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CompTIA PK0-005 Practice Test 42

Question 410

A payroll replacement is in production but the customer has not approved the final reconciliation results. Which project-management response BEST addresses the stated need?

  1. Conduct a phase gate review against pre-agreed entrance and exit criteria and document the decision to proceed, repeat or pause.
  2. Create a RACI matrix identifying the person responsible for doing work, one accountable owner for each key decision, and consulted or informed parties.
  3. Reconcile vendor obligations and invoices, close procurement items, remove temporary access, and release project resources safely.
  4. Confirm agreed acceptance tests and contractual deliverables, obtain authorized signoff, and document any approved outstanding items.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Confirm agreed acceptance tests and contractual deliverables, obtain authorized signoff, and document any approved outstanding items. This targets the specific project decision. Formal project closure follows validated deliverables and authorized acceptance; declaring tasks complete in a tracker does not equal signoff. Before committing, assess: Inspect original acceptance criteria, test results, product owner or sponsor authority, and open defect dispositions. Situation: A payroll replacement is in production but the customer has not approved the final reconciliation results.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Conduct a phase gate review against pre-agreed entrance and exit criteria and document the decision to proceed, repeat or pause. That response is associated with Phase gate readiness review and does not directly settle this case. Its relevant principle is: A phase gate protects investment and quality between stages; an optimistic status presentation cannot substitute for required signoff. The stated case instead calls for: Confirm agreed acceptance tests and contractual deliverables, obtain authorized signoff, and document any approved outstanding items. Situation: A payroll replacement is in production but the customer has not approved the final reconciliation results.

B:

Create a RACI matrix identifying the person responsible for doing work, one accountable owner for each key decision, and consulted or informed parties. That response is associated with RACI responsibility assignment and does not directly settle this case. Its relevant principle is: RACI distinguishes accountable decision ownership from the people doing tasks; confusion creates approval delays and duplicated work. The stated case instead calls for: Confirm agreed acceptance tests and contractual deliverables, obtain authorized signoff, and document any approved outstanding items. Situation: A payroll replacement is in production but the customer has not approved the final reconciliation results.

C:

Reconcile vendor obligations and invoices, close procurement items, remove temporary access, and release project resources safely. That response is associated with Vendor contract closeout and resource release and does not directly settle this case. Its relevant principle is: Contract closure checks legal and financial obligations as well as technical delivery; temporary vendor access should not persist after authorization ends. The stated case instead calls for: Confirm agreed acceptance tests and contractual deliverables, obtain authorized signoff, and document any approved outstanding items. Situation: A payroll replacement is in production but the customer has not approved the final reconciliation results.

Question 411

A software project may gain an early release slot if an available specialist joins the team next month. Which project-management response BEST addresses the stated need?

  1. Select an appropriate contract type according to requirement stability and allocation of scope and cost risk, with clear acceptance terms.
  2. Record an active issue, evaluate its severity and urgency, assign a resolver, and escalate it through the agreed path when thresholds are met.
  3. Rank uncertain future threats by defined probability and consequence ratings, assign owners, and prioritize planned responses.
  4. Choose whether to exploit, enhance, share, or accept an uncertain beneficial opportunity and assign responsibility for any proactive steps.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Choose whether to exploit, enhance, share, or accept an uncertain beneficial opportunity and assign responsibility for any proactive steps. This targets the specific project decision. Positive risks are opportunities: exploit aims to make a benefit happen, enhance improves its chance or value, and share allocates benefit with a partner. Before committing, assess: Inspect possible benefit, likelihood, prerequisites, investment required, external partners, and upside ownership. Situation: A software project may gain an early release slot if an available specialist joins the team next month.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Select an appropriate contract type according to requirement stability and allocation of scope and cost risk, with clear acceptance terms. That response is associated with Fixed-price versus time-and-material contracts and does not directly settle this case. Its relevant principle is: Fixed-price contracts fit well-specified deliverables and shift more cost risk to the seller; time-and-materials fit variable effort but need buyer controls. The stated case instead calls for: Choose whether to exploit, enhance, share, or accept an uncertain beneficial opportunity and assign responsibility for any proactive steps. Situation: A software project may gain an early release slot if an available specialist joins the team next month.

