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Cisco 350-701 Practice Test 74

Question 730

A project wants to deploy application updates automatically but must retain evidence of developer and security approval. Which Cisco security control or operational response BEST addresses the stated need?

  1. Combine dependency, container, and code security checks with change approval and deployment rollback across a DevSecOps pipeline.
  2. Restrict cloud roles to necessary actions and resources, require strong identity controls, and log administrative changes independent of workload configuration.
  3. Require IaC templates to pass secrets, policy, and network exposure scanning before deployment and document authorized exceptions.
  4. Protect container workloads with approved image provenance, minimal privileges, network boundaries, and runtime monitoring.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Combine dependency, container, and code security checks with change approval and deployment rollback across a DevSecOps pipeline. This control addresses the failure mechanism and narrows the enforcement boundary. DevSecOps embeds security early in delivery while preserving trusted runtime controls; scanning after production is not an adequate release gate. Confirm pre-change conditions using: Inspect dependency scan outputs, container registry status, build provenance, release gates, and remediation ownership. Situation: A project wants to deploy application updates automatically but must retain evidence of developer and security approval.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Restrict cloud roles to necessary actions and resources, require strong identity controls, and log administrative changes independent of workload configuration. This response applies to Cloud IAM least privilege and logging, not the controlling requirement in this case. Cloud privilege is an enforceable API control; encrypting data at rest does not prevent an overprivileged identity from invoking destructive actions. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Combine dependency, container, and code security checks with change approval and deployment rollback across a DevSecOps pipeline. Situation: A project wants to deploy application updates automatically but must retain evidence of developer and security approval.

C:

Require IaC templates to pass secrets, policy, and network exposure scanning before deployment and document authorized exceptions. This response applies to Infrastructure as Code security gate, not the controlling requirement in this case. Infrastructure as Code makes misconfiguration reproducible; peer review and predeployment policy gates reduce repeated risky settings. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Combine dependency, container, and code security checks with change approval and deployment rollback across a DevSecOps pipeline. Situation: A project wants to deploy application updates automatically but must retain evidence of developer and security approval.

D:

Protect container workloads with approved image provenance, minimal privileges, network boundaries, and runtime monitoring. This response applies to Container workload identity and image governance, not the controlling requirement in this case. A container isolates processes but is not a complete trust boundary; host privileges, image supply chain, and runtime identity remain material. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Combine dependency, container, and code security checks with change approval and deployment rollback across a DevSecOps pipeline. Situation: A project wants to deploy application updates automatically but must retain evidence of developer and security approval.

Question 731

A company deploys a next-generation firewall but leaves administrator laptops and internal east-west traffic uncontrolled. Which observed result BEST confirms that the security requirement is met?

  1. Confirmed malicious indicators are shared and acted upon while expired or disputed indicators no longer cause unjustified blocking.
  2. The response mitigates the documented attack mechanism without mistaking a network flood for a local infected binary.
  3. The remediation queue ranks genuinely affected high-impact assets above irrelevant high-score findings and preserves justification.
  4. One failed perimeter control does not provide unmonitored unrestricted access to sensitive workloads.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

One failed perimeter control does not provide unmonitored unrestricted access to sensitive workloads. This is an observable acceptance condition, rather than an assumption that enabling a feature alone proves security. Defense in depth combines complementary independent controls; stacking duplicate products at one boundary does not protect other attack paths. Situation: A company deploys a next-generation firewall but leaves administrator laptops and internal east-west traffic uncontrolled.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Confirmed malicious indicators are shared and acted upon while expired or disputed indicators no longer cause unjustified blocking. This outcome tests Threat intelligence indicator lifecycle and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: One failed perimeter control does not provide unmonitored unrestricted access to sensitive workloads. Situation: A company deploys a next-generation firewall but leaves administrator laptops and internal east-west traffic uncontrolled.

