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Cisco 350-701 Practice Test 53

Question 520

A newly deployed SNMPv3 user can authenticate but privacy negotiation fails after the device cipher settings change. Which TWO complementary steps provide the most defensible remediation and its supporting assessment? Select TWO.

  1. A simulated sensor failure follows the approved availability policy and exploit test traffic is blocked only when inspection is actually inline.
  2. Protect programmable device management with authenticated endpoints, transport encryption, role authorization, and change transaction logging.
  3. Inspect bidirectional security association counters, packet traces, NAT policy, route selection, and remote selectors.
  4. Inspect SNMP user groups, auth/priv settings, engine IDs, management ACLs, and failed polling logs.
  5. Use SNMPv3 with authentication and privacy where appropriate and restrict agents to approved management sources and read views.

Explanation

Correct Answers

D:

Inspect SNMP user groups, auth/priv settings, engine IDs, management ACLs, and failed polling logs. This checks the relevant condition before an engineer modifies production access or detection behavior. SNMPv3 supports integrity and encryption for management queries when authPriv is configured; SNMPv1 community strings do not provide equivalent protection. The controlled response would be: Use SNMPv3 with authentication and privacy where appropriate and restrict agents to approved management sources and read views. This supplies the diagnostic evidence needed for the complementary action. Situation: A newly deployed SNMPv3 user can authenticate but privacy negotiation fails after the device cipher settings change.

E:

Use SNMPv3 with authentication and privacy where appropriate and restrict agents to approved management sources and read views. This control addresses the failure mechanism and narrows the enforcement boundary. SNMPv3 supports integrity and encryption for management queries when authPriv is configured; SNMPv1 community strings do not provide equivalent protection. Confirm pre-change conditions using: Inspect SNMP user groups, auth/priv settings, engine IDs, management ACLs, and failed polling logs. This is the implementation portion of the complementary pair. Situation: A newly deployed SNMPv3 user can authenticate but privacy negotiation fails after the device cipher settings change.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A simulated sensor failure follows the approved availability policy and exploit test traffic is blocked only when inspection is actually inline. This step could matter for Inline IPS availability and bypass behavior but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Use SNMPv3 with authentication and privacy where appropriate and restrict agents to approved management sources and read views. and Inspect SNMP user groups, auth/priv settings, engine IDs, management ACLs, and failed polling logs. Situation: A newly deployed SNMPv3 user can authenticate but privacy negotiation fails after the device cipher settings change.

B:

Protect programmable device management with authenticated endpoints, transport encryption, role authorization, and change transaction logging. This step could matter for NETCONF RESTCONF and API management security but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Use SNMPv3 with authentication and privacy where appropriate and restrict agents to approved management sources and read views. and Inspect SNMP user groups, auth/priv settings, engine IDs, management ACLs, and failed polling logs. Situation: A newly deployed SNMPv3 user can authenticate but privacy negotiation fails after the device cipher settings change.

C:

Inspect bidirectional security association counters, packet traces, NAT policy, route selection, and remote selectors. This step could matter for FTD VPN up but no protected data but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Use SNMPv3 with authentication and privacy where appropriate and restrict agents to approved management sources and read views. and Inspect SNMP user groups, auth/priv settings, engine IDs, management ACLs, and failed polling logs. Situation: A newly deployed SNMPv3 user can authenticate but privacy negotiation fails after the device cipher settings change.

Question 521

A RESTCONF update returns an error after a malformed YANG payload yet the script reports success. Which observed result BEST confirms that the security requirement is met?

  1. Configuration findings map to auditable benchmark controls and critical deviations are corrected without assuming every default is compliant.
  2. Untrusted networks cannot reach device administration and high-volume control traffic does not overwhelm protocol stability.
  3. An authorized automation client commits only permitted device changes and unauthorized API operations fail without modifying running state.
  4. An unauthorized host cannot query network inventory while approved monitoring obtains the required counters over protected access.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

An authorized automation client commits only permitted device changes and unauthorized API operations fail without modifying running state. This is an observable acceptance condition, rather than an assumption that enabling a feature alone proves security. Programmable interfaces are management planes with security obligations comparable to CLI access; enabling RESTCONF does not itself validate an automation request. Situation: A RESTCONF update returns an error after a malformed YANG payload yet the script reports success.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Configuration findings map to auditable benchmark controls and critical deviations are corrected without assuming every default is compliant. This outcome tests CIS device configuration baseline assessment and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: An authorized automation client commits only permitted device changes and unauthorized API operations fail without modifying running state. Situation: A RESTCONF update returns an error after a malformed YANG payload yet the script reports success.