B:

Record an active issue, evaluate its severity and urgency, assign a resolver, and escalate it through the agreed path when thresholds are met. That response is associated with Issue severity triage and escalation and does not directly settle this case. Its relevant principle is: An issue is an existing impediment requiring action; its escalation priority reflects actual business impact rather than only theoretical risk. The stated case instead calls for: Choose whether to exploit, enhance, share, or accept an uncertain beneficial opportunity and assign responsibility for any proactive steps. Situation: A software project may gain an early release slot if an available specialist joins the team next month.

C:

Rank uncertain future threats by defined probability and consequence ratings, assign owners, and prioritize planned responses. That response is associated with Qualitative risk probability and impact and does not directly settle this case. Its relevant principle is: Risk assessment addresses uncertain events and their probability and impact; an issue is a problem that has already occurred. The stated case instead calls for: Choose whether to exploit, enhance, share, or accept an uncertain beneficial opportunity and assign responsibility for any proactive steps. Situation: A software project may gain an early release slot if an available specialist joins the team next month.

Question 412

A local government asks for digitized approvals but departments disagree about the existing manual authorization sequence. Which result BEST demonstrates that the project-management response met the stated need?

  1. Future project teams can retrieve approved final records and reuse lessons without losing sensitive audit evidence.
  2. Sponsors can explain why the proposed investment meets an agreed benefit threshold rather than citing only technical enthusiasm.
  3. Stakeholders agree on specific changes from the existing state and can test whether the project closes the defined gaps.
  4. The sponsor or authorized customer signs a traceable acceptance decision after required outcomes are demonstrably satisfied.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Stakeholders agree on specific changes from the existing state and can test whether the project closes the defined gaps. This is an observable measure of the intended outcome, not just evidence that a meeting or configuration occurred. Current-state and future-state analysis prevents solving an assumed problem without measuring the process being changed. Situation: A local government asks for digitized approvals but departments disagree about the existing manual authorization sequence.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Future project teams can retrieve approved final records and reuse lessons without losing sensitive audit evidence. That outcome tests Lessons learned and archive preservation; it is not proof of this particular requirement. The more specific validation is: Stakeholders agree on specific changes from the existing state and can test whether the project closes the defined gaps. Situation: A local government asks for digitized approvals but departments disagree about the existing manual authorization sequence.

B:

Sponsors can explain why the proposed investment meets an agreed benefit threshold rather than citing only technical enthusiasm. That outcome tests Business case and return on investment; it is not proof of this particular requirement. The more specific validation is: Stakeholders agree on specific changes from the existing state and can test whether the project closes the defined gaps. Situation: A local government asks for digitized approvals but departments disagree about the existing manual authorization sequence.

D:

The sponsor or authorized customer signs a traceable acceptance decision after required outcomes are demonstrably satisfied. That outcome tests Final deliverable acceptance and sponsor signoff; it is not proof of this particular requirement. The more specific validation is: Stakeholders agree on specific changes from the existing state and can test whether the project closes the defined gaps. Situation: A local government asks for digitized approvals but departments disagree about the existing manual authorization sequence.

Question 413

A deployment manager wants to demonstrate how much contract budget remains after three supplier milestones. Before acting, which evidence should the project team examine FIRST to assess the stated need?

  1. Inspect requirement identifiers, acceptance criteria, mapped test cases, gaps, and release evidence.
  2. Inspect historical samples, central tendency, upper and lower control limits, sampling consistency, and out-of-control signals.
  3. Inspect defect categories, count consistency, sorted totals, cumulative percentages, and data collection interval.
  4. Inspect approved budget, expenses to date, purchase-order commitments, forecast-to-complete, and chart reporting period.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Inspect approved budget, expenses to date, purchase-order commitments, forecast-to-complete, and chart reporting period. This checks the relevant condition before the team intervenes. A budget burndown illustrates spending against an allocation; ignoring committed cost can misstate funding available for completion. The controlled response is: Use a cost-tracking or budget burndown view comparing approved funds, actual costs, and forecasted remaining commitments. Situation: A deployment manager wants to demonstrate how much contract budget remains after three supplier milestones.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect requirement identifiers, acceptance criteria, mapped test cases, gaps, and release evidence. That evidence would investigate Requirements Traceability Matrix, not the main uncertainty in this situation. To decide the current case, examine: Inspect approved budget, expenses to date, purchase-order commitments, forecast-to-complete, and chart reporting period. Situation: A deployment manager wants to demonstrate how much contract budget remains after three supplier milestones.