B:

The response mitigates the documented attack mechanism without mistaking a network flood for a local infected binary. This outcome tests DDoS versus endpoint malware diagnosis and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: One failed perimeter control does not provide unmonitored unrestricted access to sensitive workloads. Situation: A company deploys a next-generation firewall but leaves administrator laptops and internal east-west traffic uncontrolled.

C:

The remediation queue ranks genuinely affected high-impact assets above irrelevant high-score findings and preserves justification. This outcome tests CVE and CVSS vulnerability prioritization and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: One failed perimeter control does not provide unmonitored unrestricted access to sensitive workloads. Situation: A company deploys a next-generation firewall but leaves administrator laptops and internal east-west traffic uncontrolled.

Question 732

A remote employee's laptop stops reporting compliance after weeks offline yet retains privileged SaaS access. Which Cisco security control or operational response BEST addresses the stated need?

  1. Maintain managed device inventory with ownership, encryption, update, and enrollment policies before granting enterprise application access.
  2. Prioritize Secure Endpoint alerts by severity, current host risk, file action, correlated detections, and business criticality.
  3. Reevaluate endpoint compliance after meaningful security changes and update access decisions when device health becomes unacceptable.
  4. Use supported device management controls to enforce software update, application inventory, and secure configuration requirements for endpoints.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Use supported device management controls to enforce software update, application inventory, and secure configuration requirements for endpoints. This control addresses the failure mechanism and narrows the enforcement boundary. Device management can deploy settings and collect compliance status; a successful enrollment alone does not prove ongoing patch health. Confirm pre-change conditions using: Inspect OS patch level, installed applications, configuration baselines, exception evidence, and last check-in. Situation: A remote employee's laptop stops reporting compliance after weeks offline yet retains privileged SaaS access.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Maintain managed device inventory with ownership, encryption, update, and enrollment policies before granting enterprise application access. This response applies to MDM device enrollment and inventory, not the controlling requirement in this case. A managed device inventory links technical posture to accountability; simply knowing an IP address does not establish device trust. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Use supported device management controls to enforce software update, application inventory, and secure configuration requirements for endpoints. Situation: A remote employee's laptop stops reporting compliance after weeks offline yet retains privileged SaaS access.

B:

Prioritize Secure Endpoint alerts by severity, current host risk, file action, correlated detections, and business criticality. This response applies to Endpoint malware event prioritization, not the controlling requirement in this case. Alert counts alone do not establish incident severity; containment status and evidence of active execution change urgency. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Use supported device management controls to enforce software update, application inventory, and secure configuration requirements for endpoints. Situation: A remote employee's laptop stops reporting compliance after weeks offline yet retains privileged SaaS access.

C:

Reevaluate endpoint compliance after meaningful security changes and update access decisions when device health becomes unacceptable. This response applies to Continuous endpoint trust and posture drift, not the controlling requirement in this case. Device trust changes over time; a successful morning compliance check is not permanent proof of safe endpoint state. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Use supported device management controls to enforce software update, application inventory, and secure configuration requirements for endpoints. Situation: A remote employee's laptop stops reporting compliance after weeks offline yet retains privileged SaaS access.

Question 733

An Azure audit feed arrives in Splunk but all events have the ingestion timestamp instead of event time. Which TWO complementary steps provide the most defensible remediation and its supporting assessment? Select TWO.

  1. Inspect regulatory hosting needs, SaaS usage, sanctioned tenants, visibility requirements, and access control capabilities.
  2. Configure Splunk cloud log inputs using supported integrations and correctly tagged sourcetypes, timestamps, and access to security indexes.
  3. Inspect log connector authentication, field parsing, source and host tagging, ingest volume, event arrival, and time normalization.
  4. A deliberately public data service or embedded secret is rejected in CI before a production resource is created.
  5. Correlate normalized cloud identity, network, and workload events in Splunk with scoped detections and validated false-positive behavior.

