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Cisco 350-701 Practice Test 99

Question 980

A security analyst wants to identify a long-lived outbound flow using exporters without retaining every packet body. Before changing security policy, what evidence should the engineer examine FIRST?

  1. Inspect VPN event traces, IKE negotiation state, certificate or PSK errors, UDP 500/4500, and proposal mismatches.
  2. Inspect TLS handshake metadata permitted by policy, flow statistics, DNS logs, endpoint process telemetry, and detection confidence.
  3. Inspect source/destination tuples, flow duration, byte counts, exporters, collector receipt, and sampling configuration.
  4. Inspect VLAN enablement, trusted port design, binding table entries, DHCP offer sources, and port limits.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Inspect source/destination tuples, flow duration, byte counts, exporters, collector receipt, and sampling configuration. This checks the relevant condition before an engineer modifies production access or detection behavior. Flow telemetry summarizes communicating endpoints and counters; packet payload inspection requires different data sources. The controlled response would be: Collect and analyze flow-level metadata to identify communication patterns and suspicious volume while acknowledging payload visibility limits. Situation: A security analyst wants to identify a long-lived outbound flow using exporters without retaining every packet body.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect VPN event traces, IKE negotiation state, certificate or PSK errors, UDP 500/4500, and proposal mismatches. This evidence addresses FTD IKE negotiation failure isolation; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect source/destination tuples, flow duration, byte counts, exporters, collector receipt, and sampling configuration. Situation: A security analyst wants to identify a long-lived outbound flow using exporters without retaining every packet body.

B:

Inspect TLS handshake metadata permitted by policy, flow statistics, DNS logs, endpoint process telemetry, and detection confidence. This evidence addresses Encrypted network telemetry and correlated detection; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect source/destination tuples, flow duration, byte counts, exporters, collector receipt, and sampling configuration. Situation: A security analyst wants to identify a long-lived outbound flow using exporters without retaining every packet body.

D:

Inspect VLAN enablement, trusted port design, binding table entries, DHCP offer sources, and port limits. This evidence addresses DHCP snooping trust and rogue server control; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect source/destination tuples, flow duration, byte counts, exporters, collector receipt, and sampling configuration. Situation: A security analyst wants to identify a long-lived outbound flow using exporters without retaining every packet body.

Question 981

A server reports the Secure Endpoint connector is installed but has not checked in to receive updated policy. Before changing security policy, what evidence should the engineer examine FIRST?

  1. Inspect file trajectory, device trajectory, hash reputation, user identity, process parentage, and action taken.
  2. Inspect endpoint groups, policy assignment, connector state, disposition settings, exclusions, and event history.
  3. Inspect original file hash, current cloud disposition, execution history, file trajectory, and response capability.
  4. Inspect agent health, malware protection state, required updates, disk encryption, identity, and posture policy result.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Inspect endpoint groups, policy assignment, connector state, disposition settings, exclusions, and event history. This checks the relevant condition before an engineer modifies production access or detection behavior. Endpoint policy efficacy depends on correct host enrollment, file disposition, behavior detection, and controlled exclusions. The controlled response would be: Configure Cisco Secure Endpoint policy groups, detection and blocking settings, and connector deployment aligned to host risk. Situation: A server reports the Secure Endpoint connector is installed but has not checked in to receive updated policy.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect file trajectory, device trajectory, hash reputation, user identity, process parentage, and action taken. This evidence addresses Secure Endpoint detection event trajectory; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect endpoint groups, policy assignment, connector state, disposition settings, exclusions, and event history. Situation: A server reports the Secure Endpoint connector is installed but has not checked in to receive updated policy.

C:

Inspect original file hash, current cloud disposition, execution history, file trajectory, and response capability. This evidence addresses Malware retrospective disposition response; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect endpoint groups, policy assignment, connector state, disposition settings, exclusions, and event history. Situation: A server reports the Secure Endpoint connector is installed but has not checked in to receive updated policy.