B:

Untrusted networks cannot reach device administration and high-volume control traffic does not overwhelm protocol stability. This outcome tests Router control plane and management isolation and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: An authorized automation client commits only permitted device changes and unauthorized API operations fail without modifying running state. Situation: A RESTCONF update returns an error after a malformed YANG payload yet the script reports success.

D:

An unauthorized host cannot query network inventory while approved monitoring obtains the required counters over protected access. This outcome tests SNMPv3 authenticated encrypted polling and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: An authorized automation client commits only permitted device changes and unauthorized API operations fail without modifying running state. Situation: A RESTCONF update returns an error after a malformed YANG payload yet the script reports success.

Question 522

A browser warns about a malicious shortlink yet workers repeatedly enter corporate credentials after clicking it. Which TWO complementary steps provide the most defensible remediation and its supporting assessment? Select TWO.

  1. Verify payment or access-change requests through an independently established channel and enforce dual approval for high-impact changes.
  2. Protected traffic crosses the tunnel with authenticated peers and encrypted data even behind the intended NAT device.
  3. Inspect indicator type, observed confidence, publication time, false-positive records, allowed consumers, and expiration logic.
  4. Inspect phishing URL redirects, domain registration context, email authentication outcomes, clicked-user telemetry, and current block rules.
  5. Combine suspicious message reporting, web destination inspection, reputation controls, and user training with enforceable authentication policies.

Explanation

Correct Answers

D:

Inspect phishing URL redirects, domain registration context, email authentication outcomes, clicked-user telemetry, and current block rules. This checks the relevant condition before an engineer modifies production access or detection behavior. A secure email channel and DNS/web controls reduce exposure but cannot certify that every newly registered domain is benign. The controlled response would be: Combine suspicious message reporting, web destination inspection, reputation controls, and user training with enforceable authentication policies. This supplies the diagnostic evidence needed for the complementary action. Situation: A browser warns about a malicious shortlink yet workers repeatedly enter corporate credentials after clicking it.

E:

Combine suspicious message reporting, web destination inspection, reputation controls, and user training with enforceable authentication policies. This control addresses the failure mechanism and narrows the enforcement boundary. A secure email channel and DNS/web controls reduce exposure but cannot certify that every newly registered domain is benign. Confirm pre-change conditions using: Inspect phishing URL redirects, domain registration context, email authentication outcomes, clicked-user telemetry, and current block rules. This is the implementation portion of the complementary pair. Situation: A browser warns about a malicious shortlink yet workers repeatedly enter corporate credentials after clicking it.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Verify payment or access-change requests through an independently established channel and enforce dual approval for high-impact changes. This step could matter for Business email compromise verification but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Combine suspicious message reporting, web destination inspection, reputation controls, and user training with enforceable authentication policies. and Inspect phishing URL redirects, domain registration context, email authentication outcomes, clicked-user telemetry, and current block rules. Situation: A browser warns about a malicious shortlink yet workers repeatedly enter corporate credentials after clicking it.

B:

Protected traffic crosses the tunnel with authenticated peers and encrypted data even behind the intended NAT device. This step could matter for IPsec IKE and NAT traversal but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Combine suspicious message reporting, web destination inspection, reputation controls, and user training with enforceable authentication policies. and Inspect phishing URL redirects, domain registration context, email authentication outcomes, clicked-user telemetry, and current block rules. Situation: A browser warns about a malicious shortlink yet workers repeatedly enter corporate credentials after clicking it.

C:

Inspect indicator type, observed confidence, publication time, false-positive records, allowed consumers, and expiration logic. This step could matter for Threat intelligence indicator lifecycle but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Combine suspicious message reporting, web destination inspection, reputation controls, and user training with enforceable authentication policies. and Inspect phishing URL redirects, domain registration context, email authentication outcomes, clicked-user telemetry, and current block rules. Situation: A browser warns about a malicious shortlink yet workers repeatedly enter corporate credentials after clicking it.

