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Cisco 350-701 Practice Test 27

Question 260

A shared embedding collection leaks document snippets from another department despite search similarity working normally. Which observed result BEST confirms that the security requirement is met?

  1. A hostile document can be summarized without causing the assistant to reveal credentials or invoke unapproved tools.
  2. One failed perimeter control does not provide unmonitored unrestricted access to sensitive workloads.
  3. Protected traffic crosses the tunnel with authenticated peers and encrypted data even behind the intended NAT device.
  4. Poisoned documents or swapped model dependencies fail integrity or access checks before affecting sensitive answers.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Poisoned documents or swapped model dependencies fail integrity or access checks before affecting sensitive answers. This is an observable acceptance condition, rather than an assumption that enabling a feature alone proves security. A vector store can surface semantically similar but unauthorized or poisoned content; relevance scores are not authorization proof. Situation: A shared embedding collection leaks document snippets from another department despite search similarity working normally.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A hostile document can be summarized without causing the assistant to reveal credentials or invoke unapproved tools. This outcome tests Prompt injection trust boundary and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: Poisoned documents or swapped model dependencies fail integrity or access checks before affecting sensitive answers. Situation: A shared embedding collection leaks document snippets from another department despite search similarity working normally.

B:

One failed perimeter control does not provide unmonitored unrestricted access to sensitive workloads. This outcome tests Defense in depth and Cisco SAFE and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: Poisoned documents or swapped model dependencies fail integrity or access checks before affecting sensitive answers. Situation: A shared embedding collection leaks document snippets from another department despite search similarity working normally.

C:

Protected traffic crosses the tunnel with authenticated peers and encrypted data even behind the intended NAT device. This outcome tests IPsec IKE and NAT traversal and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: Poisoned documents or swapped model dependencies fail integrity or access checks before affecting sensitive answers. Situation: A shared embedding collection leaks document snippets from another department despite search similarity working normally.

Question 261

A SIEM collects interface counters but cannot determine which source and destination generated a burst of network traffic. Which TWO complementary steps provide the most defensible remediation and its supporting assessment? Select TWO.

  1. Inspect SSH/HTTPS management services, NETCONF or RESTCONF configuration, model schema, access roles, and operation results.
  2. Inspect source/destination tuples, flow duration, byte counts, exporters, collector receipt, and sampling configuration.
  3. Collect and analyze flow-level metadata to identify communication patterns and suspicious volume while acknowledging payload visibility limits.
  4. Forward security event logs over approved protected transport and synchronize clocks for reliable multi-device incident reconstruction.
  5. Configuration findings map to auditable benchmark controls and critical deviations are corrected without assuming every default is compliant.

Explanation

Correct Answers

B:

Inspect source/destination tuples, flow duration, byte counts, exporters, collector receipt, and sampling configuration. This checks the relevant condition before an engineer modifies production access or detection behavior. Flow telemetry summarizes communicating endpoints and counters; packet payload inspection requires different data sources. The controlled response would be: Collect and analyze flow-level metadata to identify communication patterns and suspicious volume while acknowledging payload visibility limits. This supplies the diagnostic evidence needed for the complementary action. Situation: A SIEM collects interface counters but cannot determine which source and destination generated a burst of network traffic.

C:

Collect and analyze flow-level metadata to identify communication patterns and suspicious volume while acknowledging payload visibility limits. This control addresses the failure mechanism and narrows the enforcement boundary. Flow telemetry summarizes communicating endpoints and counters; packet payload inspection requires different data sources. Confirm pre-change conditions using: Inspect source/destination tuples, flow duration, byte counts, exporters, collector receipt, and sampling configuration. This is the implementation portion of the complementary pair. Situation: A SIEM collects interface counters but cannot determine which source and destination generated a burst of network traffic.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect SSH/HTTPS management services, NETCONF or RESTCONF configuration, model schema, access roles, and operation results. This step could matter for NETCONF RESTCONF and API management security but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Collect and analyze flow-level metadata to identify communication patterns and suspicious volume while acknowledging payload visibility limits. and Inspect source/destination tuples, flow duration, byte counts, exporters, collector receipt, and sampling configuration. Situation: A SIEM collects interface counters but cannot determine which source and destination generated a burst of network traffic.

