Cisco 350-701 Practice Test 118
Question 1170
A security engineer proposes disabling a critical administrative service merely because an unrelated benchmark says to remove unused services. Which observed result BEST confirms that the security requirement is met?
- Configuration findings map to auditable benchmark controls and critical deviations are corrected without assuming every default is compliant.
- Untrusted networks cannot reach device administration and high-volume control traffic does not overwhelm protocol stability.
- Supported appliances receive tracked approved policies through the chosen management plane without granting excessive console privilege.
- Approved branch traffic traverses the encrypted tunnel and response packets return through the selected protected path.
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:Configuration findings map to auditable benchmark controls and critical deviations are corrected without assuming every default is compliant. This is an observable acceptance condition, rather than an assumption that enabling a feature alone proves security. Security benchmarks are version-specific prescriptive baselines; blindly applying all recommendations without operational review can disrupt required services. Situation: A security engineer proposes disabling a critical administrative service merely because an unrelated benchmark says to remove unused services.
Incorrect Answers
B:Untrusted networks cannot reach device administration and high-volume control traffic does not overwhelm protocol stability. This outcome tests Router control plane and management isolation and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: Configuration findings map to auditable benchmark controls and critical deviations are corrected without assuming every default is compliant. Situation: A security engineer proposes disabling a critical administrative service merely because an unrelated benchmark says to remove unused services.
C:Supported appliances receive tracked approved policies through the chosen management plane without granting excessive console privilege. This outcome tests Cisco Security Cloud Control management boundary and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: Configuration findings map to auditable benchmark controls and critical deviations are corrected without assuming every default is compliant. Situation: A security engineer proposes disabling a critical administrative service merely because an unrelated benchmark says to remove unused services.
D:Approved branch traffic traverses the encrypted tunnel and response packets return through the selected protected path. This outcome tests FTD site-to-site VPN crypto policy and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: Configuration findings map to auditable benchmark controls and critical deviations are corrected without assuming every default is compliant. Situation: A security engineer proposes disabling a critical administrative service merely because an unrelated benchmark says to remove unused services.
Question 1171
A partner feed provides hashes, domains, and confidence scores but the firewall import ignores expiration metadata. Which observed result BEST confirms that the security requirement is met?
- New approved networks traverse the intended secured virtual tunnel without proliferating inconsistent policy selectors.
- Confirmed malicious indicators are shared and acted upon while expired or disputed indicators no longer cause unjustified blocking.
- Poisoned documents or swapped model dependencies fail integrity or access checks before affecting sensitive answers.
- A permitted read returns validated records while unauthorized writes and non-success responses never masquerade as completed changes.
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:Confirmed malicious indicators are shared and acted upon while expired or disputed indicators no longer cause unjustified blocking. This is an observable acceptance condition, rather than an assumption that enabling a feature alone proves security. Threat indicators are leads with changing confidence, not immutable proof that every matching host is compromised. Situation: A partner feed provides hashes, domains, and confidence scores but the firewall import ignores expiration metadata.
Incorrect Answers
A:New approved networks traverse the intended secured virtual tunnel without proliferating inconsistent policy selectors. This outcome tests Route-based versus policy-based VPN design and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: Confirmed malicious indicators are shared and acted upon while expired or disputed indicators no longer cause unjustified blocking. Situation: A partner feed provides hashes, domains, and confidence scores but the firewall import ignores expiration metadata.
C:Poisoned documents or swapped model dependencies fail integrity or access checks before affecting sensitive answers. This outcome tests Embedding and model supply chain risk and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: Confirmed malicious indicators are shared and acted upon while expired or disputed indicators no longer cause unjustified blocking. Situation: A partner feed provides hashes, domains, and confidence scores but the firewall import ignores expiration metadata.
D:A permitted read returns validated records while unauthorized writes and non-success responses never masquerade as completed changes. This outcome tests Authenticated security API requests and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: Confirmed malicious indicators are shared and acted upon while expired or disputed indicators no longer cause unjustified blocking. Situation: A partner feed provides hashes, domains, and confidence scores but the firewall import ignores expiration metadata.