Explanation

Correct Answers

B:

Configure Splunk cloud log inputs using supported integrations and correctly tagged sourcetypes, timestamps, and access to security indexes. This control addresses the failure mechanism and narrows the enforcement boundary. Ingesting a log feed is not equivalent to normalizing it for investigations; sourcetype, event time, and parser correctness matter. Confirm pre-change conditions using: Inspect log connector authentication, field parsing, source and host tagging, ingest volume, event arrival, and time normalization. This is the implementation portion of the complementary pair. Situation: An Azure audit feed arrives in Splunk but all events have the ingestion timestamp instead of event time.

C:

Inspect log connector authentication, field parsing, source and host tagging, ingest volume, event arrival, and time normalization. This checks the relevant condition before an engineer modifies production access or detection behavior. Ingesting a log feed is not equivalent to normalizing it for investigations; sourcetype, event time, and parser correctness matter. The controlled response would be: Configure Splunk cloud log inputs using supported integrations and correctly tagged sourcetypes, timestamps, and access to security indexes. This supplies the diagnostic evidence needed for the complementary action. Situation: An Azure audit feed arrives in Splunk but all events have the ingestion timestamp instead of event time.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect regulatory hosting needs, SaaS usage, sanctioned tenants, visibility requirements, and access control capabilities. This step could matter for Cloud deployment and CASB suitability but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Configure Splunk cloud log inputs using supported integrations and correctly tagged sourcetypes, timestamps, and access to security indexes. and Inspect log connector authentication, field parsing, source and host tagging, ingest volume, event arrival, and time normalization. Situation: An Azure audit feed arrives in Splunk but all events have the ingestion timestamp instead of event time.

D:

A deliberately public data service or embedded secret is rejected in CI before a production resource is created. This step could matter for Infrastructure as Code security gate but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Configure Splunk cloud log inputs using supported integrations and correctly tagged sourcetypes, timestamps, and access to security indexes. and Inspect log connector authentication, field parsing, source and host tagging, ingest volume, event arrival, and time normalization. Situation: An Azure audit feed arrives in Splunk but all events have the ingestion timestamp instead of event time.

E:

Correlate normalized cloud identity, network, and workload events in Splunk with scoped detections and validated false-positive behavior. This step could matter for Splunk detection correlation across cloud feeds but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Configure Splunk cloud log inputs using supported integrations and correctly tagged sourcetypes, timestamps, and access to security indexes. and Inspect log connector authentication, field parsing, source and host tagging, ingest volume, event arrival, and time normalization. Situation: An Azure audit feed arrives in Splunk but all events have the ingestion timestamp instead of event time.

Question 734

An internal API returns a certificate for another hostname after a load-balancer migration. Which Cisco security control or operational response BEST addresses the stated need?

  1. Constrain compromised API credentials through scoped permissions, rotation, behavior alerts, and incident review rather than assuming encrypted transport prevents misuse.
  2. Validate peer identity with a trusted certificate chain, correct hostname, certificate validity, and appropriate TLS policy before exchanging sensitive data.
  3. Use negotiated IKE/IPsec proposals with matching identities and selectors, and enable appropriate UDP encapsulation when NAT disrupts ESP carriage.
  4. Triage software vulnerabilities using version applicability, exploit exposure, available remediation, and business impact alongside published CVE and CVSS data.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Validate peer identity with a trusted certificate chain, correct hostname, certificate validity, and appropriate TLS policy before exchanging sensitive data. This control addresses the failure mechanism and narrows the enforcement boundary. Encryption without authenticated identity does not rule out interception; certificates bind a public key to a verified name under a trust chain. Confirm pre-change conditions using: Inspect server certificate SAN, chain trust, expiry and revocation status, negotiated protocol, and handshake errors. Situation: An internal API returns a certificate for another hostname after a load-balancer migration.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Constrain compromised API credentials through scoped permissions, rotation, behavior alerts, and incident review rather than assuming encrypted transport prevents misuse. This response applies to Cloud API breach and lateral movement, not the controlling requirement in this case. Encryption in transit protects a channel but does not limit an authorized-looking API request carrying a stolen bearer token. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Validate peer identity with a trusted certificate chain, correct hostname, certificate validity, and appropriate TLS policy before exchanging sensitive data. Situation: An internal API returns a certificate for another hostname after a load-balancer migration.