D:

Inspect agent health, malware protection state, required updates, disk encryption, identity, and posture policy result. This evidence addresses Posture check before network access; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect endpoint groups, policy assignment, connector state, disposition settings, exclusions, and event history. Situation: A server reports the Secure Endpoint connector is installed but has not checked in to receive updated policy.

Question 982

A routing neighbor can send unauthenticated updates from a segment where source trust was assumed. Which Cisco security control or operational response BEST addresses the stated need?

  1. Limit administrative exposure, authenticate routing and management where supported, and protect control-plane resources against abuse.
  2. Compare running Cisco IOS XE or Secure Firewall settings to an applicable CIS benchmark, document justified exceptions, and remediate deviations.
  3. Assess Cisco Security Cloud Control against on-prem management requirements, identity controls, connectivity, and approved cloud operations.
  4. Deploy stateful inspection at defined trust boundaries and enable intrusion inspection on traffic paths where attack detection and blocking are required.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Limit administrative exposure, authenticate routing and management where supported, and protect control-plane resources against abuse. This control addresses the failure mechanism and narrows the enforcement boundary. A network device has distinct control, data, and management planes; each requires separate scoped protection. Confirm pre-change conditions using: Review VTY/SSH configuration, management VRFs or ACLs, CoPP policy, routing adjacencies, and logging paths. Situation: A routing neighbor can send unauthenticated updates from a segment where source trust was assumed.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Compare running Cisco IOS XE or Secure Firewall settings to an applicable CIS benchmark, document justified exceptions, and remediate deviations. This response applies to CIS device configuration baseline assessment, not the controlling requirement in this case. Security benchmarks are version-specific prescriptive baselines; blindly applying all recommendations without operational review can disrupt required services. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Limit administrative exposure, authenticate routing and management where supported, and protect control-plane resources against abuse. Situation: A routing neighbor can send unauthenticated updates from a segment where source trust was assumed.

C:

Assess Cisco Security Cloud Control against on-prem management requirements, identity controls, connectivity, and approved cloud operations. This response applies to Cisco Security Cloud Control management boundary, not the controlling requirement in this case. Cloud-managed network policy still requires per-device compatibility, secure enrollment, change governance, and management connectivity. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Limit administrative exposure, authenticate routing and management where supported, and protect control-plane resources against abuse. Situation: A routing neighbor can send unauthenticated updates from a segment where source trust was assumed.

D:

Deploy stateful inspection at defined trust boundaries and enable intrusion inspection on traffic paths where attack detection and blocking are required. This response applies to Stateful firewall and IPS placement, not the controlling requirement in this case. A stateful firewall tracks sessions and permitted flows; an IPS examines suspicious content and requires traffic visibility and appropriate inline enforcement. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Limit administrative exposure, authenticate routing and management where supported, and protect control-plane resources against abuse. Situation: A routing neighbor can send unauthenticated updates from a segment where source trust was assumed.

Question 983

A data center adds an application firewall rule but forgets to route traffic through the intended security device. Which observed result BEST confirms that the security requirement is met?

  1. The corrected handshake establishes valid security associations without weakening approved encryption or authentication standards.
  2. Unauthorized connections are denied while known hostile payloads are detected by the intended inline intrusion policy without unrelated outages.
  3. An unusual high-volume conversation is identified with attributable endpoints without claiming NetFlow reveals complete application content.
  4. A simulated sensor failure follows the approved availability policy and exploit test traffic is blocked only when inspection is actually inline.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Unauthorized connections are denied while known hostile payloads are detected by the intended inline intrusion policy without unrelated outages. This is an observable acceptance condition, rather than an assumption that enabling a feature alone proves security. A stateful firewall tracks sessions and permitted flows; an IPS examines suspicious content and requires traffic visibility and appropriate inline enforcement. Situation: A data center adds an application firewall rule but forgets to route traffic through the intended security device.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The corrected handshake establishes valid security associations without weakening approved encryption or authentication standards. This outcome tests FTD IKE negotiation failure isolation and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: Unauthorized connections are denied while known hostile payloads are detected by the intended inline intrusion policy without unrelated outages. Situation: A data center adds an application firewall rule but forgets to route traffic through the intended security device.