Question 523

A SOC has duplicate firewall and endpoint alerts that create separate tickets instead of one prioritized incident. Which observed result BEST confirms that the security requirement is met?

  1. A test high-confidence threat generates one attributable case and a documented approved response without duplicate unsafe playbook actions.
  2. A device that fails posture moves to remediation or disconnects under the updated policy without requiring a full network restart.
  3. Only endpoints meeting the approved compliance baseline access protected networks and exceptions are time bounded.
  4. Guests obtain only appropriate internet access while enrolled employees reach approved internal applications under auditable policy.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

A test high-confidence threat generates one attributable case and a documented approved response without duplicate unsafe playbook actions. This is an observable acceptance condition, rather than an assumption that enabling a feature alone proves security. Orchestration connects event evidence to repeatable response, but logs and playbook execution require separation of detection confidence and authorization. Situation: A SOC has duplicate firewall and endpoint alerts that create separate tickets instead of one prioritized incident.

Incorrect Answers

B:

A device that fails posture moves to remediation or disconnects under the updated policy without requiring a full network restart. This outcome tests CoA session reauthorization by Cisco ISE and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: A test high-confidence threat generates one attributable case and a documented approved response without duplicate unsafe playbook actions. Situation: A SOC has duplicate firewall and endpoint alerts that create separate tickets instead of one prioritized incident.

C:

Only endpoints meeting the approved compliance baseline access protected networks and exceptions are time bounded. This outcome tests Endpoint application compliance and risk-based access and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: A test high-confidence threat generates one attributable case and a documented approved response without duplicate unsafe playbook actions. Situation: A SOC has duplicate firewall and endpoint alerts that create separate tickets instead of one prioritized incident.

D:

Guests obtain only appropriate internet access while enrolled employees reach approved internal applications under auditable policy. This outcome tests Cisco ISE guest and BYOD identity policies and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: A test high-confidence threat generates one attributable case and a documented approved response without duplicate unsafe playbook actions. Situation: A SOC has duplicate firewall and endpoint alerts that create separate tickets instead of one prioritized incident.

Question 524

A VPN path is stable for one protected prefix but fails for a second network absent from the remote configuration. Which Cisco security control or operational response BEST addresses the stated need?

  1. Use Dynamic ARP Inspection with reliable IP-to-MAC bindings to reject forged ARP claims on untrusted access interfaces.
  2. Diagnose VPN setup failures in phase order by comparing peer reachability, authentication identities, and mutually supported IKE and IPsec proposals.
  3. Trace FTD VPN encryption/decryption counters, routes, NAT exemptions, and ACL matching when IKE is up but applications fail.
  4. Implement Cisco Secure Firewall access control policy with explicit zone, address, application, and rule-order scope, logging decisions at relevant boundaries.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Trace FTD VPN encryption/decryption counters, routes, NAT exemptions, and ACL matching when IKE is up but applications fail. This control addresses the failure mechanism and narrows the enforcement boundary. IKE-up status validates part of the control plane; the protected data plane requires matching routes, selectors, and NAT behavior. Confirm pre-change conditions using: Inspect bidirectional security association counters, packet traces, NAT policy, route selection, and remote selectors. Situation: A VPN path is stable for one protected prefix but fails for a second network absent from the remote configuration.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Use Dynamic ARP Inspection with reliable IP-to-MAC bindings to reject forged ARP claims on untrusted access interfaces. This response applies to Dynamic ARP inspection and spoofed gateway, not the controlling requirement in this case. DAI relies on trustworthy binding information; enabling inspection without handling static addressing can interrupt legitimate users. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Trace FTD VPN encryption/decryption counters, routes, NAT exemptions, and ACL matching when IKE is up but applications fail. Situation: A VPN path is stable for one protected prefix but fails for a second network absent from the remote configuration.