D:

Forward security event logs over approved protected transport and synchronize clocks for reliable multi-device incident reconstruction. This step could matter for Secure syslog and timestamp correlation but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Collect and analyze flow-level metadata to identify communication patterns and suspicious volume while acknowledging payload visibility limits. and Inspect source/destination tuples, flow duration, byte counts, exporters, collector receipt, and sampling configuration. Situation: A SIEM collects interface counters but cannot determine which source and destination generated a burst of network traffic.

E:

Configuration findings map to auditable benchmark controls and critical deviations are corrected without assuming every default is compliant. This step could matter for CIS device configuration baseline assessment but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Collect and analyze flow-level metadata to identify communication patterns and suspicious volume while acknowledging payload visibility limits. and Inspect source/destination tuples, flow duration, byte counts, exporters, collector receipt, and sampling configuration. Situation: A SIEM collects interface counters but cannot determine which source and destination generated a burst of network traffic.

Question 262

A cloud application encrypts database storage yet stores the decryption key in public source code. Which TWO complementary steps provide the most defensible remediation and its supporting assessment? Select TWO.

  1. Inspect storage encryption policy, customer-managed key dependencies, rotation schedule, secret locations, and access logs.
  2. A deliberately public data service or embedded secret is rejected in CI before a production resource is created.
  3. Model workload dependencies and use policy-based application segmentation for least-privilege east-west communication with Cisco Secure Workload.
  4. Inspect supported kernel/runtime versions, telemetry capture points, performance overhead, event schemas, and control ownership.
  5. Secure cloud workloads and data with appropriate encryption, managed key access, and explicit ownership of secret rotation and runtime use.

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

Inspect storage encryption policy, customer-managed key dependencies, rotation schedule, secret locations, and access logs. This checks the relevant condition before an engineer modifies production access or detection behavior. Encryption protects data against unauthorized reading but does not substitute for IAM; key lifecycle management and backups require explicit ownership. The controlled response would be: Secure cloud workloads and data with appropriate encryption, managed key access, and explicit ownership of secret rotation and runtime use. This supplies the diagnostic evidence needed for the complementary action. Situation: A cloud application encrypts database storage yet stores the decryption key in public source code.

E:

Secure cloud workloads and data with appropriate encryption, managed key access, and explicit ownership of secret rotation and runtime use. This control addresses the failure mechanism and narrows the enforcement boundary. Encryption protects data against unauthorized reading but does not substitute for IAM; key lifecycle management and backups require explicit ownership. Confirm pre-change conditions using: Inspect storage encryption policy, customer-managed key dependencies, rotation schedule, secret locations, and access logs. This is the implementation portion of the complementary pair. Situation: A cloud application encrypts database storage yet stores the decryption key in public source code.

Incorrect Answers

B:

A deliberately public data service or embedded secret is rejected in CI before a production resource is created. This step could matter for Infrastructure as Code security gate but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Secure cloud workloads and data with appropriate encryption, managed key access, and explicit ownership of secret rotation and runtime use. and Inspect storage encryption policy, customer-managed key dependencies, rotation schedule, secret locations, and access logs. Situation: A cloud application encrypts database storage yet stores the decryption key in public source code.

C:

Model workload dependencies and use policy-based application segmentation for least-privilege east-west communication with Cisco Secure Workload. This step could matter for Cisco Secure Workload microsegmentation but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Secure cloud workloads and data with appropriate encryption, managed key access, and explicit ownership of secret rotation and runtime use. and Inspect storage encryption policy, customer-managed key dependencies, rotation schedule, secret locations, and access logs. Situation: A cloud application encrypts database storage yet stores the decryption key in public source code.

D:

Inspect supported kernel/runtime versions, telemetry capture points, performance overhead, event schemas, and control ownership. This step could matter for eBPF security telemetry scope but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Secure cloud workloads and data with appropriate encryption, managed key access, and explicit ownership of secret rotation and runtime use. and Inspect storage encryption policy, customer-managed key dependencies, rotation schedule, secret locations, and access logs. Situation: A cloud application encrypts database storage yet stores the decryption key in public source code.

Question 263

A new FTD rule allows a web application but no intrusion policy is applied and exploit attempts receive no IPS events. Before changing security policy, what evidence should the engineer examine FIRST?

