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Microsoft SC-900 Practice Test 65

Question 640

An operations engineer must detect whether a configuration artifact changed between two approved release stages. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.

  1. Compare a securely computed digest with a trusted expected digest or properly managed password verifier.
  2. A verified sign-in succeeds without automatically allowing operations that the identity has not been granted.
  3. Use a suitable one-way cryptographic hash to check integrity rather than recover an original secret.
  4. Review identities, sign-in activity, access entitlements and whether resource decisions use identity signals.
  5. Establish a standards-based trust between identity providers so one organization can authenticate users for a relying application.

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

Compare a securely computed digest with a trusted expected digest or properly managed password verifier. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Hashing supports integrity checks or password verification when designed correctly; hashing by itself does not provide encryption or confidentiality.

C:

Use a suitable one-way cryptographic hash to check integrity rather than recover an original secret. This is the directly applicable response. Hashing supports integrity checks or password verification when designed correctly; hashing by itself does not provide encryption or confidentiality.

Incorrect Answers

B:

A verified sign-in succeeds without automatically allowing operations that the identity has not been granted. This item belongs to a different control area: Authentication and authorization. Its appropriate purpose is: Authentication proves identity or possession of credentials; authorization determines what that identity may do. For the stated case, Cryptographic hashing is the closer match. Hashing supports integrity checks or password verification when designed correctly; hashing by itself does not provide encryption or confidentiality.

D:

Review identities, sign-in activity, access entitlements and whether resource decisions use identity signals. This item belongs to a different control area: Identity as security perimeter. Its appropriate purpose is: Cloud users and workloads access resources from varied networks, making authenticated identity and authorization central boundaries. For the stated case, Cryptographic hashing is the closer match. Hashing supports integrity checks or password verification when designed correctly; hashing by itself does not provide encryption or confidentiality.

E:

Establish a standards-based trust between identity providers so one organization can authenticate users for a relying application. This item belongs to a different control area: Identity federation. Its appropriate purpose is: Federation extends authentication trust across security domains; it does not automatically grant unrestricted permissions. For the stated case, Cryptographic hashing is the closer match. Hashing supports integrity checks or password verification when designed correctly; hashing by itself does not provide encryption or confidentiality.

Question 641

A security team needs a prioritized list of outdated software affecting corporate endpoints. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?

  1. Inspect policy assignments, noncompliant resources and recommendation-to-remediation mappings.
  2. Inspect WAF rules, managed-rule matches and HTTP request logs for the affected endpoint.
  3. Inspect attack mitigation telemetry, protected public IP association and network traffic anomaly patterns.
  4. Inspect device vulnerability inventory, recommendations, software exposure and remediation status.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Inspect device vulnerability inventory, recommendations, software exposure and remediation status. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Vulnerability management focuses on identifying and prioritizing exposures; it is distinct from active incident correlation.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect policy assignments, noncompliant resources and recommendation-to-remediation mappings. This item belongs to a different control area: Cloud security policies and recommendations. Its appropriate purpose is: A recommendation identifies a technical improvement; a documented policy or assigned standard provides expectations for assessed resources. For the stated case, Defender Vulnerability Management is the closer match. Vulnerability management focuses on identifying and prioritizing exposures; it is distinct from active incident correlation.

B:

Inspect WAF rules, managed-rule matches and HTTP request logs for the affected endpoint. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure Web Application Firewall. Its appropriate purpose is: A WAF targets application-layer HTTP risks such as injection, unlike basic network port filtering. For the stated case, Defender Vulnerability Management is the closer match. Vulnerability management focuses on identifying and prioritizing exposures; it is distinct from active incident correlation.

C:

Inspect attack mitigation telemetry, protected public IP association and network traffic anomaly patterns. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure DDoS Protection. Its appropriate purpose is: DDoS Protection addresses distributed denial-of-service traffic aimed at network services; it does not replace a web-application rule engine. For the stated case, Defender Vulnerability Management is the closer match. Vulnerability management focuses on identifying and prioritizing exposures; it is distinct from active incident correlation.

Question 642

A governance analyst needs classification-oriented item-level visibility before creating remediation plans. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.

