for a coordinated hybrid identity experience. This item belongs to a different control area: Hybrid identity. Its appropriate purpose is: Hybrid identity coordinates on-premises and cloud identity management; it does not automatically move every workload to Azure. For the stated case, Identity Protection risk detection is the closer match. Identity Protection detects identity-related risk signals; a generic role assignment alone does not assess risk.

Question 273

An organization has repeated lateral movement incidents and wants identity-aware decisions with constrained access. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.

  1. The application accepts the intended provider's authenticated users and respects account disablement and configured access.
  2. Establish a standards-based trust between identity providers so one organization can authenticate users for a relying application.
  3. Review the sign-in context, permissions granted and enforcement of checks even for internal network requests.
  4. Use the Zero Trust principles of verify explicitly, least privilege and assume breach.
  5. Review identities, sign-in activity, access entitlements and whether resource decisions use identity signals.

Explanation

Correct Answers

C:

Review the sign-in context, permissions granted and enforcement of checks even for internal network requests. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Zero Trust does not automatically trust a user, device or connection because it originates on a corporate network.

D:

Use the Zero Trust principles of verify explicitly, least privilege and assume breach. This is the directly applicable response. Zero Trust does not automatically trust a user, device or connection because it originates on a corporate network.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The application accepts the intended provider's authenticated users and respects account disablement and configured access. This item belongs to a different control area: Identity providers and directories. Its appropriate purpose is: An identity provider handles authentication while a directory stores and organizes identities and attributes; neither equals the protected application. For the stated case, Zero Trust is the closer match. Zero Trust does not automatically trust a user, device or connection because it originates on a corporate network.

B:

Establish a standards-based trust between identity providers so one organization can authenticate users for a relying application. This item belongs to a different control area: Identity federation. Its appropriate purpose is: Federation extends authentication trust across security domains; it does not automatically grant unrestricted permissions. For the stated case, Zero Trust is the closer match. Zero Trust does not automatically trust a user, device or connection because it originates on a corporate network.

E:

Review identities, sign-in activity, access entitlements and whether resource decisions use identity signals. This item belongs to a different control area: Identity as security perimeter. Its appropriate purpose is: Cloud users and workloads access resources from varied networks, making authenticated identity and authorization central boundaries. For the stated case, Zero Trust is the closer match. Zero Trust does not automatically trust a user, device or connection because it originates on a corporate network.

Question 274

A team needs simple allow and deny controls at an Azure virtual machine network interface. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?

  1. Use Microsoft Defender for Identity to detect suspicious identity activity involving supported on-premises Active Directory environments.
  2. Apply Azure network security group rules to allow or deny traffic by source, destination, port and protocol at subnet or NIC scope.
  3. Use Microsoft Threat Intelligence capabilities and relevant threat context to enrich analysis of adversaries and indicators.
  4. Use Microsoft Defender XDR to correlate incidents and signals across supported Microsoft security products.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Apply Azure network security group rules to allow or deny traffic by source, destination, port and protocol at subnet or NIC scope. This is the directly applicable response. NSGs provide ordered L3/L4 traffic filtering in Azure, not deep web-request inspection.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Use Microsoft Defender for Identity to detect suspicious identity activity involving supported on-premises Active Directory environments. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Identity. Its appropriate purpose is: Defender for Identity monitors on-premises identity threats and domain controller signals; it is not a cloud app SaaS discovery catalog. For the stated case, Network security groups is the closer match. NSGs provide ordered L3/L4 traffic filtering in Azure, not deep web-request inspection.

C:

Use Microsoft Threat Intelligence capabilities and relevant threat context to enrich analysis of adversaries and indicators. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Threat Intelligence. Its appropriate purpose is: Threat intelligence adds context on threats and indicators; it does not by itself implement endpoint blocking or identity authorization. For the stated case, Network security groups is the closer match. NSGs provide ordered L3/L4 traffic filtering in Azure, not deep web-request inspection.

D:

Use Microsoft Defender XDR to correlate incidents and signals across supported Microsoft security products. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Defender XDR unified incidents. Its appropriate purpose is: Defender XDR correlates detections across product domains; it does not replace storage of encryption keys or data retention governance. For the stated case, Network security groups is the closer match. NSGs provide ordered L3/L4 traffic filtering in Azure, not deep web-request inspection.

Question 275

A project team wants scoped access to a resource group without granting privileged identity-management capabilities. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?

  1. Inspect synchronization health, scope filters, matching rules and recent export errors.
  2. Inspect subscription or resource role assignments and effective permissions for the target resource.
  3. Inspect access package catalogs, eligibility, request policy and expiration configuration.
  4. Inspect the resource's system- or user-assigned identity and its destination-resource RBAC grants.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Inspect subscription or resource role assignments and effective permissions for the target resource. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Azure RBAC governs Azure resource permissions, whereas Microsoft Entra roles govern directory services.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect synchronization health, scope filters, matching rules and recent export errors. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Entra Connect synchronization. Its appropriate purpose is: Directory synchronization must be scoped and observed; enabling it without verifying source objects can create identity drift. For the stated case, Azure resource RBAC versus Entra roles is the closer match. Azure RBAC governs Azure resource permissions, whereas Microsoft Entra roles govern directory services.

