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ISC CISSP Practice Test 72

Question 710

A previous security situation was: A security operations center observes a burst of authentication failures followed by privileged success but lacks coherent alert correlation. Now the requirement changes: Analysts begin receiving excessive low-confidence login anomaly alerts. Which NEW action BEST answers the changed need?

  1. Tune correlation thresholds and enrichment against measured true/false-positive outcomes.
  2. Correlate identity, network and host logs with synchronized time and defined detection logic.
  3. Ignore correlated events because each individual log line might look ordinary.
  4. A controlled attack emulation produces a correlated alert with source, target and response timeline.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Alert precision becomes a new detection engineering requirement. The revised action is Tune correlation thresholds and enrichment against measured true/false-positive outcomes.

Incorrect Answers

B:

This is the appropriate response to the original situation: Cross-source context helps distinguish credential guessing from normal user error. It does not directly meet the new condition.

C:

This remains inappropriate: Single-event review can miss attacks whose signal appears only in sequences.

D:

This is a record of how the initial safeguard would be checked, not an action implementing the newly requested condition: A controlled attack emulation produces a correlated alert with source, target and response timeline.

Question 711

A data transfer monitor collects only total outbound bytes and fails to identify unusual uploads to personal storage tenants. What should the security manager recommend as the MOST appropriate response to the current requirement?

  1. Treat all large transfers as malicious without destination or data context.
  2. Create a scoped tenant authorization with monitoring and expiry.
  3. Correlate identity, network and host logs with synchronized time and defined detection logic.
  4. Combine destination context, user identity and classification-aware egress monitoring.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Volume alone cannot distinguish approved backup traffic from unauthorized sensitive exfiltration.

Incorrect Answers

A:

High volume may represent normal approved operations; poor context creates false positives. The proposal would not be defensible for this case.

B:

This is appropriate for a later condition (A business unit approves one new external collaboration tenant.), but it does not directly resolve the initial need. Authorized partner flows require fine-grained policy rather than permanent global blocks.

C:

This response addresses a different condition: A security operations center observes a burst of authentication failures followed by privileged success but lacks coherent alert correlation. The present case requires the measure described by Combine destination context, user identity and classification-aware egress monitoring.

Question 712

A data transfer monitor collects only total outbound bytes and fails to identify unusual uploads to personal storage tenants. A designer proposes: Treat all large transfers as malicious without destination or data context. What is the MOST significant security deficiency in this proposal?

  1. Single-event review can miss attacks whose signal appears only in sequences.
  2. Authorized partner flows require fine-grained policy rather than permanent global blocks.
  3. Cross-source context helps distinguish credential guessing from normal user error.
  4. High volume may represent normal approved operations; poor context creates false positives.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

High volume may represent normal approved operations; poor context creates false positives. This is the direct weakness in the proposed action.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This is a limitation elsewhere: A security operations center observes a burst of authentication failures followed by privileged success but lacks coherent alert correlation. It does not explain the deficiency of the specified proposed approach.

B:

This explains a later shift in requirements (A business unit approves one new external collaboration tenant.), not the failure of the current proposal.

C:

This is an advantage of another design (Correlate identity, network and host logs with synchronized time and defined detection logic.), not the particular flaw of Treat all large transfers as malicious without destination or data context.

Question 713

A data transfer monitor collects only total outbound bytes and fails to identify unusual uploads to personal storage tenants. The organization has now implemented this response: Combine destination context, user identity and classification-aware egress monitoring. Which observation would MOST directly demonstrate that the security objective was met?

  1. A controlled attack emulation produces a correlated alert with source, target and response timeline.
  2. A controlled test restores the previous working configuration without loss.
  3. An approved change ticket for Combine destination context, user identity and classification-aware egress monitoring. without a completed verification result.
  4. Test restricted-file transfers to unapproved destinations are attributed and alerted.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Test restricted-file transfers to unapproved destinations are attributed and alerted. This validates that volume alone cannot distinguish approved backup traffic from unauthorized sensitive exfiltration.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This demonstrates controls in another circumstance: A security operations center observes a burst of authentication failures followed by privileged success but lacks coherent alert correlation.

