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Cisco 350-701 Practice Test 119

Question 1180

An IT team needs to remove a prohibited remote desktop app from company-issued laptops without deleting legitimate tools. Which Cisco security control or operational response BEST addresses the stated need?

  1. Configure Cisco Secure Endpoint policy groups, detection and blocking settings, and connector deployment aligned to host risk.
  2. Use supported device management controls to enforce software update, application inventory, and secure configuration requirements for endpoints.
  3. Maintain managed device inventory with ownership, encryption, update, and enrollment policies before granting enterprise application access.
  4. Isolate high-risk endpoints using approved EDR response while preserving evidence and controlled paths for incident handling.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Use supported device management controls to enforce software update, application inventory, and secure configuration requirements for endpoints. This control addresses the failure mechanism and narrows the enforcement boundary. Device management can deploy settings and collect compliance status; a successful enrollment alone does not prove ongoing patch health. Confirm pre-change conditions using: Inspect OS patch level, installed applications, configuration baselines, exception evidence, and last check-in. Situation: An IT team needs to remove a prohibited remote desktop app from company-issued laptops without deleting legitimate tools.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Configure Cisco Secure Endpoint policy groups, detection and blocking settings, and connector deployment aligned to host risk. This response applies to Cisco Secure Endpoint antimalware policy, not the controlling requirement in this case. Endpoint policy efficacy depends on correct host enrollment, file disposition, behavior detection, and controlled exclusions. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Use supported device management controls to enforce software update, application inventory, and secure configuration requirements for endpoints. Situation: An IT team needs to remove a prohibited remote desktop app from company-issued laptops without deleting legitimate tools.

C:

Maintain managed device inventory with ownership, encryption, update, and enrollment policies before granting enterprise application access. This response applies to MDM device enrollment and inventory, not the controlling requirement in this case. A managed device inventory links technical posture to accountability; simply knowing an IP address does not establish device trust. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Use supported device management controls to enforce software update, application inventory, and secure configuration requirements for endpoints. Situation: An IT team needs to remove a prohibited remote desktop app from company-issued laptops without deleting legitimate tools.

D:

Isolate high-risk endpoints using approved EDR response while preserving evidence and controlled paths for incident handling. This response applies to Endpoint incident isolation and forensics, not the controlling requirement in this case. Endpoint isolation contains spread but can interrupt critical operations; response must balance urgency, containment scope, and evidence preservation. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Use supported device management controls to enforce software update, application inventory, and secure configuration requirements for endpoints. Situation: An IT team needs to remove a prohibited remote desktop app from company-issued laptops without deleting legitimate tools.

Question 1181

A support ticket comment containing HTML script executes when a privileged reviewer opens the ticket. Which observed result BEST confirms that the security requirement is met?

  1. An impostor email does not redirect supplier payments or change account settings without a separately validated authorization.
  2. A client rejects a substituted or expired certificate rather than accepting encryption to the wrong endpoint.
  3. Injected script is displayed inertly and forged cross-site requests cannot perform authorized state changes without valid defenses.
  4. Attack strings are handled as data and cannot change query predicates or retrieve unrelated rows during negative tests.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Injected script is displayed inertly and forged cross-site requests cannot perform authorized state changes without valid defenses. This is an observable acceptance condition, rather than an assumption that enabling a feature alone proves security. XSS executes attacker-controlled browser code, while CSRF tricks an authenticated browser into submitting unintended operations; their mitigations differ. Situation: A support ticket comment containing HTML script executes when a privileged reviewer opens the ticket.

Incorrect Answers

A:

An impostor email does not redirect supplier payments or change account settings without a separately validated authorization. This outcome tests Business email compromise verification and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: Injected script is displayed inertly and forged cross-site requests cannot perform authorized state changes without valid defenses. Situation: A support ticket comment containing HTML script executes when a privileged reviewer opens the ticket.