C:

Inspect access package catalogs, eligibility, request policy and expiration configuration. This item belongs to a different control area: Entitlement management access packages. Its appropriate purpose is: Entitlement management standardizes access bundles and access-request governance for groups, apps and sites. For the stated case, Azure resource RBAC versus Entra roles is the closer match. Azure RBAC governs Azure resource permissions, whereas Microsoft Entra roles govern directory services.

D:

Inspect the resource's system- or user-assigned identity and its destination-resource RBAC grants. This item belongs to a different control area: Managed identities. Its appropriate purpose is: Managed identities remove workload credential handling for supported Azure resources but still require appropriate authorization. For the stated case, Azure resource RBAC versus Entra roles is the closer match. Azure RBAC governs Azure resource permissions, whereas Microsoft Entra roles govern directory services.

Question 276

An operations engineer must detect whether a configuration artifact changed between two approved release stages. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?

  1. A modified input produces a different computed digest while an unchanged trusted item passes the comparison.
  2. Only validated principals with appropriate entitlements can reach sensitive cloud resources regardless of location.
  3. External identities sign in through the trusted home provider and receive only the application's authorized access.
  4. A verified sign-in succeeds without automatically allowing operations that the identity has not been granted.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

A modified input produces a different computed digest while an unchanged trusted item passes the comparison. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. Hashing supports integrity checks or password verification when designed correctly; hashing by itself does not provide encryption or confidentiality.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Only validated principals with appropriate entitlements can reach sensitive cloud resources regardless of location. This item belongs to a different control area: Identity as security perimeter. Its appropriate purpose is: Cloud users and workloads access resources from varied networks, making authenticated identity and authorization central boundaries. For the stated case, Cryptographic hashing is the closer match. Hashing supports integrity checks or password verification when designed correctly; hashing by itself does not provide encryption or confidentiality.

C:

External identities sign in through the trusted home provider and receive only the application's authorized access. This item belongs to a different control area: Identity federation. Its appropriate purpose is: Federation extends authentication trust across security domains; it does not automatically grant unrestricted permissions. For the stated case, Cryptographic hashing is the closer match. Hashing supports integrity checks or password verification when designed correctly; hashing by itself does not provide encryption or confidentiality.

D:

A verified sign-in succeeds without automatically allowing operations that the identity has not been granted. This item belongs to a different control area: Authentication and authorization. Its appropriate purpose is: Authentication proves identity or possession of credentials; authorization determines what that identity may do. For the stated case, Cryptographic hashing is the closer match. Hashing supports integrity checks or password verification when designed correctly; hashing by itself does not provide encryption or confidentiality.

Question 277

A tenant administrator reviews why an assistant has Global Administrator instead of a narrower required role. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.

  1. On-premises identity changes are reflected in Entra ID according to the configured sync topology.
  2. Inspect application and service principal objects, consented permissions and authentication credential lifecycle.
  3. Use Microsoft Entra entitlement management access packages with governed request, approval and expiration rules.
  4. Assign the least-privileged supported Microsoft Entra administrative role for a directory task.
  5. Inspect role definitions, active assignments and role audit events for tenant administrators.

Explanation

Correct Answers

D:

Assign the least-privileged supported Microsoft Entra administrative role for a directory task. This is the directly applicable response. Entra administrative roles govern directory and identity operations; Azure resource RBAC is a separate scope model.

E:

Inspect role definitions, active assignments and role audit events for tenant administrators. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Entra administrative roles govern directory and identity operations; Azure resource RBAC is a separate scope model.

Incorrect Answers

A:

On-premises identity changes are reflected in Entra ID according to the configured sync topology. This item belongs to a different control area: Hybrid identity. Its appropriate purpose is: Hybrid identity coordinates on-premises and cloud identity management; it does not automatically move every workload to Azure. For the stated case, Microsoft Entra role-based access control is the closer match. Entra administrative roles govern directory and identity operations; Azure resource RBAC is a separate scope model.

B:

Inspect application and service principal objects, consented permissions and authentication credential lifecycle. This item belongs to a different control area: Service principals. Its appropriate purpose is: Service principals represent applications or services rather than individual human users; credentials and consent must be governed. For the stated case, Microsoft Entra role-based access control is the closer match. Entra administrative roles govern directory and identity operations; Azure resource RBAC is a separate scope model.

C:

Use Microsoft Entra entitlement management access packages with governed request, approval and expiration rules. This item belongs to a different control area: Entitlement management access packages. Its appropriate purpose is: Entitlement management standardizes access bundles and access-request governance for groups, apps and sites. For the stated case, Microsoft Entra role-based access control is the closer match. Entra administrative roles govern directory and identity operations; Azure resource RBAC is a separate scope model.

Question 278

An organization has repeated lateral movement incidents and wants identity-aware decisions with constrained access. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?