  1. Inspect the relevant Purview solution pages, available roles and enabled features.
  2. Assessment owners can see outstanding control work, evidence and completion status for the chosen framework.
  3. Use Microsoft Purview Content explorer to examine classified content locations and relevant item details with proper roles.
  4. Use the compliance score in Microsoft Purview Compliance Manager as a progress indicator for assessed improvement actions.
  5. Inspect Content explorer's classification breakdown and permission-scoped item drill-down.

Explanation

Correct Answers

C:

Use Microsoft Purview Content explorer to examine classified content locations and relevant item details with proper roles. This is the directly applicable response. Content explorer helps inspect classified data inventory; Activity explorer focuses on actions and activity history.

E:

Inspect Content explorer's classification breakdown and permission-scoped item drill-down. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Content explorer helps inspect classified data inventory; Activity explorer focuses on actions and activity history.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect the relevant Purview solution pages, available roles and enabled features. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Purview portal. Its appropriate purpose is: The Purview portal is a central interface for multiple compliance and data-governance solutions, not itself a finished compliance certification. For the stated case, Content explorer is the closer match. Content explorer helps inspect classified data inventory; Activity explorer focuses on actions and activity history.

B:

Assessment owners can see outstanding control work, evidence and completion status for the chosen framework. This item belongs to a different control area: Compliance Manager. Its appropriate purpose is: Compliance Manager maps control activities and improvements; it does not automatically guarantee legal compliance. For the stated case, Content explorer is the closer match. Content explorer helps inspect classified data inventory; Activity explorer focuses on actions and activity history.

D:

Use the compliance score in Microsoft Purview Compliance Manager as a progress indicator for assessed improvement actions. This item belongs to a different control area: Compliance score. Its appropriate purpose is: Compliance score measures tracked improvement progress; it is not a universal regulatory certification or breach-risk guarantee. For the stated case, Content explorer is the closer match. Content explorer helps inspect classified data inventory; Activity explorer focuses on actions and activity history.

Question 643

Two organizations collaborate while keeping independent identity directories and avoiding shared static passwords. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?

  1. Review the sign-in context, permissions granted and enforcement of checks even for internal network requests.
  2. Review the federation trust, issuer metadata, accepted tokens and sign-in transaction records.
  3. Compare a securely computed digest with a trusted expected digest or properly managed password verifier.
  4. Examine risk registers, accountable owners, policies, regulatory mappings and control test records.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Review the federation trust, issuer metadata, accepted tokens and sign-in transaction records. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Federation extends authentication trust across security domains; it does not automatically grant unrestricted permissions.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Review the sign-in context, permissions granted and enforcement of checks even for internal network requests. This item belongs to a different control area: Zero Trust. Its appropriate purpose is: Zero Trust does not automatically trust a user, device or connection because it originates on a corporate network. For the stated case, Identity federation is the closer match. Federation extends authentication trust across security domains; it does not automatically grant unrestricted permissions.

C:

Compare a securely computed digest with a trusted expected digest or properly managed password verifier. This item belongs to a different control area: Cryptographic hashing. Its appropriate purpose is: Hashing supports integrity checks or password verification when designed correctly; hashing by itself does not provide encryption or confidentiality. For the stated case, Identity federation is the closer match. Federation extends authentication trust across security domains; it does not automatically grant unrestricted permissions.

D:

Examine risk registers, accountable owners, policies, regulatory mappings and control test records. This item belongs to a different control area: Governance risk and compliance. Its appropriate purpose is: Governance sets direction, risk management evaluates exposure, and compliance verifies obligations against controls. For the stated case, Identity federation is the closer match. Federation extends authentication trust across security domains; it does not automatically grant unrestricted permissions.

Question 644

A company wants strong authentication tied to managed Windows laptops rather than shared department passwords. After implementing the intended safeguard, which outcome BEST demonstrates that the stated requirement has been met?

  1. Privileged permissions become active for approved windows and do not remain permanently assigned without need.
  2. Expected in-scope users and attribute updates appear in Entra ID without duplicate cloud accounts.
  3. The automation receives only its consented permissions and unused credentials are removed or rotated.
  4. Users unlock or authenticate with a local gesture backed by a device-bound cryptographic credential.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Users unlock or authenticate with a local gesture backed by a device-bound cryptographic credential. This observable outcome tests whether the requirement has actually been met. Windows Hello for Business replaces reusable password use in supported scenarios with device-bound asymmetric credentials and local user verification.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Privileged permissions become active for approved windows and do not remain permanently assigned without need. This item belongs to a different control area: Privileged Identity Management eligible roles. Its appropriate purpose is: PIM reduces standing privilege and provides just-in-time activation controls for supported roles. For the stated case, Windows Hello for Business is the closer match. Windows Hello for Business replaces reusable password use in supported scenarios with device-bound asymmetric credentials and local user verification.