B:

Inspect historical samples, central tendency, upper and lower control limits, sampling consistency, and out-of-control signals. That evidence would investigate Control chart variation monitoring, not the main uncertainty in this situation. To decide the current case, examine: Inspect approved budget, expenses to date, purchase-order commitments, forecast-to-complete, and chart reporting period. Situation: A deployment manager wants to demonstrate how much contract budget remains after three supplier milestones.

C:

Inspect defect categories, count consistency, sorted totals, cumulative percentages, and data collection interval. That evidence would investigate Pareto chart defect prioritization, not the main uncertainty in this situation. To decide the current case, examine: Inspect approved budget, expenses to date, purchase-order commitments, forecast-to-complete, and chart reporting period. Situation: A deployment manager wants to demonstrate how much contract budget remains after three supplier milestones.

Question 414

A team finishes fewer approved deliverables than planned but reports a green schedule solely because meetings ran on time. Which result BEST demonstrates that the project-management response met the stated need?

  1. A status report correctly identifies schedule or cost underperformance and proposes a proportionate corrective response.
  2. The workaround restores essential activity, the underlying cause is addressed, and closure evidence shows recurrence is controlled.
  3. A deliberately vulnerable dependency stops the release before production and its remediation is traceable to a team owner.
  4. Technical requirements pass verification and authorized users demonstrate that the delivered workflow achieves the intended business result.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

A status report correctly identifies schedule or cost underperformance and proposes a proportionate corrective response. This is an observable measure of the intended outcome, not just evidence that a meeting or configuration occurred. Negative schedule variance indicates less earned work than planned; negative cost variance means earned work is less than actual cost. Situation: A team finishes fewer approved deliverables than planned but reports a green schedule solely because meetings ran on time.

Incorrect Answers

B:

The workaround restores essential activity, the underlying cause is addressed, and closure evidence shows recurrence is controlled. That outcome tests Root cause analysis and safe workaround; it is not proof of this particular requirement. The more specific validation is: A status report correctly identifies schedule or cost underperformance and proposes a proportionate corrective response. Situation: A team finishes fewer approved deliverables than planned but reports a green schedule solely because meetings ran on time.

C:

A deliberately vulnerable dependency stops the release before production and its remediation is traceable to a team owner. That outcome tests DevSecOps security in delivery; it is not proof of this particular requirement. The more specific validation is: A status report correctly identifies schedule or cost underperformance and proposes a proportionate corrective response. Situation: A team finishes fewer approved deliverables than planned but reports a green schedule solely because meetings ran on time.

D:

Technical requirements pass verification and authorized users demonstrate that the delivered workflow achieves the intended business result. That outcome tests Verification versus validation and UAT; it is not proof of this particular requirement. The more specific validation is: A status report correctly identifies schedule or cost underperformance and proposes a proportionate corrective response. Situation: A team finishes fewer approved deliverables than planned but reports a green schedule solely because meetings ran on time.

Question 415

A project manager shares one administrator password with three contractors to simplify access to the deployment dashboard. Before acting, which evidence should the project team examine FIRST to assess the stated need?

