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Cisco 350-701 Practice Test 34

Question 330

A ransomware indicator appears on a server and investigators need to trace the process that created suspicious files. Which Cisco security control or operational response BEST addresses the stated need?

  1. Use supported Cisco Secure Malware Analytics sandbox assessment to investigate suspicious files while distinguishing dynamic analysis from known-good reputation.
  2. Isolate high-risk endpoints using approved EDR response while preserving evidence and controlled paths for incident handling.
  3. Interpret Cisco Secure Endpoint detection events using file, process, device, event time, and connected-host context before declaring an infection scope.
  4. Prioritize Secure Endpoint alerts by severity, current host risk, file action, correlated detections, and business criticality.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Interpret Cisco Secure Endpoint detection events using file, process, device, event time, and connected-host context before declaring an infection scope. This control addresses the failure mechanism and narrows the enforcement boundary. An endpoint detection event records what the connector observed and did; a block, quarantine, detection, and retrospective verdict are distinct states. Confirm pre-change conditions using: Inspect file trajectory, device trajectory, hash reputation, user identity, process parentage, and action taken. Situation: A ransomware indicator appears on a server and investigators need to trace the process that created suspicious files.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Use supported Cisco Secure Malware Analytics sandbox assessment to investigate suspicious files while distinguishing dynamic analysis from known-good reputation. This response applies to Cisco Secure Malware Analytics detonation evidence, not the controlling requirement in this case. Sandbox dynamic analysis records execution behavior in a controlled environment; a clean result cannot prove every variant is harmless. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Interpret Cisco Secure Endpoint detection events using file, process, device, event time, and connected-host context before declaring an infection scope. Situation: A ransomware indicator appears on a server and investigators need to trace the process that created suspicious files.

B:

Isolate high-risk endpoints using approved EDR response while preserving evidence and controlled paths for incident handling. This response applies to Endpoint incident isolation and forensics, not the controlling requirement in this case. Endpoint isolation contains spread but can interrupt critical operations; response must balance urgency, containment scope, and evidence preservation. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Interpret Cisco Secure Endpoint detection events using file, process, device, event time, and connected-host context before declaring an infection scope. Situation: A ransomware indicator appears on a server and investigators need to trace the process that created suspicious files.

D:

Prioritize Secure Endpoint alerts by severity, current host risk, file action, correlated detections, and business criticality. This response applies to Endpoint malware event prioritization, not the controlling requirement in this case. Alert counts alone do not establish incident severity; containment status and evidence of active execution change urgency. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Interpret Cisco Secure Endpoint detection events using file, process, device, event time, and connected-host context before declaring an infection scope. Situation: A ransomware indicator appears on a server and investigators need to trace the process that created suspicious files.

Question 331

A cloud admin account signs in from an unfamiliar source and immediately grants broad storage access, but logs reside in separate indexes. Which observed result BEST confirms that the security requirement is met?

  1. A test cloud privilege escalation is detected with linked sign-in and API activity rather than isolated low-context alerts.
  2. Misconfigured public resources are detected and controlled while approved exceptions remain documented and reviewed.
  3. Required cloud audit events are searchable with accurate timestamps and identifiable source fields after ingestion.
  4. Workload process-to-network events are attributable without destabilizing the monitored host or overstating enforcement abilities.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

A test cloud privilege escalation is detected with linked sign-in and API activity rather than isolated low-context alerts. This is an observable acceptance condition, rather than an assumption that enabling a feature alone proves security. A SIEM correlation rule depends on reliable field extraction and shared identity context; large event counts alone do not equal threat detection. Situation: A cloud admin account signs in from an unfamiliar source and immediately grants broad storage access, but logs reside in separate indexes.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Misconfigured public resources are detected and controlled while approved exceptions remain documented and reviewed. This outcome tests Cloud security posture policy selection and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: A test cloud privilege escalation is detected with linked sign-in and API activity rather than isolated low-context alerts. Situation: A cloud admin account signs in from an unfamiliar source and immediately grants broad storage access, but logs reside in separate indexes.

C:

Required cloud audit events are searchable with accurate timestamps and identifiable source fields after ingestion. This outcome tests Splunk cloud source onboarding and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: A test cloud privilege escalation is detected with linked sign-in and API activity rather than isolated low-context alerts. Situation: A cloud admin account signs in from an unfamiliar source and immediately grants broad storage access, but logs reside in separate indexes.