B:

Diagnose VPN setup failures in phase order by comparing peer reachability, authentication identities, and mutually supported IKE and IPsec proposals. This response applies to FTD IKE negotiation failure isolation, not the controlling requirement in this case. Tunnel establishment progresses through distinct authentication and negotiation stages; changing unrelated firewall rules cannot fix mismatched proposals. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Trace FTD VPN encryption/decryption counters, routes, NAT exemptions, and ACL matching when IKE is up but applications fail. Situation: A VPN path is stable for one protected prefix but fails for a second network absent from the remote configuration.

D:

Implement Cisco Secure Firewall access control policy with explicit zone, address, application, and rule-order scope, logging decisions at relevant boundaries. This response applies to FTD access control rule ordering, not the controlling requirement in this case. Access control rules are evaluated according to platform policy order and conditions; an overly broad early allow can shadow later restrictions. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Trace FTD VPN encryption/decryption counters, routes, NAT exemptions, and ACL matching when IKE is up but applications fail. Situation: A VPN path is stable for one protected prefix but fails for a second network absent from the remote configuration.

Question 525

A hospital allows clinical domains but an overbroad URL category exception also permits personal file-sharing websites. Which observed result BEST confirms that the security requirement is met?

  1. Unapproved categories or applications are denied while required business services match the intended allow criteria.
  2. Tested exploit traffic is detected or blocked by the configured policy while legitimate services remain available.
  3. Approved branch traffic traverses the encrypted tunnel and response packets return through the selected protected path.
  4. An engineer logs in successfully but forbidden configuration commands are denied and recorded for review.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Unapproved categories or applications are denied while required business services match the intended allow criteria. This is an observable acceptance condition, rather than an assumption that enabling a feature alone proves security. An IP address alone may host many services; application or URL inspection adds context but must have sufficient visibility to classify traffic. Situation: A hospital allows clinical domains but an overbroad URL category exception also permits personal file-sharing websites.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Tested exploit traffic is detected or blocked by the configured policy while legitimate services remain available. This outcome tests FTD intrusion policy and malware detection and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: Unapproved categories or applications are denied while required business services match the intended allow criteria. Situation: A hospital allows clinical domains but an overbroad URL category exception also permits personal file-sharing websites.

C:

Approved branch traffic traverses the encrypted tunnel and response packets return through the selected protected path. This outcome tests FTD site-to-site VPN crypto policy and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: Unapproved categories or applications are denied while required business services match the intended allow criteria. Situation: A hospital allows clinical domains but an overbroad URL category exception also permits personal file-sharing websites.

D:

An engineer logs in successfully but forbidden configuration commands are denied and recorded for review. This outcome tests TACACS+ administration authorization and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: Unapproved categories or applications are denied while required business services match the intended allow criteria. Situation: A hospital allows clinical domains but an overbroad URL category exception also permits personal file-sharing websites.

Question 526

A newly published flaw affects a specific library version but inventory cannot confirm whether production uses it. Before changing security policy, what evidence should the engineer examine FIRST?

  1. Inspect embedding source sets, package provenance, vector index tenant filters, model artifacts, and integrity-check history.
  2. Inspect browser rendering contexts, state-changing HTTP endpoints, session cookie attributes, and request verification tokens.
  3. Review asset versions, affected component evidence, external reachability, exploit preconditions, compensating controls, and vendor advisories.
  4. Inspect server certificate SAN, chain trust, expiry and revocation status, negotiated protocol, and handshake errors.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Review asset versions, affected component evidence, external reachability, exploit preconditions, compensating controls, and vendor advisories. This checks the relevant condition before an engineer modifies production access or detection behavior. A CVE identifies a disclosed issue and CVSS summarizes severity characteristics; neither alone proves exposure or exploitation of a particular asset. The controlled response would be: Triage software vulnerabilities using version applicability, exploit exposure, available remediation, and business impact alongside published CVE and CVSS data. Situation: A newly published flaw affects a specific library version but inventory cannot confirm whether production uses it.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect embedding source sets, package provenance, vector index tenant filters, model artifacts, and integrity-check history. This evidence addresses Embedding and model supply chain risk; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Review asset versions, affected component evidence, external reachability, exploit preconditions, compensating controls, and vendor advisories. Situation: A newly published flaw affects a specific library version but inventory cannot confirm whether production uses it.