  1. Inspect application detectors, URL category verdicts, rule conditions, encrypted-session visibility, and identity matches.
  2. Inspect source/destination tuples, flow duration, byte counts, exporters, collector receipt, and sampling configuration.
  3. Inspect peer public addresses, IKE/IPsec proposals, NAT treatment, interesting traffic, and security association counters.
  4. Inspect access-rule association, intrusion policy, detection events, file reputation, TLS visibility, and false-positive evidence.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Inspect access-rule association, intrusion policy, detection events, file reputation, TLS visibility, and false-positive evidence. This checks the relevant condition before an engineer modifies production access or detection behavior. A network allow decision alone does not guarantee intrusion inspection; relevant inline policy and traffic visibility must be enabled. The controlled response would be: Associate an appropriate intrusion and file policy with the relevant FTD traffic rule, then tune detection against validated test cases. Situation: A new FTD rule allows a web application but no intrusion policy is applied and exploit attempts receive no IPS events.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect application detectors, URL category verdicts, rule conditions, encrypted-session visibility, and identity matches. This evidence addresses Application visibility control and URL filtering; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect access-rule association, intrusion policy, detection events, file reputation, TLS visibility, and false-positive evidence. Situation: A new FTD rule allows a web application but no intrusion policy is applied and exploit attempts receive no IPS events.

B:

Inspect source/destination tuples, flow duration, byte counts, exporters, collector receipt, and sampling configuration. This evidence addresses NetFlow and telemetry flow analysis; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect access-rule association, intrusion policy, detection events, file reputation, TLS visibility, and false-positive evidence. Situation: A new FTD rule allows a web application but no intrusion policy is applied and exploit attempts receive no IPS events.

C:

Inspect peer public addresses, IKE/IPsec proposals, NAT treatment, interesting traffic, and security association counters. This evidence addresses FTD site-to-site VPN crypto policy; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect access-rule association, intrusion policy, detection events, file reputation, TLS visibility, and false-positive evidence. Situation: A new FTD rule allows a web application but no intrusion policy is applied and exploit attempts receive no IPS events.

Question 264

An 802.1X Wi-Fi client reaches the AP but repeatedly fails network authentication after the RADIUS server IP changes. Before changing security policy, what evidence should the engineer examine FIRST?

  1. Inspect authentication attempts, command-set policies, server reachability, shared secrets, and accounting records.
  2. Inspect VLAN enablement, trusted port design, binding table entries, DHCP offer sources, and port limits.
  3. Inspect Access-Request/Accept/Reject behavior, NAS identity, network path, policy rule match, certificates for EAP, and session logs.
  4. Review VTY/SSH configuration, management VRFs or ACLs, CoPP policy, routing adjacencies, and logging paths.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Inspect Access-Request/Accept/Reject behavior, NAS identity, network path, policy rule match, certificates for EAP, and session logs. This checks the relevant condition before an engineer modifies production access or detection behavior. RADIUS typically supports network access control and policy attributes; network reachability, policy, and EAP trust must be checked independently. The controlled response would be: Trace RADIUS network-access request and decision paths to isolate credential, shared secret, policy, or reachability failures. Situation: An 802.1X Wi-Fi client reaches the AP but repeatedly fails network authentication after the RADIUS server IP changes.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect authentication attempts, command-set policies, server reachability, shared secrets, and accounting records. This evidence addresses TACACS+ administration authorization; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect Access-Request/Accept/Reject behavior, NAS identity, network path, policy rule match, certificates for EAP, and session logs. Situation: An 802.1X Wi-Fi client reaches the AP but repeatedly fails network authentication after the RADIUS server IP changes.

B:

Inspect VLAN enablement, trusted port design, binding table entries, DHCP offer sources, and port limits. This evidence addresses DHCP snooping trust and rogue server control; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect Access-Request/Accept/Reject behavior, NAS identity, network path, policy rule match, certificates for EAP, and session logs. Situation: An 802.1X Wi-Fi client reaches the AP but repeatedly fails network authentication after the RADIUS server IP changes.