Question 1172
A developer runs application code on PaaS but fails to patch vulnerable application dependencies that remain under customer control. Which observed result BEST confirms that the security requirement is met?
- A control checklist identifies responsible teams for patching, identities, configuration, and data even when underlying infrastructure is provider managed.
- A compromised workload identity cannot delete unrelated assets and changes are attributable to an approved actor.
- Equivalent approved network and identity restrictions work on each target cloud without assuming policy formats are interchangeable.
- Sensitive objects remain encrypted and only approved application identities can decrypt them under documented key policy.
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:A control checklist identifies responsible teams for patching, identities, configuration, and data even when underlying infrastructure is provider managed. This is an observable acceptance condition, rather than an assumption that enabling a feature alone proves security. Cloud providers secure their portion of the stack, but moving an application to SaaS does not eliminate the customer's identity and data obligations. Situation: A developer runs application code on PaaS but fails to patch vulnerable application dependencies that remain under customer control.
Incorrect Answers
B:A compromised workload identity cannot delete unrelated assets and changes are attributable to an approved actor. This outcome tests Cloud IAM least privilege and logging and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: A control checklist identifies responsible teams for patching, identities, configuration, and data even when underlying infrastructure is provider managed. Situation: A developer runs application code on PaaS but fails to patch vulnerable application dependencies that remain under customer control.
C:Equivalent approved network and identity restrictions work on each target cloud without assuming policy formats are interchangeable. This outcome tests Multicloud identity and centralized policy governance and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: A control checklist identifies responsible teams for patching, identities, configuration, and data even when underlying infrastructure is provider managed. Situation: A developer runs application code on PaaS but fails to patch vulnerable application dependencies that remain under customer control.
D:Sensitive objects remain encrypted and only approved application identities can decrypt them under documented key policy. This outcome tests Cloud application encryption and key responsibility and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: A control checklist identifies responsible teams for patching, identities, configuration, and data even when underlying infrastructure is provider managed. Situation: A developer runs application code on PaaS but fails to patch vulnerable application dependencies that remain under customer control.
Question 1173
An employee successfully authenticates to FTD using Secure Client but has no route for a newly approved subnet. Which observed result BEST confirms that the security requirement is met?
- Approved branch traffic traverses the encrypted tunnel and response packets return through the selected protected path.
- An unauthorized host cannot query network inventory while approved monitoring obtains the required counters over protected access.
- Compliant users receive intended protected routes and application access without exposing unrelated networks.
- Offers from an unauthorized user port are dropped while legitimate clients receive leases and bindings are learned.
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:Compliant users receive intended protected routes and application access without exposing unrelated networks. This is an observable acceptance condition, rather than an assumption that enabling a feature alone proves security. Remote client tunnel success, user authentication, and authorized application reachability are distinct troubleshooting checkpoints. Situation: An employee successfully authenticates to FTD using Secure Client but has no route for a newly approved subnet.
Incorrect Answers
A:Approved branch traffic traverses the encrypted tunnel and response packets return through the selected protected path. This outcome tests FTD site-to-site VPN crypto policy and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: Compliant users receive intended protected routes and application access without exposing unrelated networks. Situation: An employee successfully authenticates to FTD using Secure Client but has no route for a newly approved subnet.
B:An unauthorized host cannot query network inventory while approved monitoring obtains the required counters over protected access. This outcome tests SNMPv3 authenticated encrypted polling and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: Compliant users receive intended protected routes and application access without exposing unrelated networks. Situation: An employee successfully authenticates to FTD using Secure Client but has no route for a newly approved subnet.
D:Offers from an unauthorized user port are dropped while legitimate clients receive leases and bindings are learned. This outcome tests DHCP snooping trust and rogue server control and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: Compliant users receive intended protected routes and application access without exposing unrelated networks. Situation: An employee successfully authenticates to FTD using Secure Client but has no route for a newly approved subnet.