B:

Expected in-scope users and attribute updates appear in Entra ID without duplicate cloud accounts. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Entra Connect synchronization. Its appropriate purpose is: Directory synchronization must be scoped and observed; enabling it without verifying source objects can create identity drift. For the stated case, Windows Hello for Business is the closer match. Windows Hello for Business replaces reusable password use in supported scenarios with device-bound asymmetric credentials and local user verification.

C:

The automation receives only its consented permissions and unused credentials are removed or rotated. This item belongs to a different control area: Service principals. Its appropriate purpose is: Service principals represent applications or services rather than individual human users; credentials and consent must be governed. For the stated case, Windows Hello for Business is the closer match. Windows Hello for Business replaces reusable password use in supported scenarios with device-bound asymmetric credentials and local user verification.

Question 645

A quarterly audit asks department owners to attest that privileged group memberships are still justified. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.

  1. Inspect the review scope, reviewer decisions, cadence and application of review results.
  2. Inspect application and service principal objects, consented permissions and authentication credential lifecycle.
  3. Assign an Azure managed identity to a supported workload so it obtains Entra tokens without storing app passwords.
  4. Schedule Microsoft Entra access reviews to let owners recertify whether users still need access.
  5. Known weak or organization-specific passwords are rejected where the configured protection is enforced.

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

Inspect the review scope, reviewer decisions, cadence and application of review results. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Access reviews periodically reassess existing permissions, unlike a new initial access request.

D:

Schedule Microsoft Entra access reviews to let owners recertify whether users still need access. This is the directly applicable response. Access reviews periodically reassess existing permissions, unlike a new initial access request.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Inspect application and service principal objects, consented permissions and authentication credential lifecycle. This item belongs to a different control area: Service principals. Its appropriate purpose is: Service principals represent applications or services rather than individual human users; credentials and consent must be governed. For the stated case, Access reviews is the closer match. Access reviews periodically reassess existing permissions, unlike a new initial access request.

C:

Assign an Azure managed identity to a supported workload so it obtains Entra tokens without storing app passwords. This item belongs to a different control area: Managed identities. Its appropriate purpose is: Managed identities remove workload credential handling for supported Azure resources but still require appropriate authorization. For the stated case, Access reviews is the closer match. Access reviews periodically reassess existing permissions, unlike a new initial access request.

E:

Known weak or organization-specific passwords are rejected where the configured protection is enforced. This item belongs to a different control area: Password protection. Its appropriate purpose is: Password protection blocks weak password choices; it does not replace MFA or a full identity risk policy. For the stated case, Access reviews is the closer match. Access reviews periodically reassess existing permissions, unlike a new initial access request.

Question 646

A compliance director wants a numerical view of progress on assessed control improvements. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.

  1. Use the compliance score in Microsoft Purview Compliance Manager as a progress indicator for assessed improvement actions.
  2. Use Microsoft Purview Insider Risk Management to investigate configured potentially risky user activities under approved privacy safeguards.
  3. Target items receive the correct retention label and follow the configured item-level lifecycle behavior.
  4. Inspect score breakdown, applicable improvement actions and updates to action completion.
  5. Inspect Service Trust Portal document categories and available audit reports for the requested service.

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

Use the compliance score in Microsoft Purview Compliance Manager as a progress indicator for assessed improvement actions. This is the directly applicable response. Compliance score measures tracked improvement progress; it is not a universal regulatory certification or breach-risk guarantee.

D:

Inspect score breakdown, applicable improvement actions and updates to action completion. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Compliance score measures tracked improvement progress; it is not a universal regulatory certification or breach-risk guarantee.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Use Microsoft Purview Insider Risk Management to investigate configured potentially risky user activities under approved privacy safeguards. This item belongs to a different control area: Insider risk management. Its appropriate purpose is: Insider risk policies correlate relevant insider indicators; they do not authorize indiscriminate surveillance or replace privacy and employment policy. For the stated case, Compliance score is the closer match. Compliance score measures tracked improvement progress; it is not a universal regulatory certification or breach-risk guarantee.