D:

Review VTY/SSH configuration, management VRFs or ACLs, CoPP policy, routing adjacencies, and logging paths. This evidence addresses Router control plane and management isolation; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect Access-Request/Accept/Reject behavior, NAS identity, network path, policy rule match, certificates for EAP, and session logs. Situation: An 802.1X Wi-Fi client reaches the AP but repeatedly fails network authentication after the RADIUS server IP changes.

Question 265

A NOC wants to poll interface counters but its monitoring credential is only an SNMPv2c community known to contractors. Which TWO complementary steps provide the most defensible remediation and its supporting assessment? Select TWO.

  1. Protect programmable device management with authenticated endpoints, transport encryption, role authorization, and change transaction logging.
  2. Configuration findings map to auditable benchmark controls and critical deviations are corrected without assuming every default is compliant.
  3. Use SNMPv3 with authentication and privacy where appropriate and restrict agents to approved management sources and read views.
  4. Inspect SNMP user groups, auth/priv settings, engine IDs, management ACLs, and failed polling logs.
  5. Inspect application detectors, URL category verdicts, rule conditions, encrypted-session visibility, and identity matches.

Explanation

Correct Answers

C:

Use SNMPv3 with authentication and privacy where appropriate and restrict agents to approved management sources and read views. This control addresses the failure mechanism and narrows the enforcement boundary. SNMPv3 supports integrity and encryption for management queries when authPriv is configured; SNMPv1 community strings do not provide equivalent protection. Confirm pre-change conditions using: Inspect SNMP user groups, auth/priv settings, engine IDs, management ACLs, and failed polling logs. This is the implementation portion of the complementary pair. Situation: A NOC wants to poll interface counters but its monitoring credential is only an SNMPv2c community known to contractors.

D:

Inspect SNMP user groups, auth/priv settings, engine IDs, management ACLs, and failed polling logs. This checks the relevant condition before an engineer modifies production access or detection behavior. SNMPv3 supports integrity and encryption for management queries when authPriv is configured; SNMPv1 community strings do not provide equivalent protection. The controlled response would be: Use SNMPv3 with authentication and privacy where appropriate and restrict agents to approved management sources and read views. This supplies the diagnostic evidence needed for the complementary action. Situation: A NOC wants to poll interface counters but its monitoring credential is only an SNMPv2c community known to contractors.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Protect programmable device management with authenticated endpoints, transport encryption, role authorization, and change transaction logging. This step could matter for NETCONF RESTCONF and API management security but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Use SNMPv3 with authentication and privacy where appropriate and restrict agents to approved management sources and read views. and Inspect SNMP user groups, auth/priv settings, engine IDs, management ACLs, and failed polling logs. Situation: A NOC wants to poll interface counters but its monitoring credential is only an SNMPv2c community known to contractors.

B:

Configuration findings map to auditable benchmark controls and critical deviations are corrected without assuming every default is compliant. This step could matter for CIS device configuration baseline assessment but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Use SNMPv3 with authentication and privacy where appropriate and restrict agents to approved management sources and read views. and Inspect SNMP user groups, auth/priv settings, engine IDs, management ACLs, and failed polling logs. Situation: A NOC wants to poll interface counters but its monitoring credential is only an SNMPv2c community known to contractors.

E:

Inspect application detectors, URL category verdicts, rule conditions, encrypted-session visibility, and identity matches. This step could matter for Application visibility control and URL filtering but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Use SNMPv3 with authentication and privacy where appropriate and restrict agents to approved management sources and read views. and Inspect SNMP user groups, auth/priv settings, engine IDs, management ACLs, and failed polling logs. Situation: A NOC wants to poll interface counters but its monitoring credential is only an SNMPv2c community known to contractors.

Question 266

A Splunk workflow opens remediation requests automatically but contains no owner or approval for disruptive network changes. Which TWO complementary steps provide the most defensible remediation and its supporting assessment? Select TWO.

  1. Use Splunk detection, field normalization, incident enrichment, and approved SOAR actions to organize security-event handling at scale.
  2. Users with acceptable identities and devices reach protected apps while stolen passwords or untrusted device states fail authorization.
  3. Enforce network access requirements for device OS, required security controls, and application compliance, with remediation for failures.
  4. Inspect known endpoint MAC registrations, profiling data, switch authentication order, RADIUS policy, and allowed destination flows.
  5. Inspect detection search logic, sourcetype fields, incident assignment, playbook permissions, and result audit trail.

