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Microsoft SC-900 Practice Test 52

Question 510

A contractor can successfully sign in but must not edit finance data outside the assigned role. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?

  1. Examine risk registers, accountable owners, policies, regulatory mappings and control test records.
  2. Identify storage encryption state, TLS connection settings and custody of cryptographic keys.
  3. Compare a securely computed digest with a trusted expected digest or properly managed password verifier.
  4. Compare authentication records with resource permission grants and denied-operation logs.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Compare authentication records with resource permission grants and denied-operation logs. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Authentication proves identity or possession of credentials; authorization determines what that identity may do.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Examine risk registers, accountable owners, policies, regulatory mappings and control test records. This item belongs to a different control area: Governance risk and compliance. Its appropriate purpose is: Governance sets direction, risk management evaluates exposure, and compliance verifies obligations against controls. For the stated case, Authentication and authorization is the closer match. Authentication proves identity or possession of credentials; authorization determines what that identity may do.

B:

Identify storage encryption state, TLS connection settings and custody of cryptographic keys. This item belongs to a different control area: Encryption. Its appropriate purpose is: Encryption makes data unreadable to an unauthorized party without the appropriate key; it differs from a one-way hash. For the stated case, Authentication and authorization is the closer match. Authentication proves identity or possession of credentials; authorization determines what that identity may do.

C:

Compare a securely computed digest with a trusted expected digest or properly managed password verifier. This item belongs to a different control area: Cryptographic hashing. Its appropriate purpose is: Hashing supports integrity checks or password verification when designed correctly; hashing by itself does not provide encryption or confidentiality. For the stated case, Authentication and authorization is the closer match. Authentication proves identity or possession of credentials; authorization determines what that identity may do.

Question 511

An event organizer needs to grant and later revoke temporary guest access to planning files. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?

  1. Inspect registered passkey credentials, permitted authentication-method settings and sign-in method details.
  2. Inspect named locations, policy exclusions, targeting and sign-in location evaluation.
  3. Inspect role definitions, active assignments and role audit events for tenant administrators.
  4. Inspect guest account records, cross-tenant access settings and assigned resource permissions.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Inspect guest account records, cross-tenant access settings and assigned resource permissions. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. B2B collaboration supports external users while preserving explicit guest access and tenant policy boundaries.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect registered passkey credentials, permitted authentication-method settings and sign-in method details. This item belongs to a different control area: Passkeys and FIDO2. Its appropriate purpose is: FIDO2 passkeys bind authentication to the legitimate relying party and resist credential phishing more effectively than SMS codes. For the stated case, External guest collaboration is the closer match. B2B collaboration supports external users while preserving explicit guest access and tenant policy boundaries.

B:

Inspect named locations, policy exclusions, targeting and sign-in location evaluation. This item belongs to a different control area: Conditional Access locations. Its appropriate purpose is: Conditional Access can evaluate network locations alongside identities and risk, but location by itself should not be assumed trustworthy. For the stated case, External guest collaboration is the closer match. B2B collaboration supports external users while preserving explicit guest access and tenant policy boundaries.

C:

Inspect role definitions, active assignments and role audit events for tenant administrators. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Entra role-based access control. Its appropriate purpose is: Entra administrative roles govern directory and identity operations; Azure resource RBAC is a separate scope model. For the stated case, External guest collaboration is the closer match. B2B collaboration supports external users while preserving explicit guest access and tenant policy boundaries.

Question 512

A storage service requires supported cloud workload threat monitoring beyond configuration review. Before changing configuration, which evidence should the team examine to assess THIS particular requirement?

  1. Inspect protected resource coverage, workload alerts, enabled plans and alert investigation evidence.
  2. Inspect Safe Attachments policy scope, file verdicts and attachment detection reports.
  3. Inspect incident timelines, alert evidence, related entities and assigned ownership.
  4. Inspect threat intelligence indicators, associated reports and their links to observed activity.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Inspect protected resource coverage, workload alerts, enabled plans and alert investigation evidence. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Cloud workload protection detects threat signals and suspicious runtime behavior; CSPM primarily addresses configuration posture.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Inspect Safe Attachments policy scope, file verdicts and attachment detection reports. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Office 365 Safe Attachments. Its appropriate purpose is: Safe Attachments focuses on file-based email threats, whereas Safe Links protects URLs. For the stated case, Defender for Cloud workload protection is the closer match. Cloud workload protection detects threat signals and suspicious runtime behavior; CSPM primarily addresses configuration posture.