Question 1174
A finance employee enters a password into a lookalike SSO portal and a new login appears from an unfamiliar country. Before changing security policy, what evidence should the engineer examine FIRST?
- Examine flow spikes, source distributions, server resource graphs, load-balancer logs, and endpoint execution telemetry.
- Inspect dynamic SQL construction, query logs, supplied payloads, database role privileges, and application input paths.
- Inspect server certificate SAN, chain trust, expiry and revocation status, negotiated protocol, and handshake errors.
- Inspect sender and destination mismatch, sign-in geography, authentication strength, new device enrollment, and user-reported prompts.
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:Inspect sender and destination mismatch, sign-in geography, authentication strength, new device enrollment, and user-reported prompts. This checks the relevant condition before an engineer modifies production access or detection behavior. Phishing harvests authentication material; contextual verification and phishing-resistant authenticators reduce credential replay risk without proving all messages are safe. The controlled response would be: Require phishing-resistant multifactor sign-in for sensitive accounts and investigate unusual authentication patterns before accepting credentials as trusted. Situation: A finance employee enters a password into a lookalike SSO portal and a new login appears from an unfamiliar country.
Incorrect Answers
A:Examine flow spikes, source distributions, server resource graphs, load-balancer logs, and endpoint execution telemetry. This evidence addresses DDoS versus endpoint malware diagnosis; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect sender and destination mismatch, sign-in geography, authentication strength, new device enrollment, and user-reported prompts. Situation: A finance employee enters a password into a lookalike SSO portal and a new login appears from an unfamiliar country.
B:Inspect dynamic SQL construction, query logs, supplied payloads, database role privileges, and application input paths. This evidence addresses SQL injection and parameterized queries; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect sender and destination mismatch, sign-in geography, authentication strength, new device enrollment, and user-reported prompts. Situation: A finance employee enters a password into a lookalike SSO portal and a new login appears from an unfamiliar country.
C:Inspect server certificate SAN, chain trust, expiry and revocation status, negotiated protocol, and handshake errors. This evidence addresses TLS certificate authentication and PKI; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect sender and destination mismatch, sign-in geography, authentication strength, new device enrollment, and user-reported prompts. Situation: A finance employee enters a password into a lookalike SSO portal and a new login appears from an unfamiliar country.
Question 1175
A laptop with disabled host firewall is still granted full wired access due to an overly broad access policy. Which TWO complementary steps provide the most defensible remediation and its supporting assessment? Select TWO.
- Inspect endpoint detection confidence, host role, active communications, isolation capabilities, and forensic evidence collection.
- Inspect agent health, malware protection state, required updates, disk encryption, identity, and posture policy result.
- A crafted executive impersonation email is identified and removed or blocked according to the supported deployment mode.
- Reevaluate endpoint compliance after meaningful security changes and update access decisions when device health becomes unacceptable.
- Evaluate endpoint security posture before authorizing sensitive network access and establish a restricted remediation path for failed devices.
Explanation
Correct Answers
B:Inspect agent health, malware protection state, required updates, disk encryption, identity, and posture policy result. This checks the relevant condition before an engineer modifies production access or detection behavior. Posture is device health evidence used in policy; authentication alone does not guarantee an endpoint meets security baseline. The controlled response would be: Evaluate endpoint security posture before authorizing sensitive network access and establish a restricted remediation path for failed devices. This supplies the diagnostic evidence needed for the complementary action. Situation: A laptop with disabled host firewall is still granted full wired access due to an overly broad access policy.
E:Evaluate endpoint security posture before authorizing sensitive network access and establish a restricted remediation path for failed devices. This control addresses the failure mechanism and narrows the enforcement boundary. Posture is device health evidence used in policy; authentication alone does not guarantee an endpoint meets security baseline. Confirm pre-change conditions using: Inspect agent health, malware protection state, required updates, disk encryption, identity, and posture policy result. This is the implementation portion of the complementary pair. Situation: A laptop with disabled host firewall is still granted full wired access due to an overly broad access policy.