C:

Target items receive the correct retention label and follow the configured item-level lifecycle behavior. This item belongs to a different control area: Retention labels. Its appropriate purpose is: Retention labels govern specific items; a broad location-level retention policy does not provide the same fine-grained labeling behavior. For the stated case, Compliance score is the closer match. Compliance score measures tracked improvement progress; it is not a universal regulatory certification or breach-risk guarantee.

E:

Inspect Service Trust Portal document categories and available audit reports for the requested service. This item belongs to a different control area: Service Trust Portal. Its appropriate purpose is: The Service Trust Portal offers Microsoft service assurance resources; customers remain responsible for their own compliance obligations. For the stated case, Compliance score is the closer match. Compliance score measures tracked improvement progress; it is not a universal regulatory certification or breach-risk guarantee.

Question 647

A newly acquired business needs a directory-backed authentication source for cloud apps without creating separate app-local accounts. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?

  1. Inspect identity records, provider trust configuration, account lifecycle status and application sign-in integration.
  2. Inspect the service model and the tenant's IAM, application, data and guest-OS control assignments.
  3. Identify storage encryption state, TLS connection settings and custody of cryptographic keys.
  4. Examine risk registers, accountable owners, policies, regulatory mappings and control test records.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Inspect identity records, provider trust configuration, account lifecycle status and application sign-in integration. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. An identity provider handles authentication while a directory stores and organizes identities and attributes; neither equals the protected application.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Inspect the service model and the tenant's IAM, application, data and guest-OS control assignments. This item belongs to a different control area: Cloud shared responsibility. Its appropriate purpose is: Shared responsibility divides security obligations according to the cloud service model; provider data-center security does not replace tenant controls. For the stated case, Identity providers and directories is the closer match. An identity provider handles authentication while a directory stores and organizes identities and attributes; neither equals the protected application.

C:

Identify storage encryption state, TLS connection settings and custody of cryptographic keys. This item belongs to a different control area: Encryption. Its appropriate purpose is: Encryption makes data unreadable to an unauthorized party without the appropriate key; it differs from a one-way hash. For the stated case, Identity providers and directories is the closer match. An identity provider handles authentication while a directory stores and organizes identities and attributes; neither equals the protected application.

D:

Examine risk registers, accountable owners, policies, regulatory mappings and control test records. This item belongs to a different control area: Governance risk and compliance. Its appropriate purpose is: Governance sets direction, risk management evaluates exposure, and compliance verifies obligations against controls. For the stated case, Identity providers and directories is the closer match. An identity provider handles authentication while a directory stores and organizes identities and attributes; neither equals the protected application.

Question 648

An admin portal requires extra authentication when users connect from untrusted networks. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.

  1. Inspect registered passkey credentials, permitted authentication-method settings and sign-in method details.
  2. Expected in-scope users and attribute updates appear in Entra ID without duplicate cloud accounts.
  3. Inspect named locations, policy exclusions, targeting and sign-in location evaluation.
  4. Use location-based Conditional Access rules only as one evaluated sign-in signal, not as proof of identity.
  5. Require an additional authentication factor for relevant user sign-ins using supported Entra MFA methods.

Explanation

Correct Answers

C:

Inspect named locations, policy exclusions, targeting and sign-in location evaluation. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Conditional Access can evaluate network locations alongside identities and risk, but location by itself should not be assumed trustworthy.

D:

Use location-based Conditional Access rules only as one evaluated sign-in signal, not as proof of identity. This is the directly applicable response. Conditional Access can evaluate network locations alongside identities and risk, but location by itself should not be assumed trustworthy.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect registered passkey credentials, permitted authentication-method settings and sign-in method details. This item belongs to a different control area: Passkeys and FIDO2. Its appropriate purpose is: FIDO2 passkeys bind authentication to the legitimate relying party and resist credential phishing more effectively than SMS codes. For the stated case, Conditional Access locations is the closer match. Conditional Access can evaluate network locations alongside identities and risk, but location by itself should not be assumed trustworthy.