C:

Inspect incident timelines, alert evidence, related entities and assigned ownership. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Sentinel incident investigation. Its appropriate purpose is: Incident management helps investigate and coordinate alerts; it differs from automatic enforcement through a playbook. For the stated case, Defender for Cloud workload protection is the closer match. Cloud workload protection detects threat signals and suspicious runtime behavior; CSPM primarily addresses configuration posture.

D:

Inspect threat intelligence indicators, associated reports and their links to observed activity. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Threat Intelligence. Its appropriate purpose is: Threat intelligence adds context on threats and indicators; it does not by itself implement endpoint blocking or identity authorization. For the stated case, Defender for Cloud workload protection is the closer match. Cloud workload protection detects threat signals and suspicious runtime behavior; CSPM primarily addresses configuration posture.

Question 513

A supplier must collaborate on a project using its home organization credentials without becoming a full internal employee. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?

  1. Apply Microsoft Entra Password Protection policies and custom banned-password screening where supported.
  2. Invite and govern partner users with Microsoft Entra B2B collaboration instead of issuing shared internal passwords.
  3. Enable self-service password reset with verified registration and appropriate identity checks for eligible users.
  4. Automate defined joiner, mover and leaver identity tasks using Microsoft Entra Lifecycle Workflows where supported.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Invite and govern partner users with Microsoft Entra B2B collaboration instead of issuing shared internal passwords. This is the directly applicable response. B2B collaboration supports external users while preserving explicit guest access and tenant policy boundaries.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Apply Microsoft Entra Password Protection policies and custom banned-password screening where supported. This item belongs to a different control area: Password protection. Its appropriate purpose is: Password protection blocks weak password choices; it does not replace MFA or a full identity risk policy. For the stated case, External guest collaboration is the closer match. B2B collaboration supports external users while preserving explicit guest access and tenant policy boundaries.

C:

Enable self-service password reset with verified registration and appropriate identity checks for eligible users. This item belongs to a different control area: Self-service password reset. Its appropriate purpose is: SSPR helps account recovery; it does not grant additional resource authorization or bypass verification. For the stated case, External guest collaboration is the closer match. B2B collaboration supports external users while preserving explicit guest access and tenant policy boundaries.

D:

Automate defined joiner, mover and leaver identity tasks using Microsoft Entra Lifecycle Workflows where supported. This item belongs to a different control area: Lifecycle workflows. Its appropriate purpose is: Lifecycle workflows automate repeatable identity onboarding and offboarding tasks; review of ongoing entitlements remains a separate control. For the stated case, External guest collaboration is the closer match. B2B collaboration supports external users while preserving explicit guest access and tenant policy boundaries.

Question 514

A company needs enforceable protection against certain sensitive data leaving supported Microsoft 365 locations. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.

  1. Inspect DLP policy conditions, targeted locations, match events and user-facing policy outcomes.
  2. The compliance analyst can access the intended Purview capability under the appropriate permissions.
  3. Use Microsoft Purview eDiscovery to identify, preserve and collect relevant content for authorized investigations.
  4. Examine data handling notices, customer controls and the relevant published privacy commitments.
  5. Configure Microsoft Purview data loss prevention policies to detect and control defined sensitive-data sharing in supported workloads.

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

Inspect DLP policy conditions, targeted locations, match events and user-facing policy outcomes. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. DLP controls risky data movement based on policy conditions; labeling alone does not enforce every transmission restriction.

E:

Configure Microsoft Purview data loss prevention policies to detect and control defined sensitive-data sharing in supported workloads. This is the directly applicable response. DLP controls risky data movement based on policy conditions; labeling alone does not enforce every transmission restriction.

Incorrect Answers

B:

The compliance analyst can access the intended Purview capability under the appropriate permissions. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Purview portal. Its appropriate purpose is: The Purview portal is a central interface for multiple compliance and data-governance solutions, not itself a finished compliance certification. For the stated case, Data loss prevention policies is the closer match. DLP controls risky data movement based on policy conditions; labeling alone does not enforce every transmission restriction.