B:

This other observation is relevant to: A database security change passes staging but operations cannot show how to roll back if production queries fail.

C:

An approved change without an executed test cannot prove operating effectiveness. The needed evidence is Test restricted-file transfers to unapproved destinations are attributed and alerted.

Question 714

A previous security situation was: A data transfer monitor collects only total outbound bytes and fails to identify unusual uploads to personal storage tenants. Now the requirement changes: A business unit approves one new external collaboration tenant. Which NEW action BEST answers the changed need?

  1. Combine destination context, user identity and classification-aware egress monitoring.
  2. Treat all large transfers as malicious without destination or data context.
  3. Test restricted-file transfers to unapproved destinations are attributed and alerted.
  4. Create a scoped tenant authorization with monitoring and expiry.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Authorized partner flows require fine-grained policy rather than permanent global blocks. The revised action is Create a scoped tenant authorization with monitoring and expiry.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This is the appropriate response to the original situation: Volume alone cannot distinguish approved backup traffic from unauthorized sensitive exfiltration. It does not directly meet the new condition.

B:

This remains inappropriate: High volume may represent normal approved operations; poor context creates false positives.

C:

This is a record of how the initial safeguard would be checked, not an action implementing the newly requested condition: Test restricted-file transfers to unapproved destinations are attributed and alerted.

Question 715

A fleet of virtual servers deviates from hardened configurations after manually applied emergency changes. What should the security manager recommend as the MOST appropriate response to the current requirement?

  1. Approve and version the new baseline with regression testing and rollback.
  2. Restrict out-of-band changes and reconcile actual state with signed reviewed configuration.
  3. Use versioned configuration baselines, drift detection and authorized reconciliation.
  4. Assume installation-time hardening prevents all future configuration drift.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Continuous baseline monitoring identifies insecure deviations after the initial build. This directly addresses the stated situation.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This is appropriate for a later condition (A critical update requires an intentional change to the baseline itself.), but it does not directly resolve the initial need. Authorized evolution must be separated from unapproved drift.

B:

This response addresses a different condition: A cloud environment uses infrastructure-as-code but local engineers modify production resources directly through a console. The present case requires the measure described by Use versioned configuration baselines, drift detection and authorized reconciliation.

D:

Changes and patching can silently modify security settings later. The proposal would not be defensible for this case.

Question 716

A fleet of virtual servers deviates from hardened configurations after manually applied emergency changes. A designer proposes: Assume installation-time hardening prevents all future configuration drift. What is the MOST significant security deficiency in this proposal?

  1. Authorized evolution must be separated from unapproved drift.
  2. Uncontrolled edits bypass code review and can persist without an accountable record.
  3. Changes and patching can silently modify security settings later.
  4. The repository describes intention, not necessarily the actual cloud state.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Changes and patching can silently modify security settings later. This is the direct weakness in the proposed action.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This explains a later shift in requirements (A critical update requires an intentional change to the baseline itself.), not the failure of the current proposal.

B:

This is an advantage of another design (Restrict out-of-band changes and reconcile actual state with signed reviewed configuration.), not the particular flaw of Assume installation-time hardening prevents all future configuration drift.

D:

This is a limitation elsewhere: A cloud environment uses infrastructure-as-code but local engineers modify production resources directly through a console. It does not explain the deficiency of the specified proposed approach.

Question 717

A fleet of virtual servers deviates from hardened configurations after manually applied emergency changes. The organization has now implemented this response: Use versioned configuration baselines, drift detection and authorized reconciliation. Which observation would MOST directly demonstrate that the security objective was met?

  1. A controlled compromised-admin test cannot modify the protected backup and restore succeeds.
  2. An approved change ticket for Use versioned configuration baselines, drift detection and authorized reconciliation. without a completed verification result.
  3. A deliberate weak setting triggers documented drift alerts and approved correction.
  4. Automated drift reconciliation identifies manual changes and verifies corrected production controls.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A deliberate weak setting triggers documented drift alerts and approved correction. This validates that continuous baseline monitoring identifies insecure deviations after the initial build.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This other observation is relevant to: An enterprise backs up files nightly but stores writable backup copies under the same administrative identities as production.