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

Use Splunk detection, field normalization, incident enrichment, and approved SOAR actions to organize security-event handling at scale. This control addresses the failure mechanism and narrows the enforcement boundary. Orchestration connects event evidence to repeatable response, but logs and playbook execution require separation of detection confidence and authorization. Confirm pre-change conditions using: Inspect detection search logic, sourcetype fields, incident assignment, playbook permissions, and result audit trail. This is the implementation portion of the complementary pair. Situation: A Splunk workflow opens remediation requests automatically but contains no owner or approval for disruptive network changes.

E:

Inspect detection search logic, sourcetype fields, incident assignment, playbook permissions, and result audit trail. This checks the relevant condition before an engineer modifies production access or detection behavior. Orchestration connects event evidence to repeatable response, but logs and playbook execution require separation of detection confidence and authorization. The controlled response would be: Use Splunk detection, field normalization, incident enrichment, and approved SOAR actions to organize security-event handling at scale. This supplies the diagnostic evidence needed for the complementary action. Situation: A Splunk workflow opens remediation requests automatically but contains no owner or approval for disruptive network changes.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Users with acceptable identities and devices reach protected apps while stolen passwords or untrusted device states fail authorization. This step could matter for Cisco Duo multifactor and device trust policy but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Use Splunk detection, field normalization, incident enrichment, and approved SOAR actions to organize security-event handling at scale. and Inspect detection search logic, sourcetype fields, incident assignment, playbook permissions, and result audit trail. Situation: A Splunk workflow opens remediation requests automatically but contains no owner or approval for disruptive network changes.

C:

Enforce network access requirements for device OS, required security controls, and application compliance, with remediation for failures. This step could matter for Endpoint application compliance and risk-based access but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Use Splunk detection, field normalization, incident enrichment, and approved SOAR actions to organize security-event handling at scale. and Inspect detection search logic, sourcetype fields, incident assignment, playbook permissions, and result audit trail. Situation: A Splunk workflow opens remediation requests automatically but contains no owner or approval for disruptive network changes.

D:

Inspect known endpoint MAC registrations, profiling data, switch authentication order, RADIUS policy, and allowed destination flows. This step could matter for MAB fallback and printer restriction but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Use Splunk detection, field normalization, incident enrichment, and approved SOAR actions to organize security-event handling at scale. and Inspect detection search logic, sourcetype fields, incident assignment, playbook permissions, and result audit trail. Situation: A Splunk workflow opens remediation requests automatically but contains no owner or approval for disruptive network changes.

Question 267

A compromised endpoint sends encrypted outbound data to an unfamiliar service over port 443 but has no DLP coverage. Which TWO complementary steps provide the most defensible remediation and its supporting assessment? Select TWO.

  1. Identify suspicious DNS-based data movement using query entropy, length, volume, domain ownership, and endpoint context before containment.
  2. Correlated suspicious activity creates a reviewable incident and only authorized containment actions execute under tested automation.
  3. Correlate unusual encrypted uploads and sanctioned cloud-service use with identity, DLP, destination, and endpoint telemetry.
  4. Inspect flow byte asymmetry, SaaS tenant, DLP events, process initiator, upload time, and user job role.
  5. Inspect issuing CA trust, certificate subject and EKU, expiry, device records, policy match, and failed EAP logs.

Explanation

Correct Answers

C:

Correlate unusual encrypted uploads and sanctioned cloud-service use with identity, DLP, destination, and endpoint telemetry. This control addresses the failure mechanism and narrows the enforcement boundary. HTTPS encryption does not prove the destination or data transfer is authorized; flow, SaaS policy, and endpoint context can reveal risk without blindly decrypting all traffic. Confirm pre-change conditions using: Inspect flow byte asymmetry, SaaS tenant, DLP events, process initiator, upload time, and user job role. This is the implementation portion of the complementary pair. Situation: A compromised endpoint sends encrypted outbound data to an unfamiliar service over port 443 but has no DLP coverage.