  1. Inspect governance policies, relevant standards, executive decisions, public claims, and any conflicting stakeholder objectives.
  2. Inspect account roles, authentication-method policies, sign-in records, dormant permissions, and shared credentials.
  3. Inspect badge permissions, visitor logs, device inventory, removable media rules, and secure storage practices.
  4. Inspect topology diagrams, firewalls, DNS, application tiers, storage latency, and service dependencies.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Inspect account roles, authentication-method policies, sign-in records, dormant permissions, and shared credentials. This checks the relevant condition before the team intervenes. MFA reduces reliance on a password alone; least privilege separately limits what a successfully authenticated identity may do. The controlled response is: Apply appropriate multifactor authentication and task-scoped permissions to project systems that contain sensitive data. Situation: A project manager shares one administrator password with three contractors to simplify access to the deployment dashboard.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect governance policies, relevant standards, executive decisions, public claims, and any conflicting stakeholder objectives. That evidence would investigate Governance standards and brand alignment, not the main uncertainty in this situation. To decide the current case, examine: Inspect account roles, authentication-method policies, sign-in records, dormant permissions, and shared credentials. Situation: A project manager shares one administrator password with three contractors to simplify access to the deployment dashboard.

C:

Inspect badge permissions, visitor logs, device inventory, removable media rules, and secure storage practices. That evidence would investigate Physical facility and removable media controls, not the main uncertainty in this situation. To decide the current case, examine: Inspect account roles, authentication-method policies, sign-in records, dormant permissions, and shared credentials. Situation: A project manager shares one administrator password with three contractors to simplify access to the deployment dashboard.

D:

Inspect topology diagrams, firewalls, DNS, application tiers, storage latency, and service dependencies. That evidence would investigate Networking storage and tiered architecture dependencies, not the main uncertainty in this situation. To decide the current case, examine: Inspect account roles, authentication-method policies, sign-in records, dormant permissions, and shared credentials. Situation: A project manager shares one administrator password with three contractors to simplify access to the deployment dashboard.

Question 416

A cross-functional requirements workshop repeatedly drifts into unrelated technical debates and misses stakeholder decisions. Before acting, which evidence should the project team examine FIRST to assess the stated need?

  1. Inspect stakeholder influence, required approvals, timezone constraints, escalation expectations, and information sensitivity.
  2. Review meeting purpose, participant roles, agenda, prior actions, unresolved decisions, and meeting minutes distribution.
  3. Inspect incident timeline, reproducing conditions, logs, workaround limitations, related change requests, and recurrence data.
  4. Review recipient access, sensitive attachments, meeting availability, archived decisions, and channel security requirements.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Review meeting purpose, participant roles, agenda, prior actions, unresolved decisions, and meeting minutes distribution. This checks the relevant condition before the team intervenes. Meeting effectiveness depends on outcomes and follow-through, not on attendance or duration alone. The controlled response is: Publish a focused agenda, assign facilitator and scribe, timebox discussion, and capture decisions with owners and due dates. Situation: A cross-functional requirements workshop repeatedly drifts into unrelated technical debates and misses stakeholder decisions.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect stakeholder influence, required approvals, timezone constraints, escalation expectations, and information sensitivity. That evidence would investigate Stakeholder communication plan tailoring, not the main uncertainty in this situation. To decide the current case, examine: Review meeting purpose, participant roles, agenda, prior actions, unresolved decisions, and meeting minutes distribution. Situation: A cross-functional requirements workshop repeatedly drifts into unrelated technical debates and misses stakeholder decisions.

C:

Inspect incident timeline, reproducing conditions, logs, workaround limitations, related change requests, and recurrence data. That evidence would investigate Root cause analysis and safe workaround, not the main uncertainty in this situation. To decide the current case, examine: Review meeting purpose, participant roles, agenda, prior actions, unresolved decisions, and meeting minutes distribution. Situation: A cross-functional requirements workshop repeatedly drifts into unrelated technical debates and misses stakeholder decisions.

D:

Review recipient access, sensitive attachments, meeting availability, archived decisions, and channel security requirements. That evidence would investigate Secure asynchronous project communications, not the main uncertainty in this situation. To decide the current case, examine: Review meeting purpose, participant roles, agenda, prior actions, unresolved decisions, and meeting minutes distribution. Situation: A cross-functional requirements workshop repeatedly drifts into unrelated technical debates and misses stakeholder decisions.

Question 417

A service team logs 200 incidents and wants to identify which three causes account for most repeat support tickets. Which TWO complementary steps provide the best response AND its necessary supporting assessment? Select TWO.