B:

Inspect browser rendering contexts, state-changing HTTP endpoints, session cookie attributes, and request verification tokens. This evidence addresses Web injection and request forgery; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Review asset versions, affected component evidence, external reachability, exploit preconditions, compensating controls, and vendor advisories. Situation: A newly published flaw affects a specific library version but inventory cannot confirm whether production uses it.

D:

Inspect server certificate SAN, chain trust, expiry and revocation status, negotiated protocol, and handshake errors. This evidence addresses TLS certificate authentication and PKI; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Review asset versions, affected component evidence, external reachability, exploit preconditions, compensating controls, and vendor advisories. Situation: A newly published flaw affects a specific library version but inventory cannot confirm whether production uses it.

Question 527

A company migrates virtual machines to IaaS and assumes the cloud vendor will patch every guest operating system. Which observed result BEST confirms that the security requirement is met?

  1. A control checklist identifies responsible teams for patching, identities, configuration, and data even when underlying infrastructure is provider managed.
  2. A compromised workload identity cannot delete unrelated assets and changes are attributable to an approved actor.
  3. A changed unsigned image or privileged unexpected workload is blocked from the approved deployment process.
  4. A critical vulnerable dependency blocks promotion and approved remediation produces an auditable releasable artifact.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

A control checklist identifies responsible teams for patching, identities, configuration, and data even when underlying infrastructure is provider managed. This is an observable acceptance condition, rather than an assumption that enabling a feature alone proves security. Cloud providers secure their portion of the stack, but moving an application to SaaS does not eliminate the customer's identity and data obligations. Situation: A company migrates virtual machines to IaaS and assumes the cloud vendor will patch every guest operating system.

Incorrect Answers

B:

A compromised workload identity cannot delete unrelated assets and changes are attributable to an approved actor. This outcome tests Cloud IAM least privilege and logging and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: A control checklist identifies responsible teams for patching, identities, configuration, and data even when underlying infrastructure is provider managed. Situation: A company migrates virtual machines to IaaS and assumes the cloud vendor will patch every guest operating system.

C:

A changed unsigned image or privileged unexpected workload is blocked from the approved deployment process. This outcome tests Container workload identity and image governance and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: A control checklist identifies responsible teams for patching, identities, configuration, and data even when underlying infrastructure is provider managed. Situation: A company migrates virtual machines to IaaS and assumes the cloud vendor will patch every guest operating system.

D:

A critical vulnerable dependency blocks promotion and approved remediation produces an auditable releasable artifact. This outcome tests CI CD container and application security lifecycle and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: A control checklist identifies responsible teams for patching, identities, configuration, and data even when underlying infrastructure is provider managed. Situation: A company migrates virtual machines to IaaS and assumes the cloud vendor will patch every guest operating system.

Question 528

A critical server shows active suspicious child processes while several desktops report blocked benign test files. Which TWO complementary steps provide the most defensible remediation and its supporting assessment? Select TWO.

  1. Inspect endpoint groups, policy assignment, connector state, disposition settings, exclusions, and event history.
  2. Interpret Cisco Secure Endpoint detection events using file, process, device, event time, and connected-host context before declaring an infection scope.
  3. Approved endpoint protection components report the expected state and client connectivity reflects configured enterprise policy.
  4. Prioritize Secure Endpoint alerts by severity, current host risk, file action, correlated detections, and business criticality.
  5. Inspect disposition change, prevalence, isolation status, affected host roles, event sequence, and unresolved detections.

Explanation

Correct Answers

D:

Prioritize Secure Endpoint alerts by severity, current host risk, file action, correlated detections, and business criticality. This control addresses the failure mechanism and narrows the enforcement boundary. Alert counts alone do not establish incident severity; containment status and evidence of active execution change urgency. Confirm pre-change conditions using: Inspect disposition change, prevalence, isolation status, affected host roles, event sequence, and unresolved detections. This is the implementation portion of the complementary pair. Situation: A critical server shows active suspicious child processes while several desktops report blocked benign test files.