B:

A client rejects a substituted or expired certificate rather than accepting encryption to the wrong endpoint. This outcome tests TLS certificate authentication and PKI and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: Injected script is displayed inertly and forged cross-site requests cannot perform authorized state changes without valid defenses. Situation: A support ticket comment containing HTML script executes when a privileged reviewer opens the ticket.

D:

Attack strings are handled as data and cannot change query predicates or retrieve unrelated rows during negative tests. This outcome tests SQL injection and parameterized queries and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: Injected script is displayed inertly and forged cross-site requests cannot perform authorized state changes without valid defenses. Situation: A support ticket comment containing HTML script executes when a privileged reviewer opens the ticket.

Question 1182

A site-to-site tunnel intermittently fails when one peer changes its encryption proposal without updating the other. Which observed result BEST confirms that the security requirement is met?

  1. A client rejects a substituted or expired certificate rather than accepting encryption to the wrong endpoint.
  2. Poisoned documents or swapped model dependencies fail integrity or access checks before affecting sensitive answers.
  3. Protected traffic crosses the tunnel with authenticated peers and encrypted data even behind the intended NAT device.
  4. Authorized managed devices establish intended access while untrusted endpoints or excluded networks cannot bypass remote-access policy.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Protected traffic crosses the tunnel with authenticated peers and encrypted data even behind the intended NAT device. This is an observable acceptance condition, rather than an assumption that enabling a feature alone proves security. NAT traversal commonly encapsulates ESP over UDP 4500; a successful IKE handshake alone does not prove data-plane IPsec traffic passes. Situation: A site-to-site tunnel intermittently fails when one peer changes its encryption proposal without updating the other.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A client rejects a substituted or expired certificate rather than accepting encryption to the wrong endpoint. This outcome tests TLS certificate authentication and PKI and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: Protected traffic crosses the tunnel with authenticated peers and encrypted data even behind the intended NAT device. Situation: A site-to-site tunnel intermittently fails when one peer changes its encryption proposal without updating the other.

B:

Poisoned documents or swapped model dependencies fail integrity or access checks before affecting sensitive answers. This outcome tests Embedding and model supply chain risk and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: Protected traffic crosses the tunnel with authenticated peers and encrypted data even behind the intended NAT device. Situation: A site-to-site tunnel intermittently fails when one peer changes its encryption proposal without updating the other.

D:

Authorized managed devices establish intended access while untrusted endpoints or excluded networks cannot bypass remote-access policy. This outcome tests Remote access VPN client controls and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: Protected traffic crosses the tunnel with authenticated peers and encrypted data even behind the intended NAT device. Situation: A site-to-site tunnel intermittently fails when one peer changes its encryption proposal without updating the other.

Question 1183

A wired workstation with an expired client certificate fails EAP-TLS after renewal automation breaks. Which observed result BEST confirms that the security requirement is met?

  1. An unauthorized sensitive export is detected and blocked or escalated while approved business uploads remain permitted.
  2. Authorized managed endpoints join the intended network while expired, revoked, or untrusted device credentials receive restricted treatment.
  3. Only endpoints meeting the approved compliance baseline access protected networks and exceptions are time bounded.
  4. Correlated suspicious activity creates a reviewable incident and only authorized containment actions execute under tested automation.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Authorized managed endpoints join the intended network while expired, revoked, or untrusted device credentials receive restricted treatment. This is an observable acceptance condition, rather than an assumption that enabling a feature alone proves security. Device certificate authentication verifies a credential but does not on its own guarantee security software or configuration compliance. Situation: A wired workstation with an expired client certificate fails EAP-TLS after renewal automation breaks.

Incorrect Answers

A:

An unauthorized sensitive export is detected and blocked or escalated while approved business uploads remain permitted. This outcome tests HTTPS and cloud-storage exfiltration containment and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: Authorized managed endpoints join the intended network while expired, revoked, or untrusted device credentials receive restricted treatment. Situation: A wired workstation with an expired client certificate fails EAP-TLS after renewal automation breaks.