  1. Inspect identity records, provider trust configuration, account lifecycle status and application sign-in integration.
  2. Review identities, sign-in activity, access entitlements and whether resource decisions use identity signals.
  3. Review the sign-in context, permissions granted and enforcement of checks even for internal network requests.
  4. Review the federation trust, issuer metadata, accepted tokens and sign-in transaction records.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Review the sign-in context, permissions granted and enforcement of checks even for internal network requests. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Zero Trust does not automatically trust a user, device or connection because it originates on a corporate network.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect identity records, provider trust configuration, account lifecycle status and application sign-in integration. This item belongs to a different control area: Identity providers and directories. Its appropriate purpose is: An identity provider handles authentication while a directory stores and organizes identities and attributes; neither equals the protected application. For the stated case, Zero Trust is the closer match. Zero Trust does not automatically trust a user, device or connection because it originates on a corporate network.

B:

Review identities, sign-in activity, access entitlements and whether resource decisions use identity signals. This item belongs to a different control area: Identity as security perimeter. Its appropriate purpose is: Cloud users and workloads access resources from varied networks, making authenticated identity and authorization central boundaries. For the stated case, Zero Trust is the closer match. Zero Trust does not automatically trust a user, device or connection because it originates on a corporate network.

D:

Review the federation trust, issuer metadata, accepted tokens and sign-in transaction records. This item belongs to a different control area: Identity federation. Its appropriate purpose is: Federation extends authentication trust across security domains; it does not automatically grant unrestricted permissions. For the stated case, Zero Trust is the closer match. Zero Trust does not automatically trust a user, device or connection because it originates on a corporate network.

Question 279

An incident-handling team needs repeatable enrichment and notification steps after security incidents arise. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?

  1. Inspect vault secrets, access configuration, audit logs and consuming identity permissions.
  2. Inspect policy assignments, noncompliant resources and recommendation-to-remediation mappings.
  3. Inspect automation rule triggers, Logic Apps playbook runs and action execution outcomes.
  4. Inspect session policy scope, controlled activities and matched cloud app session events.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Inspect automation rule triggers, Logic Apps playbook runs and action execution outcomes. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. SOAR automates and orchestrates workflows; it complements rather than replaces detection analytics and human judgment.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect vault secrets, access configuration, audit logs and consuming identity permissions. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure Key Vault secrets. Its appropriate purpose is: Key Vault manages keys, secrets and certificates; it is not a general-purpose file storage or SIEM service. For the stated case, Microsoft Sentinel SOAR playbooks is the closer match. SOAR automates and orchestrates workflows; it complements rather than replaces detection analytics and human judgment.

B:

Inspect policy assignments, noncompliant resources and recommendation-to-remediation mappings. This item belongs to a different control area: Cloud security policies and recommendations. Its appropriate purpose is: A recommendation identifies a technical improvement; a documented policy or assigned standard provides expectations for assessed resources. For the stated case, Microsoft Sentinel SOAR playbooks is the closer match. SOAR automates and orchestrates workflows; it complements rather than replaces detection analytics and human judgment.

D:

Inspect session policy scope, controlled activities and matched cloud app session events. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Cloud Apps session controls. Its appropriate purpose is: Session controls provide real-time governance of supported cloud app activities; discovery alone does not enforce session behaviors. For the stated case, Microsoft Sentinel SOAR playbooks is the closer match. SOAR automates and orchestrates workflows; it complements rather than replaces detection analytics and human judgment.

Question 280

A university has dozens of cloud apps and wants centrally managed student sign-ins instead of local passwords in each app. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?

  1. Inspect whether access policies, segmentation, application safeguards and encryption operate at independent layers.
  2. Inspect identity records, provider trust configuration, account lifecycle status and application sign-in integration.
  3. Review the sign-in context, permissions granted and enforcement of checks even for internal network requests.
  4. Identify storage encryption state, TLS connection settings and custody of cryptographic keys.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Inspect identity records, provider trust configuration, account lifecycle status and application sign-in integration. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. An identity provider handles authentication while a directory stores and organizes identities and attributes; neither equals the protected application.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect whether access policies, segmentation, application safeguards and encryption operate at independent layers. This item belongs to a different control area: Defense in depth. Its appropriate purpose is: Defense in depth reduces reliance on any one protection; it is not a claim that all risks can be eliminated. For the stated case, Identity providers and directories is the closer match. An identity provider handles authentication while a directory stores and organizes identities and attributes; neither equals the protected application.

C:

Review the sign-in context, permissions granted and enforcement of checks even for internal network requests. This item belongs to a different control area: Zero Trust. Its appropriate purpose is: Zero Trust does not automatically trust a user, device or connection because it originates on a corporate network. For the stated case, Identity providers and directories is the closer match. An identity provider handles authentication while a directory stores and organizes identities and attributes; neither equals the protected application.

D:

Identify storage encryption state, TLS connection settings and custody of cryptographic keys. This item belongs to a different control area: Encryption. Its appropriate purpose is: Encryption makes data unreadable to an unauthorized party without the appropriate key; it differs from a one-way hash. For the stated case, Identity providers and directories is the closer match. An identity provider handles authentication while a directory stores and organizes identities and attributes; neither equals the protected application.

Microsoft Security, Compliance, and Identity Fundamentals (SC-900) Practice Tests