E:

Inspect disposition change, prevalence, isolation status, affected host roles, event sequence, and unresolved detections. This checks the relevant condition before an engineer modifies production access or detection behavior. Alert counts alone do not establish incident severity; containment status and evidence of active execution change urgency. The controlled response would be: Prioritize Secure Endpoint alerts by severity, current host risk, file action, correlated detections, and business criticality. This supplies the diagnostic evidence needed for the complementary action. Situation: A critical server shows active suspicious child processes while several desktops report blocked benign test files.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect endpoint groups, policy assignment, connector state, disposition settings, exclusions, and event history. This step could matter for Cisco Secure Endpoint antimalware policy but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Prioritize Secure Endpoint alerts by severity, current host risk, file action, correlated detections, and business criticality. and Inspect disposition change, prevalence, isolation status, affected host roles, event sequence, and unresolved detections. Situation: A critical server shows active suspicious child processes while several desktops report blocked benign test files.

B:

Interpret Cisco Secure Endpoint detection events using file, process, device, event time, and connected-host context before declaring an infection scope. This step could matter for Secure Endpoint detection event trajectory but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Prioritize Secure Endpoint alerts by severity, current host risk, file action, correlated detections, and business criticality. and Inspect disposition change, prevalence, isolation status, affected host roles, event sequence, and unresolved detections. Situation: A critical server shows active suspicious child processes while several desktops report blocked benign test files.

C:

Approved endpoint protection components report the expected state and client connectivity reflects configured enterprise policy. This step could matter for Cisco Secure Client module and posture visibility but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Prioritize Secure Endpoint alerts by severity, current host risk, file action, correlated detections, and business criticality. and Inspect disposition change, prevalence, isolation status, affected host roles, event sequence, and unresolved detections. Situation: A critical server shows active suspicious child processes while several desktops report blocked benign test files.

Question 529

A lobby user plugs in a router that begins handing out incorrect default gateways to nearby desks. Which TWO complementary steps provide the most defensible remediation and its supporting assessment? Select TWO.

  1. Inspect application detectors, URL category verdicts, rule conditions, encrypted-session visibility, and identity matches.
  2. Inspect VLAN enablement, trusted port design, binding table entries, DHCP offer sources, and port limits.
  3. Use Dynamic ARP Inspection with reliable IP-to-MAC bindings to reject forged ARP claims on untrusted access interfaces.
  4. Enable DHCP snooping on the supported switch VLANs and trust only intended DHCP-server-facing interfaces.
  5. An unusual high-volume conversation is identified with attributable endpoints without claiming NetFlow reveals complete application content.

Explanation

Correct Answers

B:

Inspect VLAN enablement, trusted port design, binding table entries, DHCP offer sources, and port limits. This checks the relevant condition before an engineer modifies production access or detection behavior. DHCP snooping distinguishes trusted DHCP infrastructure from untrusted access ports and creates bindings useful for other Layer 2 controls. The controlled response would be: Enable DHCP snooping on the supported switch VLANs and trust only intended DHCP-server-facing interfaces. This supplies the diagnostic evidence needed for the complementary action. Situation: A lobby user plugs in a router that begins handing out incorrect default gateways to nearby desks.

D:

Enable DHCP snooping on the supported switch VLANs and trust only intended DHCP-server-facing interfaces. This control addresses the failure mechanism and narrows the enforcement boundary. DHCP snooping distinguishes trusted DHCP infrastructure from untrusted access ports and creates bindings useful for other Layer 2 controls. Confirm pre-change conditions using: Inspect VLAN enablement, trusted port design, binding table entries, DHCP offer sources, and port limits. This is the implementation portion of the complementary pair. Situation: A lobby user plugs in a router that begins handing out incorrect default gateways to nearby desks.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect application detectors, URL category verdicts, rule conditions, encrypted-session visibility, and identity matches. This step could matter for Application visibility control and URL filtering but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Enable DHCP snooping on the supported switch VLANs and trust only intended DHCP-server-facing interfaces. and Inspect VLAN enablement, trusted port design, binding table entries, DHCP offer sources, and port limits. Situation: A lobby user plugs in a router that begins handing out incorrect default gateways to nearby desks.