C:

Only endpoints meeting the approved compliance baseline access protected networks and exceptions are time bounded. This outcome tests Endpoint application compliance and risk-based access and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: Authorized managed endpoints join the intended network while expired, revoked, or untrusted device credentials receive restricted treatment. Situation: A wired workstation with an expired client certificate fails EAP-TLS after renewal automation breaks.

D:

Correlated suspicious activity creates a reviewable incident and only authorized containment actions execute under tested automation. This outcome tests SIEM and SOAR workflow distinction and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: Authorized managed endpoints join the intended network while expired, revoked, or untrusted device credentials receive restricted treatment. Situation: A wired workstation with an expired client certificate fails EAP-TLS after renewal automation breaks.

Question 1184

An investigator compares two similar-looking domains and needs lexical and traffic-based reasons for one higher risk rating. Before changing security policy, what evidence should the engineer examine FIRST?

  1. Inspect domain risk score, lexical and behavior indicators, known security categorization, age, related infrastructure, and current business use.
  2. Inspect observed resolver clients, domain pivots, domain categorization, timestamps, threat indicators, and access logs.
  3. Inspect data classifiers, exact-match or pattern quality, sanctioned SaaS domains, upload channel visibility, and allowed exceptions.
  4. Inspect connector registration, reachability to application backends, DNS resolution, user session logs, and connector redundancy.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Inspect domain risk score, lexical and behavior indicators, known security categorization, age, related infrastructure, and current business use. This checks the relevant condition before an engineer modifies production access or detection behavior. Cisco Secure Access Investigate risk scores combine indicators; a score is decision support and not a sole definitive compromise verdict. The controlled response would be: Interpret Cisco Secure Access Investigate domain risk and sub-scores with threat context before deciding to block or allow domains. Situation: An investigator compares two similar-looking domains and needs lexical and traffic-based reasons for one higher risk rating.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Inspect observed resolver clients, domain pivots, domain categorization, timestamps, threat indicators, and access logs. This evidence addresses Investigate infrastructure attribution and false positives; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect domain risk score, lexical and behavior indicators, known security categorization, age, related infrastructure, and current business use. Situation: An investigator compares two similar-looking domains and needs lexical and traffic-based reasons for one higher risk rating.

C:

Inspect data classifiers, exact-match or pattern quality, sanctioned SaaS domains, upload channel visibility, and allowed exceptions. This evidence addresses Cloud DLP sensitive upload policy; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect domain risk score, lexical and behavior indicators, known security categorization, age, related infrastructure, and current business use. Situation: An investigator compares two similar-looking domains and needs lexical and traffic-based reasons for one higher risk rating.

D:

Inspect connector registration, reachability to application backends, DNS resolution, user session logs, and connector redundancy. This evidence addresses Private app connector resilience and troubleshooting; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect domain risk score, lexical and behavior indicators, known security categorization, age, related infrastructure, and current business use. Situation: An investigator compares two similar-looking domains and needs lexical and traffic-based reasons for one higher risk rating.

Question 1185

An infected remote laptop continues beaconing to known malicious infrastructure after a basic file quarantine. Which TWO complementary steps provide the most defensible remediation and its supporting assessment? Select TWO.

  1. Isolate high-risk endpoints using approved EDR response while preserving evidence and controlled paths for incident handling.
  2. Choose endpoint prevention, behavioral detection, and response capabilities based on business risk and investigation needs rather than equating antivirus with EDR.
  3. Unknown or unenrolled devices cannot obtain normal corporate access and lost assets can be investigated through ownership records.
  4. Inspect endpoint detection confidence, host role, active communications, isolation capabilities, and forensic evidence collection.
  5. Inspect OS patch level, installed applications, configuration baselines, exception evidence, and last check-in.

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

Isolate high-risk endpoints using approved EDR response while preserving evidence and controlled paths for incident handling. This control addresses the failure mechanism and narrows the enforcement boundary. Endpoint isolation contains spread but can interrupt critical operations; response must balance urgency, containment scope, and evidence preservation. Confirm pre-change conditions using: Inspect endpoint detection confidence, host role, active communications, isolation capabilities, and forensic evidence collection. This is the implementation portion of the complementary pair. Situation: An infected remote laptop continues beaconing to known malicious infrastructure after a basic file quarantine.