C:

An unusual high-volume conversation is identified with attributable endpoints without claiming NetFlow reveals complete application content. This outcome tests NetFlow and telemetry flow analysis and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: Unauthorized connections are denied while known hostile payloads are detected by the intended inline intrusion policy without unrelated outages. Situation: A data center adds an application firewall rule but forgets to route traffic through the intended security device.

D:

A simulated sensor failure follows the approved availability policy and exploit test traffic is blocked only when inspection is actually inline. This outcome tests Inline IPS availability and bypass behavior and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: Unauthorized connections are denied while known hostile payloads are detected by the intended inline intrusion policy without unrelated outages. Situation: A data center adds an application firewall rule but forgets to route traffic through the intended security device.

Question 984

A critical server shows active suspicious child processes while several desktops report blocked benign test files. Before changing security policy, what evidence should the engineer examine FIRST?

  1. Inspect disposition change, prevalence, isolation status, affected host roles, event sequence, and unresolved detections.
  2. Inspect email platform, API permissions, journaling architecture, allowed mail-flow changes, product entitlement, and required remediation actions.
  3. Inspect sample provenance, sandbox verdict, observed process/file/network behavior, detonation environment, and indicator confidence.
  4. Inspect file trajectory, device trajectory, hash reputation, user identity, process parentage, and action taken.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Inspect disposition change, prevalence, isolation status, affected host roles, event sequence, and unresolved detections. This checks the relevant condition before an engineer modifies production access or detection behavior. Alert counts alone do not establish incident severity; containment status and evidence of active execution change urgency. The controlled response would be: Prioritize Secure Endpoint alerts by severity, current host risk, file action, correlated detections, and business criticality. Situation: A critical server shows active suspicious child processes while several desktops report blocked benign test files.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Inspect email platform, API permissions, journaling architecture, allowed mail-flow changes, product entitlement, and required remediation actions. This evidence addresses Email Threat Defense deployment mode selection; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect disposition change, prevalence, isolation status, affected host roles, event sequence, and unresolved detections. Situation: A critical server shows active suspicious child processes while several desktops report blocked benign test files.

C:

Inspect sample provenance, sandbox verdict, observed process/file/network behavior, detonation environment, and indicator confidence. This evidence addresses Cisco Secure Malware Analytics detonation evidence; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect disposition change, prevalence, isolation status, affected host roles, event sequence, and unresolved detections. Situation: A critical server shows active suspicious child processes while several desktops report blocked benign test files.

D:

Inspect file trajectory, device trajectory, hash reputation, user identity, process parentage, and action taken. This evidence addresses Secure Endpoint detection event trajectory; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect disposition change, prevalence, isolation status, affected host roles, event sequence, and unresolved detections. Situation: A critical server shows active suspicious child processes while several desktops report blocked benign test files.

Question 985

A contractor device requires a security patch and should reach only approved update services before obtaining production access. Which Cisco security control or operational response BEST addresses the stated need?