D:

Workload process-to-network events are attributable without destabilizing the monitored host or overstating enforcement abilities. This outcome tests eBPF security telemetry scope and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: A test cloud privilege escalation is detected with linked sign-in and API activity rather than isolated low-context alerts. Situation: A cloud admin account signs in from an unfamiliar source and immediately grants broad storage access, but logs reside in separate indexes.

Question 332

A company migrates virtual machines to IaaS and assumes the cloud vendor will patch every guest operating system. Before changing security policy, what evidence should the engineer examine FIRST?

  1. Inspect cloud route tables, network attachment paths, traffic direction, security policy, and supported deployment scope.
  2. Inspect OAuth app grants, external collaboration settings, admin roles, account lifecycle, and cloud sharing audit logs.
  3. Inspect IAM bindings, service identity usage, key rotation records, cross-account trust, and cloud audit event delivery.
  4. Inspect provider service agreements, guest OS and application responsibilities, customer IAM, network settings, and data classification.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Inspect provider service agreements, guest OS and application responsibilities, customer IAM, network settings, and data classification. This checks the relevant condition before an engineer modifies production access or detection behavior. Cloud providers secure their portion of the stack, but moving an application to SaaS does not eliminate the customer's identity and data obligations. The controlled response would be: Document which security tasks belong to the provider versus the customer at each IaaS, PaaS, and SaaS layer and assign accountable owners. Situation: A company migrates virtual machines to IaaS and assumes the cloud vendor will patch every guest operating system.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect cloud route tables, network attachment paths, traffic direction, security policy, and supported deployment scope. This evidence addresses Cisco Multicloud Defense traffic policy; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect provider service agreements, guest OS and application responsibilities, customer IAM, network settings, and data classification. Situation: A company migrates virtual machines to IaaS and assumes the cloud vendor will patch every guest operating system.

B:

Inspect OAuth app grants, external collaboration settings, admin roles, account lifecycle, and cloud sharing audit logs. This evidence addresses SaaS configuration and tenant boundary protection; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect provider service agreements, guest OS and application responsibilities, customer IAM, network settings, and data classification. Situation: A company migrates virtual machines to IaaS and assumes the cloud vendor will patch every guest operating system.

C:

Inspect IAM bindings, service identity usage, key rotation records, cross-account trust, and cloud audit event delivery. This evidence addresses Cloud IAM least privilege and logging; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect provider service agreements, guest OS and application responsibilities, customer IAM, network settings, and data classification. Situation: A company migrates virtual machines to IaaS and assumes the cloud vendor will patch every guest operating system.

Question 333

An SSL remote access profile unexpectedly routes all personal browsing through an expensive corporate headend. Before changing security policy, what evidence should the engineer examine FIRST?

  1. Inspect peer public addresses, IKE/IPsec proposals, NAT treatment, interesting traffic, and security association counters.
  2. Inspect VPN event traces, IKE negotiation state, certificate or PSK errors, UDP 500/4500, and proposal mismatches.
  3. Inspect zone topology, connection state, decrypted visibility where authorized, inline versus passive placement, and policy order.
  4. Inspect group policy selection, identity provider/RADIUS logs, VPN address pool, route list, certificate profile, and access-control logs.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Inspect group policy selection, identity provider/RADIUS logs, VPN address pool, route list, certificate profile, and access-control logs. This checks the relevant condition before an engineer modifies production access or detection behavior. Remote client tunnel success, user authentication, and authorized application reachability are distinct troubleshooting checkpoints. The controlled response would be: Configure Cisco Secure Client remote access to FTD with supported authentication, client profile, access restrictions, and split tunnel settings. Situation: An SSL remote access profile unexpectedly routes all personal browsing through an expensive corporate headend.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect peer public addresses, IKE/IPsec proposals, NAT treatment, interesting traffic, and security association counters. This evidence addresses FTD site-to-site VPN crypto policy; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect group policy selection, identity provider/RADIUS logs, VPN address pool, route list, certificate profile, and access-control logs. Situation: An SSL remote access profile unexpectedly routes all personal browsing through an expensive corporate headend.

B:

Inspect VPN event traces, IKE negotiation state, certificate or PSK errors, UDP 500/4500, and proposal mismatches. This evidence addresses FTD IKE negotiation failure isolation; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect group policy selection, identity provider/RADIUS logs, VPN address pool, route list, certificate profile, and access-control logs. Situation: An SSL remote access profile unexpectedly routes all personal browsing through an expensive corporate headend.

