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Cisco 350-701 Practice Test 82

Question 810

Several staff receive a fake device-enrollment portal link hosted on a recently created domain. Before changing security policy, what evidence should the engineer examine FIRST?

  1. Inspect phishing URL redirects, domain registration context, email authentication outcomes, clicked-user telemetry, and current block rules.
  2. Inspect client connection logs, authentication flow, posture result, assigned routes, certificate policy, and headend access control.
  3. Review message authentication results, sender/domain similarities, original contact directory, transaction changes, and escalation records.
  4. Inspect dynamic SQL construction, query logs, supplied payloads, database role privileges, and application input paths.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Inspect phishing URL redirects, domain registration context, email authentication outcomes, clicked-user telemetry, and current block rules. This checks the relevant condition before an engineer modifies production access or detection behavior. A secure email channel and DNS/web controls reduce exposure but cannot certify that every newly registered domain is benign. The controlled response would be: Combine suspicious message reporting, web destination inspection, reputation controls, and user training with enforceable authentication policies. Situation: Several staff receive a fake device-enrollment portal link hosted on a recently created domain.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Inspect client connection logs, authentication flow, posture result, assigned routes, certificate policy, and headend access control. This evidence addresses Remote access VPN client controls; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect phishing URL redirects, domain registration context, email authentication outcomes, clicked-user telemetry, and current block rules. Situation: Several staff receive a fake device-enrollment portal link hosted on a recently created domain.

C:

Review message authentication results, sender/domain similarities, original contact directory, transaction changes, and escalation records. This evidence addresses Business email compromise verification; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect phishing URL redirects, domain registration context, email authentication outcomes, clicked-user telemetry, and current block rules. Situation: Several staff receive a fake device-enrollment portal link hosted on a recently created domain.

D:

Inspect dynamic SQL construction, query logs, supplied payloads, database role privileges, and application input paths. This evidence addresses SQL injection and parameterized queries; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect phishing URL redirects, domain registration context, email authentication outcomes, clicked-user telemetry, and current block rules. Situation: Several staff receive a fake device-enrollment portal link hosted on a recently created domain.

Question 811

A compliance auditor asks how cloud misconfiguration alerts are linked to assigned owners and remediation evidence. Which TWO complementary steps provide the most defensible remediation and its supporting assessment? Select TWO.

  1. A control checklist identifies responsible teams for patching, identities, configuration, and data even when underlying infrastructure is provider managed.
  2. Inspect asset inventory, cloud service exposure, cloud security baseline, exception handling, and assessment findings.
  3. Select preventative cloud configuration policies and continuous posture assessment against business risk, cloud framework, and allowed environments.
  4. Coordinate consistent security intent across cloud platforms while retaining cloud-native enforcement and per-provider verification.
  5. Inspect cloud route tables, network attachment paths, traffic direction, security policy, and supported deployment scope.

Explanation

Correct Answers

B:

Inspect asset inventory, cloud service exposure, cloud security baseline, exception handling, and assessment findings. This checks the relevant condition before an engineer modifies production access or detection behavior. A cloud security posture view helps identify configuration drift, but a dashboard does not enforce remediation without policy and ownership. The controlled response would be: Select preventative cloud configuration policies and continuous posture assessment against business risk, cloud framework, and allowed environments. This supplies the diagnostic evidence needed for the complementary action. Situation: A compliance auditor asks how cloud misconfiguration alerts are linked to assigned owners and remediation evidence.

C:

Select preventative cloud configuration policies and continuous posture assessment against business risk, cloud framework, and allowed environments. This control addresses the failure mechanism and narrows the enforcement boundary. A cloud security posture view helps identify configuration drift, but a dashboard does not enforce remediation without policy and ownership. Confirm pre-change conditions using: Inspect asset inventory, cloud service exposure, cloud security baseline, exception handling, and assessment findings. This is the implementation portion of the complementary pair. Situation: A compliance auditor asks how cloud misconfiguration alerts are linked to assigned owners and remediation evidence.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A control checklist identifies responsible teams for patching, identities, configuration, and data even when underlying infrastructure is provider managed. This step could matter for Cloud provider customer responsibility map but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Select preventative cloud configuration policies and continuous posture assessment against business risk, cloud framework, and allowed environments. and Inspect asset inventory, cloud service exposure, cloud security baseline, exception handling, and assessment findings. Situation: A compliance auditor asks how cloud misconfiguration alerts are linked to assigned owners and remediation evidence.