C:

Use Dynamic ARP Inspection with reliable IP-to-MAC bindings to reject forged ARP claims on untrusted access interfaces. This step could matter for Dynamic ARP inspection and spoofed gateway but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Enable DHCP snooping on the supported switch VLANs and trust only intended DHCP-server-facing interfaces. and Inspect VLAN enablement, trusted port design, binding table entries, DHCP offer sources, and port limits. Situation: A lobby user plugs in a router that begins handing out incorrect default gateways to nearby desks.

E:

An unusual high-volume conversation is identified with attributable endpoints without claiming NetFlow reveals complete application content. This step could matter for NetFlow and telemetry flow analysis but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Enable DHCP snooping on the supported switch VLANs and trust only intended DHCP-server-facing interfaces. and Inspect VLAN enablement, trusted port design, binding table entries, DHCP offer sources, and port limits. Situation: A lobby user plugs in a router that begins handing out incorrect default gateways to nearby desks.

Question 530

A compliant device suddenly receives quarantine policy because ISE matches the wrong certificate identity store. Which TWO complementary steps provide the most defensible remediation and its supporting assessment? Select TWO.

  1. Enforce network access requirements for device OS, required security controls, and application compliance, with remediation for failures.
  2. Inspect issuing CA trust, certificate subject and EKU, expiry, device records, policy match, and failed EAP logs.
  3. Use certificates and role-aware policy to distinguish approved managed devices from unknown or noncompliant devices during network onboarding.
  4. Inspect current session identity, NAD CoA support and shared secret, ISE authorization change, and RADIUS live logs.
  5. An unauthorized sensitive export is detected and blocked or escalated while approved business uploads remain permitted.

Explanation

Correct Answers

B:

Inspect issuing CA trust, certificate subject and EKU, expiry, device records, policy match, and failed EAP logs. This checks the relevant condition before an engineer modifies production access or detection behavior. Device certificate authentication verifies a credential but does not on its own guarantee security software or configuration compliance. The controlled response would be: Use certificates and role-aware policy to distinguish approved managed devices from unknown or noncompliant devices during network onboarding. This supplies the diagnostic evidence needed for the complementary action. Situation: A compliant device suddenly receives quarantine policy because ISE matches the wrong certificate identity store.

C:

Use certificates and role-aware policy to distinguish approved managed devices from unknown or noncompliant devices during network onboarding. This control addresses the failure mechanism and narrows the enforcement boundary. Device certificate authentication verifies a credential but does not on its own guarantee security software or configuration compliance. Confirm pre-change conditions using: Inspect issuing CA trust, certificate subject and EKU, expiry, device records, policy match, and failed EAP logs. This is the implementation portion of the complementary pair. Situation: A compliant device suddenly receives quarantine policy because ISE matches the wrong certificate identity store.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Enforce network access requirements for device OS, required security controls, and application compliance, with remediation for failures. This step could matter for Endpoint application compliance and risk-based access but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Use certificates and role-aware policy to distinguish approved managed devices from unknown or noncompliant devices during network onboarding. and Inspect issuing CA trust, certificate subject and EKU, expiry, device records, policy match, and failed EAP logs. Situation: A compliant device suddenly receives quarantine policy because ISE matches the wrong certificate identity store.

D:

Inspect current session identity, NAD CoA support and shared secret, ISE authorization change, and RADIUS live logs. This step could matter for CoA session reauthorization by Cisco ISE but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Use certificates and role-aware policy to distinguish approved managed devices from unknown or noncompliant devices during network onboarding. and Inspect issuing CA trust, certificate subject and EKU, expiry, device records, policy match, and failed EAP logs. Situation: A compliant device suddenly receives quarantine policy because ISE matches the wrong certificate identity store.

E:

An unauthorized sensitive export is detected and blocked or escalated while approved business uploads remain permitted. This step could matter for HTTPS and cloud-storage exfiltration containment but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Use certificates and role-aware policy to distinguish approved managed devices from unknown or noncompliant devices during network onboarding. and Inspect issuing CA trust, certificate subject and EKU, expiry, device records, policy match, and failed EAP logs. Situation: A compliant device suddenly receives quarantine policy because ISE matches the wrong certificate identity store.

Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies (350-701) Practice Tests