C:

Inspect zone topology, connection state, decrypted visibility where authorized, inline versus passive placement, and policy order. This evidence addresses Stateful firewall and IPS placement; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect group policy selection, identity provider/RADIUS logs, VPN address pool, route list, certificate profile, and access-control logs. Situation: An SSL remote access profile unexpectedly routes all personal browsing through an expensive corporate headend.

Question 334

A SIEM collects interface counters but cannot determine which source and destination generated a burst of network traffic. Which Cisco security control or operational response BEST addresses the stated need?

  1. Trace RADIUS network-access request and decision paths to isolate credential, shared secret, policy, or reachability failures.
  2. Separate groups with VLAN boundaries and apply identity or context-based SGT policy where infrastructure supports scalable group enforcement.
  3. Collect and analyze flow-level metadata to identify communication patterns and suspicious volume while acknowledging payload visibility limits.
  4. Forward security event logs over approved protected transport and synchronize clocks for reliable multi-device incident reconstruction.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Collect and analyze flow-level metadata to identify communication patterns and suspicious volume while acknowledging payload visibility limits. This control addresses the failure mechanism and narrows the enforcement boundary. Flow telemetry summarizes communicating endpoints and counters; packet payload inspection requires different data sources. Confirm pre-change conditions using: Inspect source/destination tuples, flow duration, byte counts, exporters, collector receipt, and sampling configuration. Situation: A SIEM collects interface counters but cannot determine which source and destination generated a burst of network traffic.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Trace RADIUS network-access request and decision paths to isolate credential, shared secret, policy, or reachability failures. This response applies to RADIUS network access troubleshooting, not the controlling requirement in this case. RADIUS typically supports network access control and policy attributes; network reachability, policy, and EAP trust must be checked independently. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Collect and analyze flow-level metadata to identify communication patterns and suspicious volume while acknowledging payload visibility limits. Situation: A SIEM collects interface counters but cannot determine which source and destination generated a burst of network traffic.

B:

Separate groups with VLAN boundaries and apply identity or context-based SGT policy where infrastructure supports scalable group enforcement. This response applies to VLAN segmentation and SGT policy, not the controlling requirement in this case. VLANs group Layer 2 broadcast domains; SGT-based policies can follow endpoint identity across supported network paths independent of a particular subnet. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Collect and analyze flow-level metadata to identify communication patterns and suspicious volume while acknowledging payload visibility limits. Situation: A SIEM collects interface counters but cannot determine which source and destination generated a burst of network traffic.

D:

Forward security event logs over approved protected transport and synchronize clocks for reliable multi-device incident reconstruction. This response applies to Secure syslog and timestamp correlation, not the controlling requirement in this case. Central logging loses forensic value when clocks disagree or records are dropped; authenticated time and secure logging improve evidence quality. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Collect and analyze flow-level metadata to identify communication patterns and suspicious volume while acknowledging payload visibility limits. Situation: A SIEM collects interface counters but cannot determine which source and destination generated a burst of network traffic.

Question 335

A storage bucket becomes publicly listable after a development deployment and no policy catches its exposure. Which Cisco security control or operational response BEST addresses the stated need?

  1. Coordinate consistent security intent across cloud platforms while retaining cloud-native enforcement and per-provider verification.
  2. Select preventative cloud configuration policies and continuous posture assessment against business risk, cloud framework, and allowed environments.
  3. Model workload dependencies and use policy-based application segmentation for least-privilege east-west communication with Cisco Secure Workload.
  4. Match public, private, hybrid, or community cloud and CASB controls to data access and service risk rather than selecting an architecture by label.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Select preventative cloud configuration policies and continuous posture assessment against business risk, cloud framework, and allowed environments. This control addresses the failure mechanism and narrows the enforcement boundary. A cloud security posture view helps identify configuration drift, but a dashboard does not enforce remediation without policy and ownership. Confirm pre-change conditions using: Inspect asset inventory, cloud service exposure, cloud security baseline, exception handling, and assessment findings. Situation: A storage bucket becomes publicly listable after a development deployment and no policy catches its exposure.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Coordinate consistent security intent across cloud platforms while retaining cloud-native enforcement and per-provider verification. This response applies to Multicloud identity and centralized policy governance, not the controlling requirement in this case. Multicloud governance can centralize design, but platform-specific APIs and capabilities must be validated rather than treating every cloud service as identical. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Select preventative cloud configuration policies and continuous posture assessment against business risk, cloud framework, and allowed environments. Situation: A storage bucket becomes publicly listable after a development deployment and no policy catches its exposure.