Incorrect Answers
A:Inspect endpoint detection confidence, host role, active communications, isolation capabilities, and forensic evidence collection. This step could matter for Endpoint incident isolation and forensics but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Evaluate endpoint security posture before authorizing sensitive network access and establish a restricted remediation path for failed devices. and Inspect agent health, malware protection state, required updates, disk encryption, identity, and posture policy result. Situation: A laptop with disabled host firewall is still granted full wired access due to an overly broad access policy.
C:A crafted executive impersonation email is identified and removed or blocked according to the supported deployment mode. This step could matter for Email Threat Defense anti impersonation controls but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Evaluate endpoint security posture before authorizing sensitive network access and establish a restricted remediation path for failed devices. and Inspect agent health, malware protection state, required updates, disk encryption, identity, and posture policy result. Situation: A laptop with disabled host firewall is still granted full wired access due to an overly broad access policy.
D:Reevaluate endpoint compliance after meaningful security changes and update access decisions when device health becomes unacceptable. This step could matter for Continuous endpoint trust and posture drift but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Evaluate endpoint security posture before authorizing sensitive network access and establish a restricted remediation path for failed devices. and Inspect agent health, malware protection state, required updates, disk encryption, identity, and posture policy result. Situation: A laptop with disabled host firewall is still granted full wired access due to an overly broad access policy.
Question 1176
A new infrastructure change includes a hardcoded API token in a plan committed to a public build log. Before changing security policy, what evidence should the engineer examine FIRST?
- Inspect asset inventory, cloud service exposure, cloud security baseline, exception handling, and assessment findings.
- Inspect Terraform or similar plan diff, policy-as-code results, source review, sensitive variable handling, and approver identity.
- Inspect dependency scan outputs, container registry status, build provenance, release gates, and remediation ownership.
- Inspect provider service agreements, guest OS and application responsibilities, customer IAM, network settings, and data classification.
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:Inspect Terraform or similar plan diff, policy-as-code results, source review, sensitive variable handling, and approver identity. This checks the relevant condition before an engineer modifies production access or detection behavior. Infrastructure as Code makes misconfiguration reproducible; peer review and predeployment policy gates reduce repeated risky settings. The controlled response would be: Require IaC templates to pass secrets, policy, and network exposure scanning before deployment and document authorized exceptions. Situation: A new infrastructure change includes a hardcoded API token in a plan committed to a public build log.
Incorrect Answers
A:Inspect asset inventory, cloud service exposure, cloud security baseline, exception handling, and assessment findings. This evidence addresses Cloud security posture policy selection; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect Terraform or similar plan diff, policy-as-code results, source review, sensitive variable handling, and approver identity. Situation: A new infrastructure change includes a hardcoded API token in a plan committed to a public build log.
C:Inspect dependency scan outputs, container registry status, build provenance, release gates, and remediation ownership. This evidence addresses CI CD container and application security lifecycle; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect Terraform or similar plan diff, policy-as-code results, source review, sensitive variable handling, and approver identity. Situation: A new infrastructure change includes a hardcoded API token in a plan committed to a public build log.
D:Inspect provider service agreements, guest OS and application responsibilities, customer IAM, network settings, and data classification. This evidence addresses Cloud provider customer responsibility map; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect Terraform or similar plan diff, policy-as-code results, source review, sensitive variable handling, and approver identity. Situation: A new infrastructure change includes a hardcoded API token in a plan committed to a public build log.
Question 1177
A junior technician can log in to a switch but should not be able to modify routing or AAA policies. Which observed result BEST confirms that the security requirement is met?
- Investigators can associate suspicious encrypted connections with affected devices while private payload content remains protected.
- An engineer logs in successfully but forbidden configuration commands are denied and recorded for review.
- An unauthorized host cannot query network inventory while approved monitoring obtains the required counters over protected access.
- Intended users receive the correct policy and connection failures can be attributed to a specific AAA stage.