D:

Coordinate consistent security intent across cloud platforms while retaining cloud-native enforcement and per-provider verification. This step could matter for Multicloud identity and centralized policy governance but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Select preventative cloud configuration policies and continuous posture assessment against business risk, cloud framework, and allowed environments. and Inspect asset inventory, cloud service exposure, cloud security baseline, exception handling, and assessment findings. Situation: A compliance auditor asks how cloud misconfiguration alerts are linked to assigned owners and remediation evidence.

E:

Inspect cloud route tables, network attachment paths, traffic direction, security policy, and supported deployment scope. This step could matter for Cisco Multicloud Defense traffic policy but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Select preventative cloud configuration policies and continuous posture assessment against business risk, cloud framework, and allowed environments. and Inspect asset inventory, cloud service exposure, cloud security baseline, exception handling, and assessment findings. Situation: A compliance auditor asks how cloud misconfiguration alerts are linked to assigned owners and remediation evidence.

Question 812

A SOC sees DNS queries for an odd domain but has not established which host generated them. Which TWO complementary steps provide the most defensible remediation and its supporting assessment? Select TWO.

  1. Correlate Investigate domain information with DNS activity, source endpoint, time range, and threat intelligence before escalating.
  2. Interpret Cisco Secure Access Investigate domain risk and sub-scores with threat context before deciding to block or allow domains.
  3. Inspect observed resolver clients, domain pivots, domain categorization, timestamps, threat indicators, and access logs.
  4. A staged confidential dataset upload triggers the intended block or review while benign business uploads do not cause excess false positives.
  5. Inspect private app connector reachability, application FQDN or IP definitions, identity group, posture, and access decisions.

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

Correlate Investigate domain information with DNS activity, source endpoint, time range, and threat intelligence before escalating. This control addresses the failure mechanism and narrows the enforcement boundary. Domain attribution may involve shared infrastructure and dynamic resolution; a risky domain does not imply every neighbor on the IP is malicious. Confirm pre-change conditions using: Inspect observed resolver clients, domain pivots, domain categorization, timestamps, threat indicators, and access logs. This is the implementation portion of the complementary pair. Situation: A SOC sees DNS queries for an odd domain but has not established which host generated them.

C:

Inspect observed resolver clients, domain pivots, domain categorization, timestamps, threat indicators, and access logs. This checks the relevant condition before an engineer modifies production access or detection behavior. Domain attribution may involve shared infrastructure and dynamic resolution; a risky domain does not imply every neighbor on the IP is malicious. The controlled response would be: Correlate Investigate domain information with DNS activity, source endpoint, time range, and threat intelligence before escalating. This supplies the diagnostic evidence needed for the complementary action. Situation: A SOC sees DNS queries for an odd domain but has not established which host generated them.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Interpret Cisco Secure Access Investigate domain risk and sub-scores with threat context before deciding to block or allow domains. This step could matter for Investigate domain risk score interpretation but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Correlate Investigate domain information with DNS activity, source endpoint, time range, and threat intelligence before escalating. and Inspect observed resolver clients, domain pivots, domain categorization, timestamps, threat indicators, and access logs. Situation: A SOC sees DNS queries for an odd domain but has not established which host generated them.

D:

A staged confidential dataset upload triggers the intended block or review while benign business uploads do not cause excess false positives. This step could matter for Cloud DLP sensitive upload policy but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Correlate Investigate domain information with DNS activity, source endpoint, time range, and threat intelligence before escalating. and Inspect observed resolver clients, domain pivots, domain categorization, timestamps, threat indicators, and access logs. Situation: A SOC sees DNS queries for an odd domain but has not established which host generated them.