D:

Inspect endpoint detection confidence, host role, active communications, isolation capabilities, and forensic evidence collection. This checks the relevant condition before an engineer modifies production access or detection behavior. Endpoint isolation contains spread but can interrupt critical operations; response must balance urgency, containment scope, and evidence preservation. The controlled response would be: Isolate high-risk endpoints using approved EDR response while preserving evidence and controlled paths for incident handling. This supplies the diagnostic evidence needed for the complementary action. Situation: An infected remote laptop continues beaconing to known malicious infrastructure after a basic file quarantine.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Choose endpoint prevention, behavioral detection, and response capabilities based on business risk and investigation needs rather than equating antivirus with EDR. This step could matter for Endpoint protection versus detection response but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Isolate high-risk endpoints using approved EDR response while preserving evidence and controlled paths for incident handling. and Inspect endpoint detection confidence, host role, active communications, isolation capabilities, and forensic evidence collection. Situation: An infected remote laptop continues beaconing to known malicious infrastructure after a basic file quarantine.

C:

Unknown or unenrolled devices cannot obtain normal corporate access and lost assets can be investigated through ownership records. This step could matter for MDM device enrollment and inventory but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Isolate high-risk endpoints using approved EDR response while preserving evidence and controlled paths for incident handling. and Inspect endpoint detection confidence, host role, active communications, isolation capabilities, and forensic evidence collection. Situation: An infected remote laptop continues beaconing to known malicious infrastructure after a basic file quarantine.

E:

Inspect OS patch level, installed applications, configuration baselines, exception evidence, and last check-in. This step could matter for MDM application and patch compliance but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Isolate high-risk endpoints using approved EDR response while preserving evidence and controlled paths for incident handling. and Inspect endpoint detection confidence, host role, active communications, isolation capabilities, and forensic evidence collection. Situation: An infected remote laptop continues beaconing to known malicious infrastructure after a basic file quarantine.

Question 1186

A laptop becomes noncompliant after login but retains unrestricted wired access until the switch port is manually reset. Which observed result BEST confirms that the security requirement is met?

  1. A device that fails posture moves to remediation or disconnects under the updated policy without requiring a full network restart.
  2. A riskier session receives a stronger verification or denial decision without blocking routine authorized access unnecessarily.
  3. A controlled policy change reaches the correct active session and either reauthenticates or terminates it as intended.
  4. A linked multi-source incident supports proportional containment with evidence from affected devices and services.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

A device that fails posture moves to remediation or disconnects under the updated policy without requiring a full network restart. This is an observable acceptance condition, rather than an assumption that enabling a feature alone proves security. CoA allows an AAA policy server to request changes to an existing access session; it requires compatible network device settings and correct session matching. Situation: A laptop becomes noncompliant after login but retains unrestricted wired access until the switch port is manually reset.

Incorrect Answers

B:

A riskier session receives a stronger verification or denial decision without blocking routine authorized access unnecessarily. This outcome tests Duo Adaptive Access and SSO context and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: A device that fails posture moves to remediation or disconnects under the updated policy without requiring a full network restart. Situation: A laptop becomes noncompliant after login but retains unrestricted wired access until the switch port is manually reset.

C:

A controlled policy change reaches the correct active session and either reauthenticates or terminates it as intended. This outcome tests CoA failure and authorization policy debugging and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: A device that fails posture moves to remediation or disconnects under the updated policy without requiring a full network restart. Situation: A laptop becomes noncompliant after login but retains unrestricted wired access until the switch port is manually reset.

D:

A linked multi-source incident supports proportional containment with evidence from affected devices and services. This outcome tests Cisco XDR cross-source incident correlation and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: A device that fails posture moves to remediation or disconnects under the updated policy without requiring a full network restart. Situation: A laptop becomes noncompliant after login but retains unrestricted wired access until the switch port is manually reset.