  1. Every mandatory requirement has verified test coverage and outstanding gaps remain visible before signoff.
  2. Inspect security policy, offline access needs, vendor support, backup responsibilities, subscription terms, and integration constraints.
  3. Create a Pareto chart grouping recurring issue categories by frequency or impact to focus improvement on the largest contributors.
  4. Inspect defect categories, count consistency, sorted totals, cumulative percentages, and data collection interval.
  5. Use a control chart with a time-ordered process measure and control limits to distinguish routine variation from unusual process behavior.

Explanation

Correct Answers

C:

Create a Pareto chart grouping recurring issue categories by frequency or impact to focus improvement on the largest contributors. This targets the specific project decision. A Pareto chart orders categories by contribution and displays cumulative impact; it is not primarily a timeline of process stability. Before committing, assess: Inspect defect categories, count consistency, sorted totals, cumulative percentages, and data collection interval. It complements the associated assessment evidence. Situation: A service team logs 200 incidents and wants to identify which three causes account for most repeat support tickets.

D:

Inspect defect categories, count consistency, sorted totals, cumulative percentages, and data collection interval. This checks the relevant condition before the team intervenes. A Pareto chart orders categories by contribution and displays cumulative impact; it is not primarily a timeline of process stability. The controlled response is: Create a Pareto chart grouping recurring issue categories by frequency or impact to focus improvement on the largest contributors. It complements the associated implementation step. Situation: A service team logs 200 incidents and wants to identify which three causes account for most repeat support tickets.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Every mandatory requirement has verified test coverage and outstanding gaps remain visible before signoff. This is useful for Requirements Traceability Matrix but is not one of the complementary steps for this case. The appropriate paired decision combines: Create a Pareto chart grouping recurring issue categories by frequency or impact to focus improvement on the largest contributors. and Inspect defect categories, count consistency, sorted totals, cumulative percentages, and data collection interval. Situation: A service team logs 200 incidents and wants to identify which three causes account for most repeat support tickets.

B:

Inspect security policy, offline access needs, vendor support, backup responsibilities, subscription terms, and integration constraints. This is useful for Cloud versus on-premise project management tools but is not one of the complementary steps for this case. The appropriate paired decision combines: Create a Pareto chart grouping recurring issue categories by frequency or impact to focus improvement on the largest contributors. and Inspect defect categories, count consistency, sorted totals, cumulative percentages, and data collection interval. Situation: A service team logs 200 incidents and wants to identify which three causes account for most repeat support tickets.

E:

Use a control chart with a time-ordered process measure and control limits to distinguish routine variation from unusual process behavior. This is useful for Control chart variation monitoring but is not one of the complementary steps for this case. The appropriate paired decision combines: Create a Pareto chart grouping recurring issue categories by frequency or impact to focus improvement on the largest contributors. and Inspect defect categories, count consistency, sorted totals, cumulative percentages, and data collection interval. Situation: A service team logs 200 incidents and wants to identify which three causes account for most repeat support tickets.

Question 418

A software team migrates its custom virtual machines to cloud IaaS and assumes the provider patches the guest operating system. Which project-management response BEST addresses the stated need?

  1. Protect project locations and removable storage with approved access, custody, disposal and visitor controls.
  2. Classify project records by sensitivity and restrict access to people with a genuine business need rather than making all collaboration files public.
  3. Identify application-to-network-to-data dependencies and required connectivity when planning changes to multitiers IT infrastructure.
  4. Match cloud service models to who manages applications, operating systems, platforms and underlying infrastructure for an IT project.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Match cloud service models to who manages applications, operating systems, platforms and underlying infrastructure for an IT project. This targets the specific project decision. IaaS exposes infrastructure management, PaaS abstracts more platform maintenance, and SaaS provides a complete application with continuing customer identity and data duties. Before committing, assess: Inspect deployment architecture, shared-responsibility terms, maintenance needs, vendor guarantees, and administrator duties. Situation: A software team migrates its custom virtual machines to cloud IaaS and assumes the provider patches the guest operating system.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Protect project locations and removable storage with approved access, custody, disposal and visitor controls. That response is associated with Physical facility and removable media controls and does not directly settle this case. Its relevant principle is: Physical security remains necessary even for cloud projects; an unlocked device or uncontrolled removable drive can bypass digital safeguards. The stated case instead calls for: Match cloud service models to who manages applications, operating systems, platforms and underlying infrastructure for an IT project. Situation: A software team migrates its custom virtual machines to cloud IaaS and assumes the provider patches the guest operating system.