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:An engineer logs in successfully but forbidden configuration commands are denied and recorded for review. This is an observable acceptance condition, rather than an assumption that enabling a feature alone proves security. TACACS+ commonly separates authentication, authorization, and accounting for network device administration; user authentication alone does not grant every command. Situation: A junior technician can log in to a switch but should not be able to modify routing or AAA policies.
Incorrect Answers
A:Investigators can associate suspicious encrypted connections with affected devices while private payload content remains protected. This outcome tests Encrypted network telemetry and correlated detection and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: An engineer logs in successfully but forbidden configuration commands are denied and recorded for review. Situation: A junior technician can log in to a switch but should not be able to modify routing or AAA policies.
C:An unauthorized host cannot query network inventory while approved monitoring obtains the required counters over protected access. This outcome tests SNMPv3 authenticated encrypted polling and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: An engineer logs in successfully but forbidden configuration commands are denied and recorded for review. Situation: A junior technician can log in to a switch but should not be able to modify routing or AAA policies.
D:Intended users receive the correct policy and connection failures can be attributed to a specific AAA stage. This outcome tests RADIUS network access troubleshooting and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: An engineer logs in successfully but forbidden configuration commands are denied and recorded for review. Situation: A junior technician can log in to a switch but should not be able to modify routing or AAA policies.
Question 1178
A rogue laptop imports an unrelated public certificate and expects it to grant campus network admission. Before changing security policy, what evidence should the engineer examine FIRST?
- Inspect security agent health, supported application versions, posture evidence, policy exceptions, and dynamic authorization.
- Inspect CoA NAK or timeout records, UDP transport, session identifiers, network device shared secret, and switch logs.
- Inspect flow byte asymmetry, SaaS tenant, DLP events, process initiator, upload time, and user job role.
- Inspect issuing CA trust, certificate subject and EKU, expiry, device records, policy match, and failed EAP logs.
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:Inspect issuing CA trust, certificate subject and EKU, expiry, device records, policy match, and failed EAP logs. This checks the relevant condition before an engineer modifies production access or detection behavior. Device certificate authentication verifies a credential but does not on its own guarantee security software or configuration compliance. The controlled response would be: Use certificates and role-aware policy to distinguish approved managed devices from unknown or noncompliant devices during network onboarding. Situation: A rogue laptop imports an unrelated public certificate and expects it to grant campus network admission.
Incorrect Answers
A:Inspect security agent health, supported application versions, posture evidence, policy exceptions, and dynamic authorization. This evidence addresses Endpoint application compliance and risk-based access; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect issuing CA trust, certificate subject and EKU, expiry, device records, policy match, and failed EAP logs. Situation: A rogue laptop imports an unrelated public certificate and expects it to grant campus network admission.
B:Inspect CoA NAK or timeout records, UDP transport, session identifiers, network device shared secret, and switch logs. This evidence addresses CoA failure and authorization policy debugging; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect issuing CA trust, certificate subject and EKU, expiry, device records, policy match, and failed EAP logs. Situation: A rogue laptop imports an unrelated public certificate and expects it to grant campus network admission.
C:Inspect flow byte asymmetry, SaaS tenant, DLP events, process initiator, upload time, and user job role. This evidence addresses HTTPS and cloud-storage exfiltration containment; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect issuing CA trust, certificate subject and EKU, expiry, device records, policy match, and failed EAP logs. Situation: A rogue laptop imports an unrelated public certificate and expects it to grant campus network admission.
Question 1179
A contractor device requires a security patch and should reach only approved update services before obtaining production access. Which observed result BEST confirms that the security requirement is met?
- The deployment achieves its declared pre-delivery or post-delivery protection without claiming a journaling-only path is an inline SMTP gateway.
- A noncompliant device receives remediation access but cannot reach restricted corporate services until reevaluated.
- Unknown or unenrolled devices cannot obtain normal corporate access and lost assets can be investigated through ownership records.