D:

Inspect flow byte asymmetry, SaaS tenant, DLP events, process initiator, upload time, and user job role. This checks the relevant condition before an engineer modifies production access or detection behavior. HTTPS encryption does not prove the destination or data transfer is authorized; flow, SaaS policy, and endpoint context can reveal risk without blindly decrypting all traffic. The controlled response would be: Correlate unusual encrypted uploads and sanctioned cloud-service use with identity, DLP, destination, and endpoint telemetry. This supplies the diagnostic evidence needed for the complementary action. Situation: A compromised endpoint sends encrypted outbound data to an unfamiliar service over port 443 but has no DLP coverage.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Identify suspicious DNS-based data movement using query entropy, length, volume, domain ownership, and endpoint context before containment. This step could matter for DNS tunneling exfiltration detection but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Correlate unusual encrypted uploads and sanctioned cloud-service use with identity, DLP, destination, and endpoint telemetry. and Inspect flow byte asymmetry, SaaS tenant, DLP events, process initiator, upload time, and user job role. Situation: A compromised endpoint sends encrypted outbound data to an unfamiliar service over port 443 but has no DLP coverage.

B:

Correlated suspicious activity creates a reviewable incident and only authorized containment actions execute under tested automation. This step could matter for SIEM and SOAR workflow distinction but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Correlate unusual encrypted uploads and sanctioned cloud-service use with identity, DLP, destination, and endpoint telemetry. and Inspect flow byte asymmetry, SaaS tenant, DLP events, process initiator, upload time, and user job role. Situation: A compromised endpoint sends encrypted outbound data to an unfamiliar service over port 443 but has no DLP coverage.

E:

Inspect issuing CA trust, certificate subject and EKU, expiry, device records, policy match, and failed EAP logs. This step could matter for Certificate identity and noncompliant access segregation but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Correlate unusual encrypted uploads and sanctioned cloud-service use with identity, DLP, destination, and endpoint telemetry. and Inspect flow byte asymmetry, SaaS tenant, DLP events, process initiator, upload time, and user job role. Situation: A compromised endpoint sends encrypted outbound data to an unfamiliar service over port 443 but has no DLP coverage.

Question 268

A SOC expects an eBPF monitoring-only agent to block a malicious syscall even though no prevention action is enabled. Which Cisco security control or operational response BEST addresses the stated need?

  1. Require IaC templates to pass secrets, policy, and network exposure scanning before deployment and document authorized exceptions.
  2. Protect container workloads with approved image provenance, minimal privileges, network boundaries, and runtime monitoring.
  3. Combine dependency, container, and code security checks with change approval and deployment rollback across a DevSecOps pipeline.
  4. Use appropriately supported eBPF-based observation to understand process and network activity without assuming kernel hooks enforce every application policy.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Use appropriately supported eBPF-based observation to understand process and network activity without assuming kernel hooks enforce every application policy. This control addresses the failure mechanism and narrows the enforcement boundary. eBPF enables efficient programmable Linux kernel instrumentation, but security capabilities depend on the actual sensor and deployment configuration. Confirm pre-change conditions using: Inspect supported kernel/runtime versions, telemetry capture points, performance overhead, event schemas, and control ownership. Situation: A SOC expects an eBPF monitoring-only agent to block a malicious syscall even though no prevention action is enabled.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Require IaC templates to pass secrets, policy, and network exposure scanning before deployment and document authorized exceptions. This response applies to Infrastructure as Code security gate, not the controlling requirement in this case. Infrastructure as Code makes misconfiguration reproducible; peer review and predeployment policy gates reduce repeated risky settings. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Use appropriately supported eBPF-based observation to understand process and network activity without assuming kernel hooks enforce every application policy. Situation: A SOC expects an eBPF monitoring-only agent to block a malicious syscall even though no prevention action is enabled.

B:

Protect container workloads with approved image provenance, minimal privileges, network boundaries, and runtime monitoring. This response applies to Container workload identity and image governance, not the controlling requirement in this case. A container isolates processes but is not a complete trust boundary; host privileges, image supply chain, and runtime identity remain material. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Use appropriately supported eBPF-based observation to understand process and network activity without assuming kernel hooks enforce every application policy. Situation: A SOC expects an eBPF monitoring-only agent to block a malicious syscall even though no prevention action is enabled.