B:

Classify project records by sensitivity and restrict access to people with a genuine business need rather than making all collaboration files public. That response is associated with Data classification and need-to-know permissions and does not directly settle this case. Its relevant principle is: Classification labels sensitivity, while least-privilege and need-to-know controls determine authorized disclosure and access. The stated case instead calls for: Match cloud service models to who manages applications, operating systems, platforms and underlying infrastructure for an IT project. Situation: A software team migrates its custom virtual machines to cloud IaaS and assumes the provider patches the guest operating system.

C:

Identify application-to-network-to-data dependencies and required connectivity when planning changes to multitiers IT infrastructure. That response is associated with Networking storage and tiered architecture dependencies and does not directly settle this case. Its relevant principle is: A multi-tier application separates presentation, business processing and data storage; changing one tier can affect others through network and interface dependencies. The stated case instead calls for: Match cloud service models to who manages applications, operating systems, platforms and underlying infrastructure for an IT project. Situation: A software team migrates its custom virtual machines to cloud IaaS and assumes the provider patches the guest operating system.

Question 419

A hospital funds a temporary patient scheduling replacement and must identify who operates the platform after launch. Which TWO complementary steps provide the best response AND its necessary supporting assessment? Select TWO.

  1. Define a temporary project with a unique deliverable, completion criteria, a sponsor, and a planned finish rather than treating indefinite service support as project work.
  2. The opportunity has a deliberate owner and a documented response that increases or secures benefit without mislabeling it as a threat.
  3. Review the charter's authority thresholds, CCB membership, change log status, stakeholder consultation, and approval evidence.
  4. Use a Kanban workflow with visible work-in-progress limits for continuously arriving support tasks rather than forcing every interrupt into a fixed sprint commitment.
  5. Review whether the request has a distinctive outcome, funded start and end, acceptance conditions, and a designated operational owner after handoff.

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

Define a temporary project with a unique deliverable, completion criteria, a sponsor, and a planned finish rather than treating indefinite service support as project work. This targets the specific project decision. Projects create unique outcomes for a limited period; recurring routine services are operations even when they use project tools. Before committing, assess: Review whether the request has a distinctive outcome, funded start and end, acceptance conditions, and a designated operational owner after handoff. It complements the associated assessment evidence. Situation: A hospital funds a temporary patient scheduling replacement and must identify who operates the platform after launch.

E:

Review whether the request has a distinctive outcome, funded start and end, acceptance conditions, and a designated operational owner after handoff. This checks the relevant condition before the team intervenes. Projects create unique outcomes for a limited period; recurring routine services are operations even when they use project tools. The controlled response is: Define a temporary project with a unique deliverable, completion criteria, a sponsor, and a planned finish rather than treating indefinite service support as project work. It complements the associated implementation step. Situation: A hospital funds a temporary patient scheduling replacement and must identify who operates the platform after launch.

Incorrect Answers

B:

The opportunity has a deliberate owner and a documented response that increases or secures benefit without mislabeling it as a threat. This is useful for Positive risk opportunity strategies but is not one of the complementary steps for this case. The appropriate paired decision combines: Define a temporary project with a unique deliverable, completion criteria, a sponsor, and a planned finish rather than treating indefinite service support as project work. and Review whether the request has a distinctive outcome, funded start and end, acceptance conditions, and a designated operational owner after handoff. Situation: A hospital funds a temporary patient scheduling replacement and must identify who operates the platform after launch.

C:

Review the charter's authority thresholds, CCB membership, change log status, stakeholder consultation, and approval evidence. This is useful for Change control board decision authority but is not one of the complementary steps for this case. The appropriate paired decision combines: Define a temporary project with a unique deliverable, completion criteria, a sponsor, and a planned finish rather than treating indefinite service support as project work. and Review whether the request has a distinctive outcome, funded start and end, acceptance conditions, and a designated operational owner after handoff. Situation: A hospital funds a temporary patient scheduling replacement and must identify who operates the platform after launch.