  1. Evaluate endpoint security posture before authorizing sensitive network access and establish a restricted remediation path for failed devices.
  2. Scope endpoint detection exclusions narrowly and verify business application behavior after updates without disabling broad antimalware protections.
  3. Reevaluate endpoint compliance after meaningful security changes and update access decisions when device health becomes unacceptable.
  4. Use supported Cisco Secure Malware Analytics sandbox assessment to investigate suspicious files while distinguishing dynamic analysis from known-good reputation.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Evaluate endpoint security posture before authorizing sensitive network access and establish a restricted remediation path for failed devices. This control addresses the failure mechanism and narrows the enforcement boundary. Posture is device health evidence used in policy; authentication alone does not guarantee an endpoint meets security baseline. Confirm pre-change conditions using: Inspect agent health, malware protection state, required updates, disk encryption, identity, and posture policy result. Situation: A contractor device requires a security patch and should reach only approved update services before obtaining production access.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Scope endpoint detection exclusions narrowly and verify business application behavior after updates without disabling broad antimalware protections. This response applies to Secure Endpoint response exclusions and policy safety, not the controlling requirement in this case. Broad folder or process exclusions can create lasting blind spots; false-positive tuning requires evidence and defined review dates. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Evaluate endpoint security posture before authorizing sensitive network access and establish a restricted remediation path for failed devices. Situation: A contractor device requires a security patch and should reach only approved update services before obtaining production access.

C:

Reevaluate endpoint compliance after meaningful security changes and update access decisions when device health becomes unacceptable. This response applies to Continuous endpoint trust and posture drift, not the controlling requirement in this case. Device trust changes over time; a successful morning compliance check is not permanent proof of safe endpoint state. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Evaluate endpoint security posture before authorizing sensitive network access and establish a restricted remediation path for failed devices. Situation: A contractor device requires a security patch and should reach only approved update services before obtaining production access.

D:

Use supported Cisco Secure Malware Analytics sandbox assessment to investigate suspicious files while distinguishing dynamic analysis from known-good reputation. This response applies to Cisco Secure Malware Analytics detonation evidence, not the controlling requirement in this case. Sandbox dynamic analysis records execution behavior in a controlled environment; a clean result cannot prove every variant is harmless. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Evaluate endpoint security posture before authorizing sensitive network access and establish a restricted remediation path for failed devices. Situation: A contractor device requires a security patch and should reach only approved update services before obtaining production access.

Question 986

A finance workstation launches suspicious PowerShell and connects to several internal servers shortly afterward. Which Cisco security control or operational response BEST addresses the stated need?

  1. Isolate high-risk endpoints using approved EDR response while preserving evidence and controlled paths for incident handling.
  2. Respond to changing file disposition by tracing historical file activity and isolating or remediating affected endpoints where warranted.
  3. Choose endpoint prevention, behavioral detection, and response capabilities based on business risk and investigation needs rather than equating antivirus with EDR.
  4. Evaluate endpoint security posture before authorizing sensitive network access and establish a restricted remediation path for failed devices.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Isolate high-risk endpoints using approved EDR response while preserving evidence and controlled paths for incident handling. This control addresses the failure mechanism and narrows the enforcement boundary. Endpoint isolation contains spread but can interrupt critical operations; response must balance urgency, containment scope, and evidence preservation. Confirm pre-change conditions using: Inspect endpoint detection confidence, host role, active communications, isolation capabilities, and forensic evidence collection. Situation: A finance workstation launches suspicious PowerShell and connects to several internal servers shortly afterward.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Respond to changing file disposition by tracing historical file activity and isolating or remediating affected endpoints where warranted. This response applies to Malware retrospective disposition response, not the controlling requirement in this case. Cloud malware intelligence can change a file verdict after initial observation; earlier clean classification should not prevent retrospective investigation. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Isolate high-risk endpoints using approved EDR response while preserving evidence and controlled paths for incident handling. Situation: A finance workstation launches suspicious PowerShell and connects to several internal servers shortly afterward.

C:

Choose endpoint prevention, behavioral detection, and response capabilities based on business risk and investigation needs rather than equating antivirus with EDR. This response applies to Endpoint protection versus detection response, not the controlling requirement in this case. EPP focuses preventative controls and EDR records and investigates suspicious endpoint activity and supports response; the capabilities overlap but are not interchangeable. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Isolate high-risk endpoints using approved EDR response while preserving evidence and controlled paths for incident handling. Situation: A finance workstation launches suspicious PowerShell and connects to several internal servers shortly afterward.