B:

An approved change without an executed test cannot prove operating effectiveness. The needed evidence is A deliberate weak setting triggers documented drift alerts and approved correction.

D:

This demonstrates controls in another circumstance: A cloud environment uses infrastructure-as-code but local engineers modify production resources directly through a console.

Question 718

A previous security situation was: A fleet of virtual servers deviates from hardened configurations after manually applied emergency changes. Now the requirement changes: A critical update requires an intentional change to the baseline itself. Which NEW action BEST answers the changed need?

  1. Assume installation-time hardening prevents all future configuration drift.
  2. A deliberate weak setting triggers documented drift alerts and approved correction.
  3. Approve and version the new baseline with regression testing and rollback.
  4. Use versioned configuration baselines, drift detection and authorized reconciliation.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Authorized evolution must be separated from unapproved drift. The revised action is Approve and version the new baseline with regression testing and rollback.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This remains inappropriate: Changes and patching can silently modify security settings later.

B:

This is a record of how the initial safeguard would be checked, not an action implementing the newly requested condition: A deliberate weak setting triggers documented drift alerts and approved correction.

D:

This is the appropriate response to the original situation: Continuous baseline monitoring identifies insecure deviations after the initial build. It does not directly meet the new condition.

Question 719

A cloud environment uses infrastructure-as-code but local engineers modify production resources directly through a console. What should the security manager recommend as the MOST appropriate response to the current requirement?

  1. Use versioned configuration baselines, drift detection and authorized reconciliation.
  2. Restrict out-of-band changes and reconcile actual state with signed reviewed configuration.
  3. Ignore state drift because templates remain unchanged in the repository.
  4. Record the break-glass change and backport the approved state into source-controlled templates.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Uncontrolled edits bypass code review and can persist without an accountable record. This directly addresses the stated situation.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This response addresses a different condition: A fleet of virtual servers deviates from hardened configurations after manually applied emergency changes. The present case requires the measure described by Restrict out-of-band changes and reconcile actual state with signed reviewed configuration.

C:

The repository describes intention, not necessarily the actual cloud state. The proposal would not be defensible for this case.

D:

This is appropriate for a later condition (An outage forces a sanctioned emergency console repair.), but it does not directly resolve the initial need. Emergency recovery needs traceability and restored infrastructure-as-code consistency.

Question 720

A security operator can both deploy detection rules and delete the corresponding alert history without independent approval. A later change introduces this additional requirement: A production incident requires temporary suppression of a noisy alert. Select THREE elements that together supply the initial control, objective evidence of effectiveness, and the changed-requirement response. (Select THREE.)

  1. Exercises show critical incident acknowledgement and escalation within agreed thresholds.
  2. Enforce separation of duties for rule changes, alert suppression and log retention.
  3. Control tests demonstrate immutable logs and independent authorization for suppression.
  4. Use time-bounded approved suppression with separate reviewer and retrospective analysis.
  5. Let the same administrator silently adjust and erase all evidence of their changes.
  6. Establish measurable service levels, severity criteria and named escalation routes.

Explanation

Correct Answers

B:

Correct — initial control. Concentrated privileges allow intentional concealment of policy bypass or suspicious events.

C:

Correct — observable control evidence. The relevant result is: Control tests demonstrate immutable logs and independent authorization for suppression. This provides a completed control test rather than an implementation promise.

D:

Correct — changed condition. Operational urgency can be accommodated without granting permanent evidence deletion.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Incorrect — this evidence applies to another case: A managed SOC has not defined response times or escalation ownership for critical customer incidents. The specified requirement here is A security operator can both deploy detection rules and delete the corresponding alert history without independent approval.

E:

Incorrect — it fails the original constraint. Undetected unilateral alteration defeats oversight and accountability.

F:

Incorrect — the measure Establish measurable service levels, severity criteria and named escalation routes. addresses a different case: A managed SOC has not defined response times or escalation ownership for critical customer incidents.

Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) Practice Tests