- A device losing mandatory protection is reclassified or disconnected without waiting for a scheduled monthly audit.
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:A noncompliant device receives remediation access but cannot reach restricted corporate services until reevaluated. This is an observable acceptance condition, rather than an assumption that enabling a feature alone proves security. Posture is device health evidence used in policy; authentication alone does not guarantee an endpoint meets security baseline. Situation: A contractor device requires a security patch and should reach only approved update services before obtaining production access.
Incorrect Answers
A:The deployment achieves its declared pre-delivery or post-delivery protection without claiming a journaling-only path is an inline SMTP gateway. This outcome tests Email Threat Defense deployment mode selection and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: A noncompliant device receives remediation access but cannot reach restricted corporate services until reevaluated. Situation: A contractor device requires a security patch and should reach only approved update services before obtaining production access.
C:Unknown or unenrolled devices cannot obtain normal corporate access and lost assets can be investigated through ownership records. This outcome tests MDM device enrollment and inventory and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: A noncompliant device receives remediation access but cannot reach restricted corporate services until reevaluated. Situation: A contractor device requires a security patch and should reach only approved update services before obtaining production access.
D:A device losing mandatory protection is reclassified or disconnected without waiting for a scheduled monthly audit. This outcome tests Continuous endpoint trust and posture drift and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: A noncompliant device receives remediation access but cannot reach restricted corporate services until reevaluated. Situation: A contractor device requires a security patch and should reach only approved update services before obtaining production access.
Question 1180
An IT team needs to remove a prohibited remote desktop app from company-issued laptops without deleting legitimate tools. Which Cisco security control or operational response BEST addresses the stated need?
- Configure Cisco Secure Endpoint policy groups, detection and blocking settings, and connector deployment aligned to host risk.
- Use supported device management controls to enforce software update, application inventory, and secure configuration requirements for endpoints.
- Maintain managed device inventory with ownership, encryption, update, and enrollment policies before granting enterprise application access.
- Isolate high-risk endpoints using approved EDR response while preserving evidence and controlled paths for incident handling.
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:Use supported device management controls to enforce software update, application inventory, and secure configuration requirements for endpoints. This control addresses the failure mechanism and narrows the enforcement boundary. Device management can deploy settings and collect compliance status; a successful enrollment alone does not prove ongoing patch health. Confirm pre-change conditions using: Inspect OS patch level, installed applications, configuration baselines, exception evidence, and last check-in. Situation: An IT team needs to remove a prohibited remote desktop app from company-issued laptops without deleting legitimate tools.
Incorrect Answers
A:Configure Cisco Secure Endpoint policy groups, detection and blocking settings, and connector deployment aligned to host risk. This response applies to Cisco Secure Endpoint antimalware policy, not the controlling requirement in this case. Endpoint policy efficacy depends on correct host enrollment, file disposition, behavior detection, and controlled exclusions. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Use supported device management controls to enforce software update, application inventory, and secure configuration requirements for endpoints. Situation: An IT team needs to remove a prohibited remote desktop app from company-issued laptops without deleting legitimate tools.
C:Maintain managed device inventory with ownership, encryption, update, and enrollment policies before granting enterprise application access. This response applies to MDM device enrollment and inventory, not the controlling requirement in this case. A managed device inventory links technical posture to accountability; simply knowing an IP address does not establish device trust. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Use supported device management controls to enforce software update, application inventory, and secure configuration requirements for endpoints. Situation: An IT team needs to remove a prohibited remote desktop app from company-issued laptops without deleting legitimate tools.
D:Isolate high-risk endpoints using approved EDR response while preserving evidence and controlled paths for incident handling. This response applies to Endpoint incident isolation and forensics, not the controlling requirement in this case. Endpoint isolation contains spread but can interrupt critical operations; response must balance urgency, containment scope, and evidence preservation. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Use supported device management controls to enforce software update, application inventory, and secure configuration requirements for endpoints. Situation: An IT team needs to remove a prohibited remote desktop app from company-issued laptops without deleting legitimate tools.