D:

Evaluate endpoint security posture before authorizing sensitive network access and establish a restricted remediation path for failed devices. This response applies to Posture check before network access, not the controlling requirement in this case. Posture is device health evidence used in policy; authentication alone does not guarantee an endpoint meets security baseline. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Isolate high-risk endpoints using approved EDR response while preserving evidence and controlled paths for incident handling. Situation: A finance workstation launches suspicious PowerShell and connects to several internal servers shortly afterward.

Question 987

A newly added subnet works locally yet its branch-to-branch traffic follows the default internet NAT policy. Which TWO complementary steps provide the most defensible remediation and its supporting assessment? Select TWO.

  1. Trace FTD VPN encryption/decryption counters, routes, NAT exemptions, and ACL matching when IKE is up but applications fail.
  2. Diagnose VPN setup failures in phase order by comparing peer reachability, authentication identities, and mutually supported IKE and IPsec proposals.
  3. Inspect bidirectional security association counters, packet traces, NAT policy, route selection, and remote selectors.
  4. An authorized automation client commits only permitted device changes and unauthorized API operations fail without modifying running state.
  5. Review fail-open or fail-closed expectations, high-availability topology, interface mode, IPS rule state, and packet counters.

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

Trace FTD VPN encryption/decryption counters, routes, NAT exemptions, and ACL matching when IKE is up but applications fail. This control addresses the failure mechanism and narrows the enforcement boundary. IKE-up status validates part of the control plane; the protected data plane requires matching routes, selectors, and NAT behavior. Confirm pre-change conditions using: Inspect bidirectional security association counters, packet traces, NAT policy, route selection, and remote selectors. This is the implementation portion of the complementary pair. Situation: A newly added subnet works locally yet its branch-to-branch traffic follows the default internet NAT policy.

C:

Inspect bidirectional security association counters, packet traces, NAT policy, route selection, and remote selectors. This checks the relevant condition before an engineer modifies production access or detection behavior. IKE-up status validates part of the control plane; the protected data plane requires matching routes, selectors, and NAT behavior. The controlled response would be: Trace FTD VPN encryption/decryption counters, routes, NAT exemptions, and ACL matching when IKE is up but applications fail. This supplies the diagnostic evidence needed for the complementary action. Situation: A newly added subnet works locally yet its branch-to-branch traffic follows the default internet NAT policy.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Diagnose VPN setup failures in phase order by comparing peer reachability, authentication identities, and mutually supported IKE and IPsec proposals. This step could matter for FTD IKE negotiation failure isolation but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Trace FTD VPN encryption/decryption counters, routes, NAT exemptions, and ACL matching when IKE is up but applications fail. and Inspect bidirectional security association counters, packet traces, NAT policy, route selection, and remote selectors. Situation: A newly added subnet works locally yet its branch-to-branch traffic follows the default internet NAT policy.

D:

An authorized automation client commits only permitted device changes and unauthorized API operations fail without modifying running state. This step could matter for NETCONF RESTCONF and API management security but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Trace FTD VPN encryption/decryption counters, routes, NAT exemptions, and ACL matching when IKE is up but applications fail. and Inspect bidirectional security association counters, packet traces, NAT policy, route selection, and remote selectors. Situation: A newly added subnet works locally yet its branch-to-branch traffic follows the default internet NAT policy.

E:

Review fail-open or fail-closed expectations, high-availability topology, interface mode, IPS rule state, and packet counters. This step could matter for Inline IPS availability and bypass behavior but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Trace FTD VPN encryption/decryption counters, routes, NAT exemptions, and ACL matching when IKE is up but applications fail. and Inspect bidirectional security association counters, packet traces, NAT policy, route selection, and remote selectors. Situation: A newly added subnet works locally yet its branch-to-branch traffic follows the default internet NAT policy.