E:

Inspect private app connector reachability, application FQDN or IP definitions, identity group, posture, and access decisions. This step could matter for Cisco Secure Access private app access but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Correlate Investigate domain information with DNS activity, source endpoint, time range, and threat intelligence before escalating. and Inspect observed resolver clients, domain pivots, domain categorization, timestamps, threat indicators, and access logs. Situation: A SOC sees DNS queries for an odd domain but has not established which host generated them.

Question 813

A contractor replaces a notebook and its new device never receives the approved disk encryption policy. Before changing security policy, what evidence should the engineer examine FIRST?

  1. Inspect OS patch level, installed applications, configuration baselines, exception evidence, and last check-in.
  2. Inspect MDM enrollment status, device serial identifiers, operating system version, policy compliance, and assigned owner.
  3. Inspect disposition change, prevalence, isolation status, affected host roles, event sequence, and unresolved detections.
  4. Inspect email platform, API permissions, journaling architecture, allowed mail-flow changes, product entitlement, and required remediation actions.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Inspect MDM enrollment status, device serial identifiers, operating system version, policy compliance, and assigned owner. This checks the relevant condition before an engineer modifies production access or detection behavior. A managed device inventory links technical posture to accountability; simply knowing an IP address does not establish device trust. The controlled response would be: Maintain managed device inventory with ownership, encryption, update, and enrollment policies before granting enterprise application access. Situation: A contractor replaces a notebook and its new device never receives the approved disk encryption policy.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect OS patch level, installed applications, configuration baselines, exception evidence, and last check-in. This evidence addresses MDM application and patch compliance; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect MDM enrollment status, device serial identifiers, operating system version, policy compliance, and assigned owner. Situation: A contractor replaces a notebook and its new device never receives the approved disk encryption policy.

C:

Inspect disposition change, prevalence, isolation status, affected host roles, event sequence, and unresolved detections. This evidence addresses Endpoint malware event prioritization; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect MDM enrollment status, device serial identifiers, operating system version, policy compliance, and assigned owner. Situation: A contractor replaces a notebook and its new device never receives the approved disk encryption policy.

D:

Inspect email platform, API permissions, journaling architecture, allowed mail-flow changes, product entitlement, and required remediation actions. This evidence addresses Email Threat Defense deployment mode selection; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect MDM enrollment status, device serial identifiers, operating system version, policy compliance, and assigned owner. Situation: A contractor replaces a notebook and its new device never receives the approved disk encryption policy.

Question 814

A new ISP changes the VPN peer address and branch traffic fails while the old tunnel definition remains configured. Which TWO complementary steps provide the most defensible remediation and its supporting assessment? Select TWO.

  1. Inspect peer public addresses, IKE/IPsec proposals, NAT treatment, interesting traffic, and security association counters.
  2. Configure FTD site-to-site VPN using compatible peer parameters, network selectors, identities, and routing/access rules, then verify both tunnel phases.
  3. An unusual high-volume conversation is identified with attributable endpoints without claiming NetFlow reveals complete application content.
  4. Inspect supported device inventory, tenant enrollment, API roles, internet management path, change evidence, and local fallback.
  5. Configure Cisco Secure Client remote access to FTD with supported authentication, client profile, access restrictions, and split tunnel settings.

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

Inspect peer public addresses, IKE/IPsec proposals, NAT treatment, interesting traffic, and security association counters. This checks the relevant condition before an engineer modifies production access or detection behavior. Successful VPN peer authentication does not prove application forwarding; selectors, route tables, NAT, and access policies also govern data traffic. The controlled response would be: Configure FTD site-to-site VPN using compatible peer parameters, network selectors, identities, and routing/access rules, then verify both tunnel phases. This supplies the diagnostic evidence needed for the complementary action. Situation: A new ISP changes the VPN peer address and branch traffic fails while the old tunnel definition remains configured.

B:

Configure FTD site-to-site VPN using compatible peer parameters, network selectors, identities, and routing/access rules, then verify both tunnel phases. This control addresses the failure mechanism and narrows the enforcement boundary. Successful VPN peer authentication does not prove application forwarding; selectors, route tables, NAT, and access policies also govern data traffic. Confirm pre-change conditions using: Inspect peer public addresses, IKE/IPsec proposals, NAT treatment, interesting traffic, and security association counters. This is the implementation portion of the complementary pair. Situation: A new ISP changes the VPN peer address and branch traffic fails while the old tunnel definition remains configured.