C:

Use Microsoft Purview eDiscovery to identify, preserve and collect relevant content for authorized investigations. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Purview eDiscovery. Its appropriate purpose is: eDiscovery supports legal and regulatory evidence workflows; it is distinct from real-time data loss prevention. For the stated case, Data loss prevention policies is the closer match. DLP controls risky data movement based on policy conditions; labeling alone does not enforce every transmission restriction.

D:

Examine data handling notices, customer controls and the relevant published privacy commitments. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft privacy principles. Its appropriate purpose is: Privacy principles guide responsible data handling and transparency; they do not automatically classify every document. For the stated case, Data loss prevention policies is the closer match. DLP controls risky data movement based on policy conditions; labeling alone does not enforce every transmission restriction.

Question 515

A customer service website needs configurable web attack protection on incoming HTTP traffic. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.

  1. Inspect onboarded device inventory, detection alerts, process timelines and investigation findings.
  2. Use supported Defender for Cloud Apps Conditional Access App Control session controls for cloud app activity when configured.
  3. Apply Azure Web Application Firewall to inspect HTTP and HTTPS requests for common web-application attacks.
  4. Unapproved cloud app usage becomes visible to reviewers with relevant discovery evidence.
  5. Inspect WAF rules, managed-rule matches and HTTP request logs for the affected endpoint.

Explanation

Correct Answers

C:

Apply Azure Web Application Firewall to inspect HTTP and HTTPS requests for common web-application attacks. This is the directly applicable response. A WAF targets application-layer HTTP risks such as injection, unlike basic network port filtering.

E:

Inspect WAF rules, managed-rule matches and HTTP request logs for the affected endpoint. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. A WAF targets application-layer HTTP risks such as injection, unlike basic network port filtering.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect onboarded device inventory, detection alerts, process timelines and investigation findings. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Endpoint EDR. Its appropriate purpose is: Endpoint detection and response targets device-level malicious behavior, not Microsoft 365 document retention. For the stated case, Azure Web Application Firewall is the closer match. A WAF targets application-layer HTTP risks such as injection, unlike basic network port filtering.

B:

Use supported Defender for Cloud Apps Conditional Access App Control session controls for cloud app activity when configured. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Cloud Apps session controls. Its appropriate purpose is: Session controls provide real-time governance of supported cloud app activities; discovery alone does not enforce session behaviors. For the stated case, Azure Web Application Firewall is the closer match. A WAF targets application-layer HTTP risks such as injection, unlike basic network port filtering.

D:

Unapproved cloud app usage becomes visible to reviewers with relevant discovery evidence. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Cloud Apps discovery. Its appropriate purpose is: Cloud app discovery assesses shadow IT usage, not the same task as investigating on-premises domain controller compromise. For the stated case, Azure Web Application Firewall is the closer match. A WAF targets application-layer HTTP risks such as injection, unlike basic network port filtering.

Question 516

A supplier wants its own identity system to authenticate staff to a partner's ordering portal. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?

  1. Maintain documented governance decisions, risk ownership and compliance control evidence.
  2. Protect sensitive information with appropriate encryption at rest and in transit and manage access to keys.
  3. Establish a standards-based trust between identity providers so one organization can authenticate users for a relying application.
  4. Use the Zero Trust principles of verify explicitly, least privilege and assume breach.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Establish a standards-based trust between identity providers so one organization can authenticate users for a relying application. This is the directly applicable response. Federation extends authentication trust across security domains; it does not automatically grant unrestricted permissions.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Maintain documented governance decisions, risk ownership and compliance control evidence. This item belongs to a different control area: Governance risk and compliance. Its appropriate purpose is: Governance sets direction, risk management evaluates exposure, and compliance verifies obligations against controls. For the stated case, Identity federation is the closer match. Federation extends authentication trust across security domains; it does not automatically grant unrestricted permissions.

B:

Protect sensitive information with appropriate encryption at rest and in transit and manage access to keys. This item belongs to a different control area: Encryption. Its appropriate purpose is: Encryption makes data unreadable to an unauthorized party without the appropriate key; it differs from a one-way hash. For the stated case, Identity federation is the closer match. Federation extends authentication trust across security domains; it does not automatically grant unrestricted permissions.