Question 988

An administrator issues CoA for an outdated duplicate session record and cannot observe the desired client change. Before changing security policy, what evidence should the engineer examine FIRST?

  1. Inspect observable sightings, integration health, incident timeline, detection confidence, and action permissions.
  2. Inspect queried subdomain patterns, TXT requests, query response rates, domain age, and originating host process.
  3. Inspect CoA NAK or timeout records, UDP transport, session identifiers, network device shared secret, and switch logs.
  4. Inspect current session identity, NAD CoA support and shared secret, ISE authorization change, and RADIUS live logs.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Inspect CoA NAK or timeout records, UDP transport, session identifiers, network device shared secret, and switch logs. This checks the relevant condition before an engineer modifies production access or detection behavior. A policy rule update does not retroactively rewrite an existing session without a supported reauthorization mechanism and a successful CoA exchange. The controlled response would be: Trace failed Cisco ISE CoA requests through dynamic authorization configuration, source identity, shared secret, session selection, and device support. Situation: An administrator issues CoA for an outdated duplicate session record and cannot observe the desired client change.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect observable sightings, integration health, incident timeline, detection confidence, and action permissions. This evidence addresses Cisco XDR cross-source incident correlation; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect CoA NAK or timeout records, UDP transport, session identifiers, network device shared secret, and switch logs. Situation: An administrator issues CoA for an outdated duplicate session record and cannot observe the desired client change.

B:

Inspect queried subdomain patterns, TXT requests, query response rates, domain age, and originating host process. This evidence addresses DNS tunneling exfiltration detection; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect CoA NAK or timeout records, UDP transport, session identifiers, network device shared secret, and switch logs. Situation: An administrator issues CoA for an outdated duplicate session record and cannot observe the desired client change.

D:

Inspect current session identity, NAD CoA support and shared secret, ISE authorization change, and RADIUS live logs. This evidence addresses CoA session reauthorization by Cisco ISE; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect CoA NAK or timeout records, UDP transport, session identifiers, network device shared secret, and switch logs. Situation: An administrator issues CoA for an outdated duplicate session record and cannot observe the desired client change.

Question 989

A new contractor is granted indefinite workspace access despite a short-term approved project. Which TWO complementary steps provide the most defensible remediation and its supporting assessment? Select TWO.

  1. Sensitive objects remain encrypted and only approved application identities can decrypt them under documented key policy.
  2. Inspect asset inventory, cloud service exposure, cloud security baseline, exception handling, and assessment findings.
  3. Inspect OAuth app grants, external collaboration settings, admin roles, account lifecycle, and cloud sharing audit logs.
  4. Apply tenant-scoped identity, secure sharing, and data-access governance to SaaS workflows including third-party integration tokens.
  5. Match public, private, hybrid, or community cloud and CASB controls to data access and service risk rather than selecting an architecture by label.

Explanation

Correct Answers

C:

Inspect OAuth app grants, external collaboration settings, admin roles, account lifecycle, and cloud sharing audit logs. This checks the relevant condition before an engineer modifies production access or detection behavior. SaaS security remains a shared responsibility: provider-hosted software does not make permissive tenant configuration secure. The controlled response would be: Apply tenant-scoped identity, secure sharing, and data-access governance to SaaS workflows including third-party integration tokens. This supplies the diagnostic evidence needed for the complementary action. Situation: A new contractor is granted indefinite workspace access despite a short-term approved project.

D:

Apply tenant-scoped identity, secure sharing, and data-access governance to SaaS workflows including third-party integration tokens. This control addresses the failure mechanism and narrows the enforcement boundary. SaaS security remains a shared responsibility: provider-hosted software does not make permissive tenant configuration secure. Confirm pre-change conditions using: Inspect OAuth app grants, external collaboration settings, admin roles, account lifecycle, and cloud sharing audit logs. This is the implementation portion of the complementary pair. Situation: A new contractor is granted indefinite workspace access despite a short-term approved project.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Sensitive objects remain encrypted and only approved application identities can decrypt them under documented key policy. This step could matter for Cloud application encryption and key responsibility but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Apply tenant-scoped identity, secure sharing, and data-access governance to SaaS workflows including third-party integration tokens. and Inspect OAuth app grants, external collaboration settings, admin roles, account lifecycle, and cloud sharing audit logs. Situation: A new contractor is granted indefinite workspace access despite a short-term approved project.