Incorrect Answers

C:

An unusual high-volume conversation is identified with attributable endpoints without claiming NetFlow reveals complete application content. This step could matter for NetFlow and telemetry flow analysis but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Configure FTD site-to-site VPN using compatible peer parameters, network selectors, identities, and routing/access rules, then verify both tunnel phases. and Inspect peer public addresses, IKE/IPsec proposals, NAT treatment, interesting traffic, and security association counters. Situation: A new ISP changes the VPN peer address and branch traffic fails while the old tunnel definition remains configured.

D:

Inspect supported device inventory, tenant enrollment, API roles, internet management path, change evidence, and local fallback. This step could matter for Cisco Security Cloud Control management boundary but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Configure FTD site-to-site VPN using compatible peer parameters, network selectors, identities, and routing/access rules, then verify both tunnel phases. and Inspect peer public addresses, IKE/IPsec proposals, NAT treatment, interesting traffic, and security association counters. Situation: A new ISP changes the VPN peer address and branch traffic fails while the old tunnel definition remains configured.

E:

Configure Cisco Secure Client remote access to FTD with supported authentication, client profile, access restrictions, and split tunnel settings. This step could matter for Cisco Secure Client remote VPN policy but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Configure FTD site-to-site VPN using compatible peer parameters, network selectors, identities, and routing/access rules, then verify both tunnel phases. and Inspect peer public addresses, IKE/IPsec proposals, NAT treatment, interesting traffic, and security association counters. Situation: A new ISP changes the VPN peer address and branch traffic fails while the old tunnel definition remains configured.

Question 815

A cloud application encrypts database storage yet stores the decryption key in public source code. Which observed result BEST confirms that the security requirement is met?

  1. Sensitive objects remain encrypted and only approved application identities can decrypt them under documented key policy.
  2. A deliberately public data service or embedded secret is rejected in CI before a production resource is created.
  3. Approved cloud-to-cloud application traffic follows the intended inspected path while unauthorized egress is denied.
  4. A critical vulnerable dependency blocks promotion and approved remediation produces an auditable releasable artifact.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Sensitive objects remain encrypted and only approved application identities can decrypt them under documented key policy. This is an observable acceptance condition, rather than an assumption that enabling a feature alone proves security. Encryption protects data against unauthorized reading but does not substitute for IAM; key lifecycle management and backups require explicit ownership. Situation: A cloud application encrypts database storage yet stores the decryption key in public source code.

Incorrect Answers

B:

A deliberately public data service or embedded secret is rejected in CI before a production resource is created. This outcome tests Infrastructure as Code security gate and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: Sensitive objects remain encrypted and only approved application identities can decrypt them under documented key policy. Situation: A cloud application encrypts database storage yet stores the decryption key in public source code.

C:

Approved cloud-to-cloud application traffic follows the intended inspected path while unauthorized egress is denied. This outcome tests Cisco Multicloud Defense traffic policy and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: Sensitive objects remain encrypted and only approved application identities can decrypt them under documented key policy. Situation: A cloud application encrypts database storage yet stores the decryption key in public source code.

D:

A critical vulnerable dependency blocks promotion and approved remediation produces an auditable releasable artifact. This outcome tests CI CD container and application security lifecycle and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: Sensitive objects remain encrypted and only approved application identities can decrypt them under documented key policy. Situation: A cloud application encrypts database storage yet stores the decryption key in public source code.

Question 816

A newly signed enterprise application triggers a suspicious behavior alert but no engineer has confirmed its provenance. Which observed result BEST confirms that the security requirement is met?

  1. An investigator identifies first observation, related hosts, and effective remediation steps rather than confusing an alert with confirmed execution.
  2. A file reclassified as malicious triggers investigation and containment of hosts that handled it earlier.
  3. High-impact active behavior receives response ahead of low-context historical detections, with reasons recorded.
  4. A confirmed legitimate application resumes operation while unrelated malicious activity remains detectable.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

A confirmed legitimate application resumes operation while unrelated malicious activity remains detectable. This is an observable acceptance condition, rather than an assumption that enabling a feature alone proves security. Broad folder or process exclusions can create lasting blind spots; false-positive tuning requires evidence and defined review dates. Situation: A newly signed enterprise application triggers a suspicious behavior alert but no engineer has confirmed its provenance.