C:

Use negotiated IKE/IPsec proposals with matching identities and selectors, and enable appropriate UDP encapsulation when NAT disrupts ESP carriage. This response applies to IPsec IKE and NAT traversal, not the controlling requirement in this case. NAT traversal commonly encapsulates ESP over UDP 4500; a successful IKE handshake alone does not prove data-plane IPsec traffic passes. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Validate peer identity with a trusted certificate chain, correct hostname, certificate validity, and appropriate TLS policy before exchanging sensitive data. Situation: An internal API returns a certificate for another hostname after a load-balancer migration.

D:

Triage software vulnerabilities using version applicability, exploit exposure, available remediation, and business impact alongside published CVE and CVSS data. This response applies to CVE and CVSS vulnerability prioritization, not the controlling requirement in this case. A CVE identifies a disclosed issue and CVSS summarizes severity characteristics; neither alone proves exposure or exploitation of a particular asset. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Validate peer identity with a trusted certificate chain, correct hostname, certificate validity, and appropriate TLS policy before exchanging sensitive data. Situation: An internal API returns a certificate for another hostname after a load-balancer migration.

Question 735

An investigator compares two similar-looking domains and needs lexical and traffic-based reasons for one higher risk rating. Which observed result BEST confirms that the security requirement is met?

  1. An approved web app remains reachable while a test prohibited destination produces an attributable deny event.
  2. A staged confidential dataset upload triggers the intended block or review while benign business uploads do not cause excess false positives.
  3. A suspicious destination is associated with affected users and a tested response without sweeping unrelated shared cloud infrastructure.
  4. High-risk destinations receive contextual response while low-risk but confirmed malicious domains are not automatically ignored.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

High-risk destinations receive contextual response while low-risk but confirmed malicious domains are not automatically ignored. This is an observable acceptance condition, rather than an assumption that enabling a feature alone proves security. Cisco Secure Access Investigate risk scores combine indicators; a score is decision support and not a sole definitive compromise verdict. Situation: An investigator compares two similar-looking domains and needs lexical and traffic-based reasons for one higher risk rating.

Incorrect Answers

A:

An approved web app remains reachable while a test prohibited destination produces an attributable deny event. This outcome tests Cisco Secure Access internet use policy and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: High-risk destinations receive contextual response while low-risk but confirmed malicious domains are not automatically ignored. Situation: An investigator compares two similar-looking domains and needs lexical and traffic-based reasons for one higher risk rating.

B:

A staged confidential dataset upload triggers the intended block or review while benign business uploads do not cause excess false positives. This outcome tests Cloud DLP sensitive upload policy and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: High-risk destinations receive contextual response while low-risk but confirmed malicious domains are not automatically ignored. Situation: An investigator compares two similar-looking domains and needs lexical and traffic-based reasons for one higher risk rating.

C:

A suspicious destination is associated with affected users and a tested response without sweeping unrelated shared cloud infrastructure. This outcome tests Investigate infrastructure attribution and false positives and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: High-risk destinations receive contextual response while low-risk but confirmed malicious domains are not automatically ignored. Situation: An investigator compares two similar-looking domains and needs lexical and traffic-based reasons for one higher risk rating.

Question 736

A help desk sees a healthy Secure Client tray icon and assumes malware or DNS protections are enabled without checking modules. Which Cisco security control or operational response BEST addresses the stated need?