D:

Use the Zero Trust principles of verify explicitly, least privilege and assume breach. This item belongs to a different control area: Zero Trust. Its appropriate purpose is: Zero Trust does not automatically trust a user, device or connection because it originates on a corporate network. For the stated case, Identity federation is the closer match. Federation extends authentication trust across security domains; it does not automatically grant unrestricted permissions.

Question 517

A SOC analyst needs to navigate between correlated incidents and underlying device evidence. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.

  1. Inspect data connectors, ingestion status, workspace tables and representative security events.
  2. An authorized workload retrieves the secret while unauthorized principals are denied and access is logged.
  3. Use the Microsoft Defender portal to review integrated Defender alerts, incidents and security investigations.
  4. Inspect portal incident queues, product-specific alerts, assets and investigation links.
  5. Use Microsoft Defender for Cloud to review Azure and multicloud security posture and workload protection recommendations.

Explanation

Correct Answers

C:

Use the Microsoft Defender portal to review integrated Defender alerts, incidents and security investigations. This is the directly applicable response. The Defender portal provides a unified security operations interface; it is not a replacement for configuring every underlying product.

D:

Inspect portal incident queues, product-specific alerts, assets and investigation links. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. The Defender portal provides a unified security operations interface; it is not a replacement for configuring every underlying product.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect data connectors, ingestion status, workspace tables and representative security events. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Sentinel SIEM ingestion. Its appropriate purpose is: A SIEM collects and correlates security telemetry; data ingestion is foundational before analytic rules can detect events. For the stated case, Microsoft Defender portal is the closer match. The Defender portal provides a unified security operations interface; it is not a replacement for configuring every underlying product.

B:

An authorized workload retrieves the secret while unauthorized principals are denied and access is logged. This item belongs to a different control area: Azure Key Vault secrets. Its appropriate purpose is: Key Vault manages keys, secrets and certificates; it is not a general-purpose file storage or SIEM service. For the stated case, Microsoft Defender portal is the closer match. The Defender portal provides a unified security operations interface; it is not a replacement for configuring every underlying product.

E:

Use Microsoft Defender for Cloud to review Azure and multicloud security posture and workload protection recommendations. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Cloud unified security posture. Its appropriate purpose is: Defender for Cloud combines CSPM and cloud workload protection capabilities; it is not the same as a single network security group. For the stated case, Microsoft Defender portal is the closer match. The Defender portal provides a unified security operations interface; it is not a replacement for configuring every underlying product.

Question 518

A regulated workload must limit which service identities can operate on a sensitive cryptographic key. Which TWO steps together provide the most directly applicable response AND an evidence check for this specific requirement? Select TWO.

  1. Analysts can connect relevant observed indicators with contextualized threat information to guide investigation.
  2. Inspect Safe Links policy assignments, URL click events and detections.
  3. Use Azure Key Vault to centrally control cryptographic key or certificate material and its authorized operations.
  4. Inspect key or certificate versions, permissions and renewal or rotation configuration.
  5. Use Sentinel automation rules and supported playbooks to orchestrate defined incident-response tasks.

Explanation

Correct Answers

C:

Use Azure Key Vault to centrally control cryptographic key or certificate material and its authorized operations. This is the directly applicable response. Key Vault supports cryptographic key and certificate lifecycle; secret storage alone is not a substitute for proper key policy.

D:

Inspect key or certificate versions, permissions and renewal or rotation configuration. This is the relevant evidence check for this situation. Key Vault supports cryptographic key and certificate lifecycle; secret storage alone is not a substitute for proper key policy.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Analysts can connect relevant observed indicators with contextualized threat information to guide investigation. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Threat Intelligence. Its appropriate purpose is: Threat intelligence adds context on threats and indicators; it does not by itself implement endpoint blocking or identity authorization. For the stated case, Azure Key Vault keys and certificates is the closer match. Key Vault supports cryptographic key and certificate lifecycle; secret storage alone is not a substitute for proper key policy.

B:

Inspect Safe Links policy assignments, URL click events and detections. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Office 365 Safe Links. Its appropriate purpose is: Safe Links addresses URL-based threats; it does not inspect attached files for malware. For the stated case, Azure Key Vault keys and certificates is the closer match. Key Vault supports cryptographic key and certificate lifecycle; secret storage alone is not a substitute for proper key policy.