D:

Use a Kanban workflow with visible work-in-progress limits for continuously arriving support tasks rather than forcing every interrupt into a fixed sprint commitment. This is useful for Kanban flow versus sprint commitments but is not one of the complementary steps for this case. The appropriate paired decision combines: Define a temporary project with a unique deliverable, completion criteria, a sponsor, and a planned finish rather than treating indefinite service support as project work. and Review whether the request has a distinctive outcome, funded start and end, acceptance conditions, and a designated operational owner after handoff. Situation: A hospital funds a temporary patient scheduling replacement and must identify who operates the platform after launch.

Question 420

A software team migrates its custom virtual machines to cloud IaaS and assumes the provider patches the guest operating system. Which TWO complementary steps provide the best response AND its necessary supporting assessment? Select TWO.

  1. Identify application-to-network-to-data dependencies and required connectivity when planning changes to multitiers IT infrastructure.
  2. The production deployment matches a reviewed tested build, and staging failures block promotion with an auditable record.
  3. Match cloud service models to who manages applications, operating systems, platforms and underlying infrastructure for an IT project.
  4. Inspect account roles, authentication-method policies, sign-in records, dormant permissions, and shared credentials.
  5. Inspect deployment architecture, shared-responsibility terms, maintenance needs, vendor guarantees, and administrator duties.

Explanation

Correct Answers

C:

Match cloud service models to who manages applications, operating systems, platforms and underlying infrastructure for an IT project. This targets the specific project decision. IaaS exposes infrastructure management, PaaS abstracts more platform maintenance, and SaaS provides a complete application with continuing customer identity and data duties. Before committing, assess: Inspect deployment architecture, shared-responsibility terms, maintenance needs, vendor guarantees, and administrator duties. It complements the associated assessment evidence. Situation: A software team migrates its custom virtual machines to cloud IaaS and assumes the provider patches the guest operating system.

E:

Inspect deployment architecture, shared-responsibility terms, maintenance needs, vendor guarantees, and administrator duties. This checks the relevant condition before the team intervenes. IaaS exposes infrastructure management, PaaS abstracts more platform maintenance, and SaaS provides a complete application with continuing customer identity and data duties. The controlled response is: Match cloud service models to who manages applications, operating systems, platforms and underlying infrastructure for an IT project. It complements the associated implementation step. Situation: A software team migrates its custom virtual machines to cloud IaaS and assumes the provider patches the guest operating system.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Identify application-to-network-to-data dependencies and required connectivity when planning changes to multitiers IT infrastructure. This is useful for Networking storage and tiered architecture dependencies but is not one of the complementary steps for this case. The appropriate paired decision combines: Match cloud service models to who manages applications, operating systems, platforms and underlying infrastructure for an IT project. and Inspect deployment architecture, shared-responsibility terms, maintenance needs, vendor guarantees, and administrator duties. Situation: A software team migrates its custom virtual machines to cloud IaaS and assumes the provider patches the guest operating system.

B:

The production deployment matches a reviewed tested build, and staging failures block promotion with an auditable record. This is useful for CI CD staging and production release governance but is not one of the complementary steps for this case. The appropriate paired decision combines: Match cloud service models to who manages applications, operating systems, platforms and underlying infrastructure for an IT project. and Inspect deployment architecture, shared-responsibility terms, maintenance needs, vendor guarantees, and administrator duties. Situation: A software team migrates its custom virtual machines to cloud IaaS and assumes the provider patches the guest operating system.

D:

Inspect account roles, authentication-method policies, sign-in records, dormant permissions, and shared credentials. This is useful for Multifactor authentication and least privilege but is not one of the complementary steps for this case. The appropriate paired decision combines: Match cloud service models to who manages applications, operating systems, platforms and underlying infrastructure for an IT project. and Inspect deployment architecture, shared-responsibility terms, maintenance needs, vendor guarantees, and administrator duties. Situation: A software team migrates its custom virtual machines to cloud IaaS and assumes the provider patches the guest operating system.

CompTIA Project+ (PK0-005) Practice Tests