  1. Scope endpoint detection exclusions narrowly and verify business application behavior after updates without disabling broad antimalware protections.
  2. Use supported Cisco Secure Malware Analytics sandbox assessment to investigate suspicious files while distinguishing dynamic analysis from known-good reputation.
  3. Deploy appropriate Cisco Secure Client modules for supported connectivity and endpoint posture requirements and verify the component state.
  4. Evaluate endpoint security posture before authorizing sensitive network access and establish a restricted remediation path for failed devices.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Deploy appropriate Cisco Secure Client modules for supported connectivity and endpoint posture requirements and verify the component state. This control addresses the failure mechanism and narrows the enforcement boundary. Secure Client is a modular endpoint platform; enabling a VPN tunnel does not automatically mean all security modules or postures are active. Confirm pre-change conditions using: Inspect installed modules, version compatibility, connector status, management profile, and identity mapping. Situation: A help desk sees a healthy Secure Client tray icon and assumes malware or DNS protections are enabled without checking modules.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Scope endpoint detection exclusions narrowly and verify business application behavior after updates without disabling broad antimalware protections. This response applies to Secure Endpoint response exclusions and policy safety, not the controlling requirement in this case. Broad folder or process exclusions can create lasting blind spots; false-positive tuning requires evidence and defined review dates. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Deploy appropriate Cisco Secure Client modules for supported connectivity and endpoint posture requirements and verify the component state. Situation: A help desk sees a healthy Secure Client tray icon and assumes malware or DNS protections are enabled without checking modules.

B:

Use supported Cisco Secure Malware Analytics sandbox assessment to investigate suspicious files while distinguishing dynamic analysis from known-good reputation. This response applies to Cisco Secure Malware Analytics detonation evidence, not the controlling requirement in this case. Sandbox dynamic analysis records execution behavior in a controlled environment; a clean result cannot prove every variant is harmless. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Deploy appropriate Cisco Secure Client modules for supported connectivity and endpoint posture requirements and verify the component state. Situation: A help desk sees a healthy Secure Client tray icon and assumes malware or DNS protections are enabled without checking modules.

D:

Evaluate endpoint security posture before authorizing sensitive network access and establish a restricted remediation path for failed devices. This response applies to Posture check before network access, not the controlling requirement in this case. Posture is device health evidence used in policy; authentication alone does not guarantee an endpoint meets security baseline. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Deploy appropriate Cisco Secure Client modules for supported connectivity and endpoint posture requirements and verify the component state. Situation: A help desk sees a healthy Secure Client tray icon and assumes malware or DNS protections are enabled without checking modules.

Question 737

A new FTD rule allows a web application but no intrusion policy is applied and exploit attempts receive no IPS events. Which observed result BEST confirms that the security requirement is met?

  1. A simulated sensor failure follows the approved availability policy and exploit test traffic is blocked only when inspection is actually inline.
  2. An unauthorized host cannot query network inventory while approved monitoring obtains the required counters over protected access.
  3. Intended application traffic matches a narrow allow rule and unauthorized flows are denied with traceable evidence.
  4. Tested exploit traffic is detected or blocked by the configured policy while legitimate services remain available.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Tested exploit traffic is detected or blocked by the configured policy while legitimate services remain available. This is an observable acceptance condition, rather than an assumption that enabling a feature alone proves security. A network allow decision alone does not guarantee intrusion inspection; relevant inline policy and traffic visibility must be enabled. Situation: A new FTD rule allows a web application but no intrusion policy is applied and exploit attempts receive no IPS events.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A simulated sensor failure follows the approved availability policy and exploit test traffic is blocked only when inspection is actually inline. This outcome tests Inline IPS availability and bypass behavior and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: Tested exploit traffic is detected or blocked by the configured policy while legitimate services remain available. Situation: A new FTD rule allows a web application but no intrusion policy is applied and exploit attempts receive no IPS events.

B:

An unauthorized host cannot query network inventory while approved monitoring obtains the required counters over protected access. This outcome tests SNMPv3 authenticated encrypted polling and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: Tested exploit traffic is detected or blocked by the configured policy while legitimate services remain available. Situation: A new FTD rule allows a web application but no intrusion policy is applied and exploit attempts receive no IPS events.