Incorrect Answers

A:

An investigator identifies first observation, related hosts, and effective remediation steps rather than confusing an alert with confirmed execution. This outcome tests Secure Endpoint detection event trajectory and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: A confirmed legitimate application resumes operation while unrelated malicious activity remains detectable. Situation: A newly signed enterprise application triggers a suspicious behavior alert but no engineer has confirmed its provenance.

B:

A file reclassified as malicious triggers investigation and containment of hosts that handled it earlier. This outcome tests Malware retrospective disposition response and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: A confirmed legitimate application resumes operation while unrelated malicious activity remains detectable. Situation: A newly signed enterprise application triggers a suspicious behavior alert but no engineer has confirmed its provenance.

C:

High-impact active behavior receives response ahead of low-context historical detections, with reasons recorded. This outcome tests Endpoint malware event prioritization and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: A confirmed legitimate application resumes operation while unrelated malicious activity remains detectable. Situation: A newly signed enterprise application triggers a suspicious behavior alert but no engineer has confirmed its provenance.

Question 817

An external scanner can read switch interface descriptions from a management service bound to every VLAN. Before changing security policy, what evidence should the engineer examine FIRST?

  1. Inspect endpoint identity assignments, VLAN membership, SGT propagation, trustsec matrix rules, and routed reachability.
  2. Inspect SSH/HTTPS management services, NETCONF or RESTCONF configuration, model schema, access roles, and operation results.
  3. Inspect SNMP user groups, auth/priv settings, engine IDs, management ACLs, and failed polling logs.
  4. Inspect access-rule association, intrusion policy, detection events, file reputation, TLS visibility, and false-positive evidence.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Inspect SNMP user groups, auth/priv settings, engine IDs, management ACLs, and failed polling logs. This checks the relevant condition before an engineer modifies production access or detection behavior. SNMPv3 supports integrity and encryption for management queries when authPriv is configured; SNMPv1 community strings do not provide equivalent protection. The controlled response would be: Use SNMPv3 with authentication and privacy where appropriate and restrict agents to approved management sources and read views. Situation: An external scanner can read switch interface descriptions from a management service bound to every VLAN.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect endpoint identity assignments, VLAN membership, SGT propagation, trustsec matrix rules, and routed reachability. This evidence addresses VLAN segmentation and SGT policy; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect SNMP user groups, auth/priv settings, engine IDs, management ACLs, and failed polling logs. Situation: An external scanner can read switch interface descriptions from a management service bound to every VLAN.

B:

Inspect SSH/HTTPS management services, NETCONF or RESTCONF configuration, model schema, access roles, and operation results. This evidence addresses NETCONF RESTCONF and API management security; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect SNMP user groups, auth/priv settings, engine IDs, management ACLs, and failed polling logs. Situation: An external scanner can read switch interface descriptions from a management service bound to every VLAN.

D:

Inspect access-rule association, intrusion policy, detection events, file reputation, TLS visibility, and false-positive evidence. This evidence addresses FTD intrusion policy and malware detection; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect SNMP user groups, auth/priv settings, engine IDs, management ACLs, and failed polling logs. Situation: An external scanner can read switch interface descriptions from a management service bound to every VLAN.

Question 818

An internal host transmits unusually high byte volumes to an unfamiliar external address but IDS signatures remain silent. Which TWO complementary steps provide the most defensible remediation and its supporting assessment? Select TWO.

  1. Forward security event logs over approved protected transport and synchronize clocks for reliable multi-device incident reconstruction.
  2. A finance user reaches approved systems while guest traffic cannot cross the group policy boundary despite sharing switching infrastructure.
  3. Inspect learned MAC counts, access versus trunk state, BPDU reception, storm-control counters, and port error events.
  4. Collect and analyze flow-level metadata to identify communication patterns and suspicious volume while acknowledging payload visibility limits.
  5. Inspect source/destination tuples, flow duration, byte counts, exporters, collector receipt, and sampling configuration.