C:

Model workload dependencies and use policy-based application segmentation for least-privilege east-west communication with Cisco Secure Workload. This response applies to Cisco Secure Workload microsegmentation, not the controlling requirement in this case. Workload microsegmentation controls internal communications based on application context; it complements rather than replaces internet-facing perimeter security. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Select preventative cloud configuration policies and continuous posture assessment against business risk, cloud framework, and allowed environments. Situation: A storage bucket becomes publicly listable after a development deployment and no policy catches its exposure.

D:

Match public, private, hybrid, or community cloud and CASB controls to data access and service risk rather than selecting an architecture by label. This response applies to Cloud deployment and CASB suitability, not the controlling requirement in this case. A CASB adds visibility and policy to cloud application usage; deployment model choice alone does not establish data governance. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Select preventative cloud configuration policies and continuous posture assessment against business risk, cloud framework, and allowed environments. Situation: A storage bucket becomes publicly listable after a development deployment and no policy catches its exposure.

Question 336

A retailer buys cloud web filtering and assumes it has automatically replaced every branch WAN router. Before changing security policy, what evidence should the engineer examine FIRST?

  1. Inspect security service requirements, remote site connectivity, traffic steering, policy locations, and branch routing control.
  2. Inspect observed resolver clients, domain pivots, domain categorization, timestamps, threat indicators, and access logs.
  3. Inspect client connector state, network tunnel health, identity source, route exclusions, and effective access policy.
  4. Inspect data classifiers, exact-match or pattern quality, sanctioned SaaS domains, upload channel visibility, and allowed exceptions.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Inspect security service requirements, remote site connectivity, traffic steering, policy locations, and branch routing control. This checks the relevant condition before an engineer modifies production access or detection behavior. Security Service Edge focuses security functions; Secure Access Service Edge combines networking or WAN capabilities with cloud-delivered security in an integrated architecture. The controlled response would be: Select SSE for cloud-delivered security functions and account for SD-WAN or network connectivity when describing a complete SASE deployment. Situation: A retailer buys cloud web filtering and assumes it has automatically replaced every branch WAN router.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Inspect observed resolver clients, domain pivots, domain categorization, timestamps, threat indicators, and access logs. This evidence addresses Investigate infrastructure attribution and false positives; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect security service requirements, remote site connectivity, traffic steering, policy locations, and branch routing control. Situation: A retailer buys cloud web filtering and assumes it has automatically replaced every branch WAN router.

C:

Inspect client connector state, network tunnel health, identity source, route exclusions, and effective access policy. This evidence addresses Remote identity and traffic steering in SSE; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect security service requirements, remote site connectivity, traffic steering, policy locations, and branch routing control. Situation: A retailer buys cloud web filtering and assumes it has automatically replaced every branch WAN router.

D:

Inspect data classifiers, exact-match or pattern quality, sanctioned SaaS domains, upload channel visibility, and allowed exceptions. This evidence addresses Cloud DLP sensitive upload policy; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect security service requirements, remote site connectivity, traffic steering, policy locations, and branch routing control. Situation: A retailer buys cloud web filtering and assumes it has automatically replaced every branch WAN router.

Question 337

A team writes Splunk searches yet cannot distinguish which detections should open incidents and which need human review. Which observed result BEST confirms that the security requirement is met?

  1. Correlated suspicious activity creates a reviewable incident and only authorized containment actions execute under tested automation.
  2. A riskier session receives a stronger verification or denial decision without blocking routine authorized access unnecessarily.
  3. A linked multi-source incident supports proportional containment with evidence from affected devices and services.
  4. Guests obtain only appropriate internet access while enrolled employees reach approved internal applications under auditable policy.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Correlated suspicious activity creates a reviewable incident and only authorized containment actions execute under tested automation. This is an observable acceptance condition, rather than an assumption that enabling a feature alone proves security. A SIEM detection is analytic evidence, not automatically a permission to execute a destructive SOAR response. Situation: A team writes Splunk searches yet cannot distinguish which detections should open incidents and which need human review.