Question 1187

An administrator wants to restrict web-to-database connections without breaking documented monitoring flows. Before changing security policy, what evidence should the engineer examine FIRST?

  1. Inspect dependency scan outputs, container registry status, build provenance, release gates, and remediation ownership.
  2. Inspect observed workload flows, application labels, operating-system compatibility, enforcement capabilities, and permitted dependency graphs.
  3. Inspect cloud route tables, network attachment paths, traffic direction, security policy, and supported deployment scope.
  4. Inspect OAuth app grants, external collaboration settings, admin roles, account lifecycle, and cloud sharing audit logs.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Inspect observed workload flows, application labels, operating-system compatibility, enforcement capabilities, and permitted dependency graphs. This checks the relevant condition before an engineer modifies production access or detection behavior. Workload microsegmentation controls internal communications based on application context; it complements rather than replaces internet-facing perimeter security. The controlled response would be: Model workload dependencies and use policy-based application segmentation for least-privilege east-west communication with Cisco Secure Workload. Situation: An administrator wants to restrict web-to-database connections without breaking documented monitoring flows.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect dependency scan outputs, container registry status, build provenance, release gates, and remediation ownership. This evidence addresses CI CD container and application security lifecycle; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect observed workload flows, application labels, operating-system compatibility, enforcement capabilities, and permitted dependency graphs. Situation: An administrator wants to restrict web-to-database connections without breaking documented monitoring flows.

C:

Inspect cloud route tables, network attachment paths, traffic direction, security policy, and supported deployment scope. This evidence addresses Cisco Multicloud Defense traffic policy; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect observed workload flows, application labels, operating-system compatibility, enforcement capabilities, and permitted dependency graphs. Situation: An administrator wants to restrict web-to-database connections without breaking documented monitoring flows.

D:

Inspect OAuth app grants, external collaboration settings, admin roles, account lifecycle, and cloud sharing audit logs. This evidence addresses SaaS configuration and tenant boundary protection; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect observed workload flows, application labels, operating-system compatibility, enforcement capabilities, and permitted dependency graphs. Situation: An administrator wants to restrict web-to-database connections without breaking documented monitoring flows.

Question 1188

An analyst distributes a suspicious IP without documenting why it is malicious or which incident it came from. Before changing security policy, what evidence should the engineer examine FIRST?

  1. Inspect indicator type, observed confidence, publication time, false-positive records, allowed consumers, and expiration logic.
  2. Inspect client connection logs, authentication flow, posture result, assigned routes, certificate policy, and headend access control.
  3. Inspect API documentation, token scope, request headers, JSON schema, response status, and transaction logs.
  4. Review message authentication results, sender/domain similarities, original contact directory, transaction changes, and escalation records.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Inspect indicator type, observed confidence, publication time, false-positive records, allowed consumers, and expiration logic. This checks the relevant condition before an engineer modifies production access or detection behavior. Threat indicators are leads with changing confidence, not immutable proof that every matching host is compromised. The controlled response would be: Curate indicators with source confidence, freshness, context, and expiration before distributing to enforcement and investigation tools. Situation: An analyst distributes a suspicious IP without documenting why it is malicious or which incident it came from.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Inspect client connection logs, authentication flow, posture result, assigned routes, certificate policy, and headend access control. This evidence addresses Remote access VPN client controls; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect indicator type, observed confidence, publication time, false-positive records, allowed consumers, and expiration logic. Situation: An analyst distributes a suspicious IP without documenting why it is malicious or which incident it came from.

C:

Inspect API documentation, token scope, request headers, JSON schema, response status, and transaction logs. This evidence addresses Authenticated security API requests; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect indicator type, observed confidence, publication time, false-positive records, allowed consumers, and expiration logic. Situation: An analyst distributes a suspicious IP without documenting why it is malicious or which incident it came from.