Explanation

Correct Answers

D:

Collect and analyze flow-level metadata to identify communication patterns and suspicious volume while acknowledging payload visibility limits. This control addresses the failure mechanism and narrows the enforcement boundary. Flow telemetry summarizes communicating endpoints and counters; packet payload inspection requires different data sources. Confirm pre-change conditions using: Inspect source/destination tuples, flow duration, byte counts, exporters, collector receipt, and sampling configuration. This is the implementation portion of the complementary pair. Situation: An internal host transmits unusually high byte volumes to an unfamiliar external address but IDS signatures remain silent.

E:

Inspect source/destination tuples, flow duration, byte counts, exporters, collector receipt, and sampling configuration. This checks the relevant condition before an engineer modifies production access or detection behavior. Flow telemetry summarizes communicating endpoints and counters; packet payload inspection requires different data sources. The controlled response would be: Collect and analyze flow-level metadata to identify communication patterns and suspicious volume while acknowledging payload visibility limits. This supplies the diagnostic evidence needed for the complementary action. Situation: An internal host transmits unusually high byte volumes to an unfamiliar external address but IDS signatures remain silent.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Forward security event logs over approved protected transport and synchronize clocks for reliable multi-device incident reconstruction. This step could matter for Secure syslog and timestamp correlation but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Collect and analyze flow-level metadata to identify communication patterns and suspicious volume while acknowledging payload visibility limits. and Inspect source/destination tuples, flow duration, byte counts, exporters, collector receipt, and sampling configuration. Situation: An internal host transmits unusually high byte volumes to an unfamiliar external address but IDS signatures remain silent.

B:

A finance user reaches approved systems while guest traffic cannot cross the group policy boundary despite sharing switching infrastructure. This step could matter for VLAN segmentation and SGT policy but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Collect and analyze flow-level metadata to identify communication patterns and suspicious volume while acknowledging payload visibility limits. and Inspect source/destination tuples, flow duration, byte counts, exporters, collector receipt, and sampling configuration. Situation: An internal host transmits unusually high byte volumes to an unfamiliar external address but IDS signatures remain silent.

C:

Inspect learned MAC counts, access versus trunk state, BPDU reception, storm-control counters, and port error events. This step could matter for Layer 2 port hardening and storm control but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Collect and analyze flow-level metadata to identify communication patterns and suspicious volume while acknowledging payload visibility limits. and Inspect source/destination tuples, flow duration, byte counts, exporters, collector receipt, and sampling configuration. Situation: An internal host transmits unusually high byte volumes to an unfamiliar external address but IDS signatures remain silent.

Question 819

A hospital allows clinical domains but an overbroad URL category exception also permits personal file-sharing websites. Which Cisco security control or operational response BEST addresses the stated need?

  1. Apply application-aware restrictions and appropriate URL categories to FTD policies while checking TLS and application identification limits.
  2. Separate groups with VLAN boundaries and apply identity or context-based SGT policy where infrastructure supports scalable group enforcement.
  3. Limit administrative exposure, authenticate routing and management where supported, and protect control-plane resources against abuse.
  4. Implement Cisco Secure Firewall access control policy with explicit zone, address, application, and rule-order scope, logging decisions at relevant boundaries.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Apply application-aware restrictions and appropriate URL categories to FTD policies while checking TLS and application identification limits. This control addresses the failure mechanism and narrows the enforcement boundary. An IP address alone may host many services; application or URL inspection adds context but must have sufficient visibility to classify traffic. Confirm pre-change conditions using: Inspect application detectors, URL category verdicts, rule conditions, encrypted-session visibility, and identity matches. Situation: A hospital allows clinical domains but an overbroad URL category exception also permits personal file-sharing websites.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Separate groups with VLAN boundaries and apply identity or context-based SGT policy where infrastructure supports scalable group enforcement. This response applies to VLAN segmentation and SGT policy, not the controlling requirement in this case. VLANs group Layer 2 broadcast domains; SGT-based policies can follow endpoint identity across supported network paths independent of a particular subnet. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Apply application-aware restrictions and appropriate URL categories to FTD policies while checking TLS and application identification limits. Situation: A hospital allows clinical domains but an overbroad URL category exception also permits personal file-sharing websites.