Incorrect Answers

B:

A riskier session receives a stronger verification or denial decision without blocking routine authorized access unnecessarily. This outcome tests Duo Adaptive Access and SSO context and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: Correlated suspicious activity creates a reviewable incident and only authorized containment actions execute under tested automation. Situation: A team writes Splunk searches yet cannot distinguish which detections should open incidents and which need human review.

C:

A linked multi-source incident supports proportional containment with evidence from affected devices and services. This outcome tests Cisco XDR cross-source incident correlation and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: Correlated suspicious activity creates a reviewable incident and only authorized containment actions execute under tested automation. Situation: A team writes Splunk searches yet cannot distinguish which detections should open incidents and which need human review.

D:

Guests obtain only appropriate internet access while enrolled employees reach approved internal applications under auditable policy. This outcome tests Cisco ISE guest and BYOD identity policies and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: Correlated suspicious activity creates a reviewable incident and only authorized containment actions execute under tested automation. Situation: A team writes Splunk searches yet cannot distinguish which detections should open incidents and which need human review.

Question 338

A retail network separates payment processing from staff browsing yet has no monitoring of endpoint lateral movement. Which observed result BEST confirms that the security requirement is met?

  1. Known malicious destinations are contained and exposed identities are investigated rather than relying only on awareness posters.
  2. Protected traffic crosses the tunnel with authenticated peers and encrypted data even behind the intended NAT device.
  3. One failed perimeter control does not provide unmonitored unrestricted access to sensitive workloads.
  4. A forged login page cannot grant privileged access using only a stolen password and abnormal sign-ins generate reviewable alerts.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

One failed perimeter control does not provide unmonitored unrestricted access to sensitive workloads. This is an observable acceptance condition, rather than an assumption that enabling a feature alone proves security. Defense in depth combines complementary independent controls; stacking duplicate products at one boundary does not protect other attack paths. Situation: A retail network separates payment processing from staff browsing yet has no monitoring of endpoint lateral movement.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Known malicious destinations are contained and exposed identities are investigated rather than relying only on awareness posters. This outcome tests Phishing containment and domain verification and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: One failed perimeter control does not provide unmonitored unrestricted access to sensitive workloads. Situation: A retail network separates payment processing from staff browsing yet has no monitoring of endpoint lateral movement.

B:

Protected traffic crosses the tunnel with authenticated peers and encrypted data even behind the intended NAT device. This outcome tests IPsec IKE and NAT traversal and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: One failed perimeter control does not provide unmonitored unrestricted access to sensitive workloads. Situation: A retail network separates payment processing from staff browsing yet has no monitoring of endpoint lateral movement.

D:

A forged login page cannot grant privileged access using only a stolen password and abnormal sign-ins generate reviewable alerts. This outcome tests Credential phishing and account takeover and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: One failed perimeter control does not provide unmonitored unrestricted access to sensitive workloads. Situation: A retail network separates payment processing from staff browsing yet has no monitoring of endpoint lateral movement.

Question 339

A ransomware indicator appears on a server and investigators need to trace the process that created suspicious files. Which TWO complementary steps provide the most defensible remediation and its supporting assessment? Select TWO.

  1. Prioritize Secure Endpoint alerts by severity, current host risk, file action, correlated detections, and business criticality.
  2. Inspect agent health, malware protection state, required updates, disk encryption, identity, and posture policy result.
  3. Interpret Cisco Secure Endpoint detection events using file, process, device, event time, and connected-host context before declaring an infection scope.
  4. Inspect file trajectory, device trajectory, hash reputation, user identity, process parentage, and action taken.
  5. Approved endpoint protection components report the expected state and client connectivity reflects configured enterprise policy.

Explanation

Correct Answers

C:

Interpret Cisco Secure Endpoint detection events using file, process, device, event time, and connected-host context before declaring an infection scope. This control addresses the failure mechanism and narrows the enforcement boundary. An endpoint detection event records what the connector observed and did; a block, quarantine, detection, and retrospective verdict are distinct states. Confirm pre-change conditions using: Inspect file trajectory, device trajectory, hash reputation, user identity, process parentage, and action taken. This is the implementation portion of the complementary pair. Situation: A ransomware indicator appears on a server and investigators need to trace the process that created suspicious files.