E:

Use Sentinel automation rules and supported playbooks to orchestrate defined incident-response tasks. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Sentinel SOAR playbooks. Its appropriate purpose is: SOAR automates and orchestrates workflows; it complements rather than replaces detection analytics and human judgment. For the stated case, Azure Key Vault keys and certificates is the closer match. Key Vault supports cryptographic key and certificate lifecycle; secret storage alone is not a substitute for proper key policy.

Question 519

A security team wants consistent logging and managed policy for traffic leaving multiple VNets. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?

  1. Use Microsoft Defender for Endpoint attack surface reduction rules to restrict risky endpoint behaviors where supported.
  2. Use supported Defender for Cloud Apps Conditional Access App Control session controls for cloud app activity when configured.
  3. Use Defender for Cloud regulatory compliance views to map cloud resource findings to applicable standards.
  4. Use Azure Firewall to centrally apply managed network and application traffic rules for Azure workloads.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Use Azure Firewall to centrally apply managed network and application traffic rules for Azure workloads. This is the directly applicable response. Azure Firewall is a managed stateful network security service; it is not an identity provider or a retention tool.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Use Microsoft Defender for Endpoint attack surface reduction rules to restrict risky endpoint behaviors where supported. This item belongs to a different control area: Endpoint attack surface reduction. Its appropriate purpose is: ASR rules reduce common exploit paths on endpoints and can be tested in audit mode before enforcement. For the stated case, Azure Firewall is the closer match. Azure Firewall is a managed stateful network security service; it is not an identity provider or a retention tool.

B:

Use supported Defender for Cloud Apps Conditional Access App Control session controls for cloud app activity when configured. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Cloud Apps session controls. Its appropriate purpose is: Session controls provide real-time governance of supported cloud app activities; discovery alone does not enforce session behaviors. For the stated case, Azure Firewall is the closer match. Azure Firewall is a managed stateful network security service; it is not an identity provider or a retention tool.

C:

Use Defender for Cloud regulatory compliance views to map cloud resource findings to applicable standards. This item belongs to a different control area: Defender for Cloud regulatory compliance. Its appropriate purpose is: Regulatory compliance views relate assessed technical controls to frameworks; they do not by themselves certify organizational legal compliance. For the stated case, Azure Firewall is the closer match. Azure Firewall is a managed stateful network security service; it is not an identity provider or a retention tool.

Question 520

A third-party automation platform needs authorized API access to a tenant without impersonating a shared employee account. Which approach MOST directly addresses the stated requirement?

  1. Automate defined joiner, mover and leaver identity tasks using Microsoft Entra Lifecycle Workflows where supported.
  2. Assign the least-privileged supported Microsoft Entra administrative role for a directory task.
  3. Scope Conditional Access to selected cloud applications and test policy results before enforcement.
  4. Register an application and control its service principal permissions for unattended application access.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Register an application and control its service principal permissions for unattended application access. This is the directly applicable response. Service principals represent applications or services rather than individual human users; credentials and consent must be governed.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Automate defined joiner, mover and leaver identity tasks using Microsoft Entra Lifecycle Workflows where supported. This item belongs to a different control area: Lifecycle workflows. Its appropriate purpose is: Lifecycle workflows automate repeatable identity onboarding and offboarding tasks; review of ongoing entitlements remains a separate control. For the stated case, Service principals is the closer match. Service principals represent applications or services rather than individual human users; credentials and consent must be governed.

B:

Assign the least-privileged supported Microsoft Entra administrative role for a directory task. This item belongs to a different control area: Microsoft Entra role-based access control. Its appropriate purpose is: Entra administrative roles govern directory and identity operations; Azure resource RBAC is a separate scope model. For the stated case, Service principals is the closer match. Service principals represent applications or services rather than individual human users; credentials and consent must be governed.

C:

Scope Conditional Access to selected cloud applications and test policy results before enforcement. This item belongs to a different control area: Conditional Access application targeting. Its appropriate purpose is: A policy should be tested for targeted principals and applications, with emergency-access exclusions where appropriate. For the stated case, Service principals is the closer match. Service principals represent applications or services rather than individual human users; credentials and consent must be governed.

Microsoft Security, Compliance, and Identity Fundamentals (SC-900) Practice Tests