C:

Intended application traffic matches a narrow allow rule and unauthorized flows are denied with traceable evidence. This outcome tests FTD access control rule ordering and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: Tested exploit traffic is detected or blocked by the configured policy while legitimate services remain available. Situation: A new FTD rule allows a web application but no intrusion policy is applied and exploit attempts receive no IPS events.

Question 738

An IPS signature blocks a legitimate vendor protocol after a ruleset update and the team needs a scoped tuning decision. Which Cisco security control or operational response BEST addresses the stated need?

  1. Limit administrative exposure, authenticate routing and management where supported, and protect control-plane resources against abuse.
  2. Trace RADIUS network-access request and decision paths to isolate credential, shared secret, policy, or reachability failures.
  3. Associate an appropriate intrusion and file policy with the relevant FTD traffic rule, then tune detection against validated test cases.
  4. Implement Cisco Secure Firewall access control policy with explicit zone, address, application, and rule-order scope, logging decisions at relevant boundaries.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Associate an appropriate intrusion and file policy with the relevant FTD traffic rule, then tune detection against validated test cases. This control addresses the failure mechanism and narrows the enforcement boundary. A network allow decision alone does not guarantee intrusion inspection; relevant inline policy and traffic visibility must be enabled. Confirm pre-change conditions using: Inspect access-rule association, intrusion policy, detection events, file reputation, TLS visibility, and false-positive evidence. Situation: An IPS signature blocks a legitimate vendor protocol after a ruleset update and the team needs a scoped tuning decision.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Limit administrative exposure, authenticate routing and management where supported, and protect control-plane resources against abuse. This response applies to Router control plane and management isolation, not the controlling requirement in this case. A network device has distinct control, data, and management planes; each requires separate scoped protection. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Associate an appropriate intrusion and file policy with the relevant FTD traffic rule, then tune detection against validated test cases. Situation: An IPS signature blocks a legitimate vendor protocol after a ruleset update and the team needs a scoped tuning decision.

B:

Trace RADIUS network-access request and decision paths to isolate credential, shared secret, policy, or reachability failures. This response applies to RADIUS network access troubleshooting, not the controlling requirement in this case. RADIUS typically supports network access control and policy attributes; network reachability, policy, and EAP trust must be checked independently. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Associate an appropriate intrusion and file policy with the relevant FTD traffic rule, then tune detection against validated test cases. Situation: An IPS signature blocks a legitimate vendor protocol after a ruleset update and the team needs a scoped tuning decision.

D:

Implement Cisco Secure Firewall access control policy with explicit zone, address, application, and rule-order scope, logging decisions at relevant boundaries. This response applies to FTD access control rule ordering, not the controlling requirement in this case. Access control rules are evaluated according to platform policy order and conditions; an overly broad early allow can shadow later restrictions. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Associate an appropriate intrusion and file policy with the relevant FTD traffic rule, then tune detection against validated test cases. Situation: An IPS signature blocks a legitimate vendor protocol after a ruleset update and the team needs a scoped tuning decision.

Question 739

A firewall hardening audit flags unnecessary services but the team has no record of approved management requirements. Before changing security policy, what evidence should the engineer examine FIRST?