D:

Inspect file trajectory, device trajectory, hash reputation, user identity, process parentage, and action taken. This checks the relevant condition before an engineer modifies production access or detection behavior. An endpoint detection event records what the connector observed and did; a block, quarantine, detection, and retrospective verdict are distinct states. The controlled response would be: Interpret Cisco Secure Endpoint detection events using file, process, device, event time, and connected-host context before declaring an infection scope. This supplies the diagnostic evidence needed for the complementary action. Situation: A ransomware indicator appears on a server and investigators need to trace the process that created suspicious files.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Prioritize Secure Endpoint alerts by severity, current host risk, file action, correlated detections, and business criticality. This step could matter for Endpoint malware event prioritization but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Interpret Cisco Secure Endpoint detection events using file, process, device, event time, and connected-host context before declaring an infection scope. and Inspect file trajectory, device trajectory, hash reputation, user identity, process parentage, and action taken. Situation: A ransomware indicator appears on a server and investigators need to trace the process that created suspicious files.

B:

Inspect agent health, malware protection state, required updates, disk encryption, identity, and posture policy result. This step could matter for Posture check before network access but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Interpret Cisco Secure Endpoint detection events using file, process, device, event time, and connected-host context before declaring an infection scope. and Inspect file trajectory, device trajectory, hash reputation, user identity, process parentage, and action taken. Situation: A ransomware indicator appears on a server and investigators need to trace the process that created suspicious files.

E:

Approved endpoint protection components report the expected state and client connectivity reflects configured enterprise policy. This step could matter for Cisco Secure Client module and posture visibility but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Interpret Cisco Secure Endpoint detection events using file, process, device, event time, and connected-host context before declaring an infection scope. and Inspect file trajectory, device trajectory, hash reputation, user identity, process parentage, and action taken. Situation: A ransomware indicator appears on a server and investigators need to trace the process that created suspicious files.

Question 340

A remote vendor passes MFA but Secure Client posture reports no current antimalware signatures. Which Cisco security control or operational response BEST addresses the stated need?

  1. Configure Cisco Secure Endpoint policy groups, detection and blocking settings, and connector deployment aligned to host risk.
  2. Evaluate endpoint security posture before authorizing sensitive network access and establish a restricted remediation path for failed devices.
  3. Reevaluate endpoint compliance after meaningful security changes and update access decisions when device health becomes unacceptable.
  4. Choose endpoint prevention, behavioral detection, and response capabilities based on business risk and investigation needs rather than equating antivirus with EDR.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Evaluate endpoint security posture before authorizing sensitive network access and establish a restricted remediation path for failed devices. This control addresses the failure mechanism and narrows the enforcement boundary. Posture is device health evidence used in policy; authentication alone does not guarantee an endpoint meets security baseline. Confirm pre-change conditions using: Inspect agent health, malware protection state, required updates, disk encryption, identity, and posture policy result. Situation: A remote vendor passes MFA but Secure Client posture reports no current antimalware signatures.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Configure Cisco Secure Endpoint policy groups, detection and blocking settings, and connector deployment aligned to host risk. This response applies to Cisco Secure Endpoint antimalware policy, not the controlling requirement in this case. Endpoint policy efficacy depends on correct host enrollment, file disposition, behavior detection, and controlled exclusions. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Evaluate endpoint security posture before authorizing sensitive network access and establish a restricted remediation path for failed devices. Situation: A remote vendor passes MFA but Secure Client posture reports no current antimalware signatures.

C:

Reevaluate endpoint compliance after meaningful security changes and update access decisions when device health becomes unacceptable. This response applies to Continuous endpoint trust and posture drift, not the controlling requirement in this case. Device trust changes over time; a successful morning compliance check is not permanent proof of safe endpoint state. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Evaluate endpoint security posture before authorizing sensitive network access and establish a restricted remediation path for failed devices. Situation: A remote vendor passes MFA but Secure Client posture reports no current antimalware signatures.

D:

Choose endpoint prevention, behavioral detection, and response capabilities based on business risk and investigation needs rather than equating antivirus with EDR. This response applies to Endpoint protection versus detection response, not the controlling requirement in this case. EPP focuses preventative controls and EDR records and investigates suspicious endpoint activity and supports response; the capabilities overlap but are not interchangeable. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Evaluate endpoint security posture before authorizing sensitive network access and establish a restricted remediation path for failed devices. Situation: A remote vendor passes MFA but Secure Client posture reports no current antimalware signatures.

Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies (350-701) Practice Tests