B:

Inspect asset inventory, cloud service exposure, cloud security baseline, exception handling, and assessment findings. This step could matter for Cloud security posture policy selection but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Apply tenant-scoped identity, secure sharing, and data-access governance to SaaS workflows including third-party integration tokens. and Inspect OAuth app grants, external collaboration settings, admin roles, account lifecycle, and cloud sharing audit logs. Situation: A new contractor is granted indefinite workspace access despite a short-term approved project.

E:

Match public, private, hybrid, or community cloud and CASB controls to data access and service risk rather than selecting an architecture by label. This step could matter for Cloud deployment and CASB suitability but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Apply tenant-scoped identity, secure sharing, and data-access governance to SaaS workflows including third-party integration tokens. and Inspect OAuth app grants, external collaboration settings, admin roles, account lifecycle, and cloud sharing audit logs. Situation: A new contractor is granted indefinite workspace access despite a short-term approved project.

Question 990

A private application policy references an outdated FQDN and user connections fail despite successful SSO. Which Cisco security control or operational response BEST addresses the stated need?

  1. Validate private application connector capacity and connectivity alongside identity decisions and policy enforcement before relaxing restrictions.
  2. Publish approved private applications through Secure Private Access with least-privilege identity and device conditions rather than broad network tunnels.
  3. Correlate Investigate domain information with DNS activity, source endpoint, time range, and threat intelligence before escalating.
  4. Direct relevant internet and private application traffic through supported cloud security enforcement with explicit user and device context.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Publish approved private applications through Secure Private Access with least-privilege identity and device conditions rather than broad network tunnels. This control addresses the failure mechanism and narrows the enforcement boundary. Zero-trust private access grants application-scoped connectivity; being authenticated to the cloud portal does not imply authorization to every private network. Confirm pre-change conditions using: Inspect private app connector reachability, application FQDN or IP definitions, identity group, posture, and access decisions. Situation: A private application policy references an outdated FQDN and user connections fail despite successful SSO.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Validate private application connector capacity and connectivity alongside identity decisions and policy enforcement before relaxing restrictions. This response applies to Private app connector resilience and troubleshooting, not the controlling requirement in this case. A successful user login proves authentication, not connector reachability or correct backend application mapping. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Publish approved private applications through Secure Private Access with least-privilege identity and device conditions rather than broad network tunnels. Situation: A private application policy references an outdated FQDN and user connections fail despite successful SSO.

C:

Correlate Investigate domain information with DNS activity, source endpoint, time range, and threat intelligence before escalating. This response applies to Investigate infrastructure attribution and false positives, not the controlling requirement in this case. Domain attribution may involve shared infrastructure and dynamic resolution; a risky domain does not imply every neighbor on the IP is malicious. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Publish approved private applications through Secure Private Access with least-privilege identity and device conditions rather than broad network tunnels. Situation: A private application policy references an outdated FQDN and user connections fail despite successful SSO.

D:

Direct relevant internet and private application traffic through supported cloud security enforcement with explicit user and device context. This response applies to Remote identity and traffic steering in SSE, not the controlling requirement in this case. A cloud security point of presence enforces policies only for the traffic and identities actually steered to it; the product name alone does not guarantee coverage. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Publish approved private applications through Secure Private Access with least-privilege identity and device conditions rather than broad network tunnels. Situation: A private application policy references an outdated FQDN and user connections fail despite successful SSO.

Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies (350-701) Practice Tests