D:

Review message authentication results, sender/domain similarities, original contact directory, transaction changes, and escalation records. This evidence addresses Business email compromise verification; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect indicator type, observed confidence, publication time, false-positive records, allowed consumers, and expiration logic. Situation: An analyst distributes a suspicious IP without documenting why it is malicious or which incident it came from.

Question 1189

A server reports the Secure Endpoint connector is installed but has not checked in to receive updated policy. Which observed result BEST confirms that the security requirement is met?

  1. Unknown or unenrolled devices cannot obtain normal corporate access and lost assets can be investigated through ownership records.
  2. A controlled malicious test file is detected or blocked under the intended endpoint policy while approved software remains functional.
  3. A confirmed legitimate application resumes operation while unrelated malicious activity remains detectable.
  4. A device losing mandatory protection is reclassified or disconnected without waiting for a scheduled monthly audit.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

A controlled malicious test file is detected or blocked under the intended endpoint policy while approved software remains functional. This is an observable acceptance condition, rather than an assumption that enabling a feature alone proves security. Endpoint policy efficacy depends on correct host enrollment, file disposition, behavior detection, and controlled exclusions. Situation: A server reports the Secure Endpoint connector is installed but has not checked in to receive updated policy.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Unknown or unenrolled devices cannot obtain normal corporate access and lost assets can be investigated through ownership records. This outcome tests MDM device enrollment and inventory and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: A controlled malicious test file is detected or blocked under the intended endpoint policy while approved software remains functional. Situation: A server reports the Secure Endpoint connector is installed but has not checked in to receive updated policy.

C:

A confirmed legitimate application resumes operation while unrelated malicious activity remains detectable. This outcome tests Secure Endpoint response exclusions and policy safety and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: A controlled malicious test file is detected or blocked under the intended endpoint policy while approved software remains functional. Situation: A server reports the Secure Endpoint connector is installed but has not checked in to receive updated policy.

D:

A device losing mandatory protection is reclassified or disconnected without waiting for a scheduled monthly audit. This outcome tests Continuous endpoint trust and posture drift and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: A controlled malicious test file is detected or blocked under the intended endpoint policy while approved software remains functional. Situation: A server reports the Secure Endpoint connector is installed but has not checked in to receive updated policy.

Question 1190

A campus protects internet entry but leaves sensitive research servers open to every internal department. Which observed result BEST confirms that the security requirement is met?

  1. Unauthorized connections are denied while known hostile payloads are detected by the intended inline intrusion policy without unrelated outages.
  2. Tested exploit traffic is detected or blocked by the configured policy while legitimate services remain available.
  3. Compromising one application tier does not grant unrestricted lateral access to adjacent protected workloads.
  4. Firewall and switch events share consistent time ordering and protected transport to the authorized log collector.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Compromising one application tier does not grant unrestricted lateral access to adjacent protected workloads. This is an observable acceptance condition, rather than an assumption that enabling a feature alone proves security. Perimeter inspection focuses north-south traffic; internal segmentation contains east-west lateral movement when workloads share a network. Situation: A campus protects internet entry but leaves sensitive research servers open to every internal department.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Unauthorized connections are denied while known hostile payloads are detected by the intended inline intrusion policy without unrelated outages. This outcome tests Stateful firewall and IPS placement and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: Compromising one application tier does not grant unrestricted lateral access to adjacent protected workloads. Situation: A campus protects internet entry but leaves sensitive research servers open to every internal department.

B:

Tested exploit traffic is detected or blocked by the configured policy while legitimate services remain available. This outcome tests FTD intrusion policy and malware detection and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: Compromising one application tier does not grant unrestricted lateral access to adjacent protected workloads. Situation: A campus protects internet entry but leaves sensitive research servers open to every internal department.

D:

Firewall and switch events share consistent time ordering and protected transport to the authorized log collector. This outcome tests Secure syslog and timestamp correlation and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: Compromising one application tier does not grant unrestricted lateral access to adjacent protected workloads. Situation: A campus protects internet entry but leaves sensitive research servers open to every internal department.

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