B:

Expected in-scope users and attribute updates appear in Entra ID without duplicate cloud accounts. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Entra Connect synchronization. Its appropriate purpose is: Directory synchronization must be scoped and observed; enabling it without verifying source objects can create identity drift. For the stated case, Conditional Access locations is the closer match. Conditional Access can evaluate network locations alongside identities and risk, but location by itself should not be assumed trustworthy.

E:

Require an additional authentication factor for relevant user sign-ins using supported Entra MFA methods. This item belongs to a different control area: Multifactor authentication. Its appropriate purpose is: MFA combines different factor categories to reduce account takeover from a stolen password alone. For the stated case, Conditional Access locations is the closer match. Conditional Access can evaluate network locations alongside identities and risk, but location by itself should not be assumed trustworthy.

Question 649

A new remote-work policy demands an additional sign-in proof beyond one memorized password. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?

  1. Assign an Azure managed identity to a supported workload so it obtains Entra tokens without storing app passwords.
  2. Use Microsoft Entra ID as the cloud identity and access-management service for users, groups and applications.
  3. Require an additional authentication factor for relevant user sign-ins using supported Entra MFA methods.
  4. Assign the least-privileged supported Microsoft Entra administrative role for a directory task.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Require an additional authentication factor for relevant user sign-ins using supported Entra MFA methods. This is the directly applicable response. MFA combines different factor categories to reduce account takeover from a stolen password alone.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Assign an Azure managed identity to a supported workload so it obtains Entra tokens without storing app passwords. This item belongs to a different control area: Managed identities. Its appropriate purpose is: Managed identities remove workload credential handling for supported Azure resources but still require appropriate authorization. For the stated case, Multifactor authentication is the closer match. MFA combines different factor categories to reduce account takeover from a stolen password alone.

B:

Use Microsoft Entra ID as the cloud identity and access-management service for users, groups and applications. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Entra ID cloud identity. Its appropriate purpose is: Microsoft Entra ID provides cloud directory and identity services, not network packet filtering or document retention. For the stated case, Multifactor authentication is the closer match. MFA combines different factor categories to reduce account takeover from a stolen password alone.

D:

Assign the least-privileged supported Microsoft Entra administrative role for a directory task. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Entra role-based access control. Its appropriate purpose is: Entra administrative roles govern directory and identity operations; Azure resource RBAC is a separate scope model. For the stated case, Multifactor authentication is the closer match. MFA combines different factor categories to reduce account takeover from a stolen password alone.

Question 650

An external partner accesses a tenant application without ever traversing the company's office firewall. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?

  1. Inspect the service model and the tenant's IAM, application, data and guest-OS control assignments.
  2. Examine risk registers, accountable owners, policies, regulatory mappings and control test records.
  3. Identify storage encryption state, TLS connection settings and custody of cryptographic keys.
  4. Review identities, sign-in activity, access entitlements and whether resource decisions use identity signals.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Review identities, sign-in activity, access entitlements and whether resource decisions use identity signals. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Cloud users and workloads access resources from varied networks, making authenticated identity and authorization central boundaries.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect the service model and the tenant's IAM, application, data and guest-OS control assignments. This item belongs to a different control area: Cloud shared responsibility. Its appropriate purpose is: Shared responsibility divides security obligations according to the cloud service model; provider data-center security does not replace tenant controls. For the stated case, Identity as security perimeter is the closer match. Cloud users and workloads access resources from varied networks, making authenticated identity and authorization central boundaries.

B:

Examine risk registers, accountable owners, policies, regulatory mappings and control test records. This item belongs to a different control area: Governance risk and compliance. Its appropriate purpose is: Governance sets direction, risk management evaluates exposure, and compliance verifies obligations against controls. For the stated case, Identity as security perimeter is the closer match. Cloud users and workloads access resources from varied networks, making authenticated identity and authorization central boundaries.

C:

Identify storage encryption state, TLS connection settings and custody of cryptographic keys. This item belongs to a different control area: Encryption. Its appropriate purpose is: Encryption makes data unreadable to an unauthorized party without the appropriate key; it differs from a one-way hash. For the stated case, Identity as security perimeter is the closer match. Cloud users and workloads access resources from varied networks, making authenticated identity and authorization central boundaries.

Microsoft Security, Compliance, and Identity Fundamentals (SC-900) Practice Tests