  1. Inspect source/destination tuples, flow duration, byte counts, exporters, collector receipt, and sampling configuration.
  2. Inspect device version, benchmark applicability, privileged account policies, enabled services, management exposure, and exception approvals.
  3. Inspect SNMP user groups, auth/priv settings, engine IDs, management ACLs, and failed polling logs.
  4. Review VTY/SSH configuration, management VRFs or ACLs, CoPP policy, routing adjacencies, and logging paths.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Inspect device version, benchmark applicability, privileged account policies, enabled services, management exposure, and exception approvals. This checks the relevant condition before an engineer modifies production access or detection behavior. Security benchmarks are version-specific prescriptive baselines; blindly applying all recommendations without operational review can disrupt required services. The controlled response would be: Compare running Cisco IOS XE or Secure Firewall settings to an applicable CIS benchmark, document justified exceptions, and remediate deviations. Situation: A firewall hardening audit flags unnecessary services but the team has no record of approved management requirements.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect source/destination tuples, flow duration, byte counts, exporters, collector receipt, and sampling configuration. This evidence addresses NetFlow and telemetry flow analysis; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect device version, benchmark applicability, privileged account policies, enabled services, management exposure, and exception approvals. Situation: A firewall hardening audit flags unnecessary services but the team has no record of approved management requirements.

C:

Inspect SNMP user groups, auth/priv settings, engine IDs, management ACLs, and failed polling logs. This evidence addresses SNMPv3 authenticated encrypted polling; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect device version, benchmark applicability, privileged account policies, enabled services, management exposure, and exception approvals. Situation: A firewall hardening audit flags unnecessary services but the team has no record of approved management requirements.

D:

Review VTY/SSH configuration, management VRFs or ACLs, CoPP policy, routing adjacencies, and logging paths. This evidence addresses Router control plane and management isolation; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect device version, benchmark applicability, privileged account policies, enabled services, management exposure, and exception approvals. Situation: A firewall hardening audit flags unnecessary services but the team has no record of approved management requirements.

Question 740

Two branches establish IKE security associations but pass no traffic after a new upstream address-translating router is installed. Before changing security policy, what evidence should the engineer examine FIRST?

  1. Inspect IKE proposal mismatches, pre-shared or certificate identity, UDP 500 or 4500 reachability, NAT detection, and phase negotiation logs.
  2. Inspect embedding source sets, package provenance, vector index tenant filters, model artifacts, and integrity-check history.
  3. Inspect server certificate SAN, chain trust, expiry and revocation status, negotiated protocol, and handshake errors.
  4. Inspect site prefix growth, routing requirements, traffic selectors, tunnel-interface support, and failover paths.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Inspect IKE proposal mismatches, pre-shared or certificate identity, UDP 500 or 4500 reachability, NAT detection, and phase negotiation logs. This checks the relevant condition before an engineer modifies production access or detection behavior. NAT traversal commonly encapsulates ESP over UDP 4500; a successful IKE handshake alone does not prove data-plane IPsec traffic passes. The controlled response would be: Use negotiated IKE/IPsec proposals with matching identities and selectors, and enable appropriate UDP encapsulation when NAT disrupts ESP carriage. Situation: Two branches establish IKE security associations but pass no traffic after a new upstream address-translating router is installed.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Inspect embedding source sets, package provenance, vector index tenant filters, model artifacts, and integrity-check history. This evidence addresses Embedding and model supply chain risk; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect IKE proposal mismatches, pre-shared or certificate identity, UDP 500 or 4500 reachability, NAT detection, and phase negotiation logs. Situation: Two branches establish IKE security associations but pass no traffic after a new upstream address-translating router is installed.

C:

Inspect server certificate SAN, chain trust, expiry and revocation status, negotiated protocol, and handshake errors. This evidence addresses TLS certificate authentication and PKI; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect IKE proposal mismatches, pre-shared or certificate identity, UDP 500 or 4500 reachability, NAT detection, and phase negotiation logs. Situation: Two branches establish IKE security associations but pass no traffic after a new upstream address-translating router is installed.

D:

Inspect site prefix growth, routing requirements, traffic selectors, tunnel-interface support, and failover paths. This evidence addresses Route-based versus policy-based VPN design; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect IKE proposal mismatches, pre-shared or certificate identity, UDP 500 or 4500 reachability, NAT detection, and phase negotiation logs. Situation: Two branches establish IKE security associations but pass no traffic after a new upstream address-translating router is installed.

Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies (350-701) Practice Tests