C:

Limit administrative exposure, authenticate routing and management where supported, and protect control-plane resources against abuse. This response applies to Router control plane and management isolation, not the controlling requirement in this case. A network device has distinct control, data, and management planes; each requires separate scoped protection. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Apply application-aware restrictions and appropriate URL categories to FTD policies while checking TLS and application identification limits. Situation: A hospital allows clinical domains but an overbroad URL category exception also permits personal file-sharing websites.

D:

Implement Cisco Secure Firewall access control policy with explicit zone, address, application, and rule-order scope, logging decisions at relevant boundaries. This response applies to FTD access control rule ordering, not the controlling requirement in this case. Access control rules are evaluated according to platform policy order and conditions; an overly broad early allow can shadow later restrictions. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Apply application-aware restrictions and appropriate URL categories to FTD policies while checking TLS and application identification limits. Situation: A hospital allows clinical domains but an overbroad URL category exception also permits personal file-sharing websites.

Question 820

A remote laptop bypasses cloud inspection after its client traffic forwarding service silently stops. Which TWO complementary steps provide the most defensible remediation and its supporting assessment? Select TWO.

  1. Inspect data classifiers, exact-match or pattern quality, sanctioned SaaS domains, upload channel visibility, and allowed exceptions.
  2. Select SSE for cloud-delivered security functions and account for SD-WAN or network connectivity when describing a complete SASE deployment.
  3. Inspect client connector state, network tunnel health, identity source, route exclusions, and effective access policy.
  4. Direct relevant internet and private application traffic through supported cloud security enforcement with explicit user and device context.
  5. An approved web app remains reachable while a test prohibited destination produces an attributable deny event.

Explanation

Correct Answers

C:

Inspect client connector state, network tunnel health, identity source, route exclusions, and effective access policy. This checks the relevant condition before an engineer modifies production access or detection behavior. A cloud security point of presence enforces policies only for the traffic and identities actually steered to it; the product name alone does not guarantee coverage. The controlled response would be: Direct relevant internet and private application traffic through supported cloud security enforcement with explicit user and device context. This supplies the diagnostic evidence needed for the complementary action. Situation: A remote laptop bypasses cloud inspection after its client traffic forwarding service silently stops.

D:

Direct relevant internet and private application traffic through supported cloud security enforcement with explicit user and device context. This control addresses the failure mechanism and narrows the enforcement boundary. A cloud security point of presence enforces policies only for the traffic and identities actually steered to it; the product name alone does not guarantee coverage. Confirm pre-change conditions using: Inspect client connector state, network tunnel health, identity source, route exclusions, and effective access policy. This is the implementation portion of the complementary pair. Situation: A remote laptop bypasses cloud inspection after its client traffic forwarding service silently stops.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect data classifiers, exact-match or pattern quality, sanctioned SaaS domains, upload channel visibility, and allowed exceptions. This step could matter for Cloud DLP sensitive upload policy but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Direct relevant internet and private application traffic through supported cloud security enforcement with explicit user and device context. and Inspect client connector state, network tunnel health, identity source, route exclusions, and effective access policy. Situation: A remote laptop bypasses cloud inspection after its client traffic forwarding service silently stops.

B:

Select SSE for cloud-delivered security functions and account for SD-WAN or network connectivity when describing a complete SASE deployment. This step could matter for SSE compared with SASE architecture but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Direct relevant internet and private application traffic through supported cloud security enforcement with explicit user and device context. and Inspect client connector state, network tunnel health, identity source, route exclusions, and effective access policy. Situation: A remote laptop bypasses cloud inspection after its client traffic forwarding service silently stops.

E:

An approved web app remains reachable while a test prohibited destination produces an attributable deny event. This step could matter for Cisco Secure Access internet use policy but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Direct relevant internet and private application traffic through supported cloud security enforcement with explicit user and device context. and Inspect client connector state, network tunnel health, identity source, route exclusions, and effective access policy. Situation: A remote laptop bypasses cloud inspection after its client traffic forwarding service silently stops.

Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies (350-701) Practice Tests