C:

Combine dependency, container, and code security checks with change approval and deployment rollback across a DevSecOps pipeline. This response applies to CI CD container and application security lifecycle, not the controlling requirement in this case. DevSecOps embeds security early in delivery while preserving trusted runtime controls; scanning after production is not an adequate release gate. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Use appropriately supported eBPF-based observation to understand process and network activity without assuming kernel hooks enforce every application policy. Situation: A SOC expects an eBPF monitoring-only agent to block a malicious syscall even though no prevention action is enabled.

Question 269

A site-to-site tunnel intermittently fails when one peer changes its encryption proposal without updating the other. Which TWO complementary steps provide the most defensible remediation and its supporting assessment? Select TWO.

  1. New approved networks traverse the intended secured virtual tunnel without proliferating inconsistent policy selectors.
  2. Inspect sign-in strength, device compliance, resource policy, segmentation, session risk, and reevaluation triggers.
  3. Use negotiated IKE/IPsec proposals with matching identities and selectors, and enable appropriate UDP encapsulation when NAT disrupts ESP carriage.
  4. Inspect IKE proposal mismatches, pre-shared or certificate identity, UDP 500 or 4500 reachability, NAT detection, and phase negotiation logs.
  5. Validate peer identity with a trusted certificate chain, correct hostname, certificate validity, and appropriate TLS policy before exchanging sensitive data.

Explanation

Correct Answers

C:

Use negotiated IKE/IPsec proposals with matching identities and selectors, and enable appropriate UDP encapsulation when NAT disrupts ESP carriage. This control addresses the failure mechanism and narrows the enforcement boundary. NAT traversal commonly encapsulates ESP over UDP 4500; a successful IKE handshake alone does not prove data-plane IPsec traffic passes. Confirm pre-change conditions using: Inspect IKE proposal mismatches, pre-shared or certificate identity, UDP 500 or 4500 reachability, NAT detection, and phase negotiation logs. This is the implementation portion of the complementary pair. Situation: A site-to-site tunnel intermittently fails when one peer changes its encryption proposal without updating the other.

D:

Inspect IKE proposal mismatches, pre-shared or certificate identity, UDP 500 or 4500 reachability, NAT detection, and phase negotiation logs. This checks the relevant condition before an engineer modifies production access or detection behavior. NAT traversal commonly encapsulates ESP over UDP 4500; a successful IKE handshake alone does not prove data-plane IPsec traffic passes. The controlled response would be: Use negotiated IKE/IPsec proposals with matching identities and selectors, and enable appropriate UDP encapsulation when NAT disrupts ESP carriage. This supplies the diagnostic evidence needed for the complementary action. Situation: A site-to-site tunnel intermittently fails when one peer changes its encryption proposal without updating the other.

Incorrect Answers

A:

New approved networks traverse the intended secured virtual tunnel without proliferating inconsistent policy selectors. This step could matter for Route-based versus policy-based VPN design but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Use negotiated IKE/IPsec proposals with matching identities and selectors, and enable appropriate UDP encapsulation when NAT disrupts ESP carriage. and Inspect IKE proposal mismatches, pre-shared or certificate identity, UDP 500 or 4500 reachability, NAT detection, and phase negotiation logs. Situation: A site-to-site tunnel intermittently fails when one peer changes its encryption proposal without updating the other.

B:

Inspect sign-in strength, device compliance, resource policy, segmentation, session risk, and reevaluation triggers. This step could matter for Zero trust continuous authorization but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Use negotiated IKE/IPsec proposals with matching identities and selectors, and enable appropriate UDP encapsulation when NAT disrupts ESP carriage. and Inspect IKE proposal mismatches, pre-shared or certificate identity, UDP 500 or 4500 reachability, NAT detection, and phase negotiation logs. Situation: A site-to-site tunnel intermittently fails when one peer changes its encryption proposal without updating the other.

E:

Validate peer identity with a trusted certificate chain, correct hostname, certificate validity, and appropriate TLS policy before exchanging sensitive data. This step could matter for TLS certificate authentication and PKI but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Use negotiated IKE/IPsec proposals with matching identities and selectors, and enable appropriate UDP encapsulation when NAT disrupts ESP carriage. and Inspect IKE proposal mismatches, pre-shared or certificate identity, UDP 500 or 4500 reachability, NAT detection, and phase negotiation logs. Situation: A site-to-site tunnel intermittently fails when one peer changes its encryption proposal without updating the other.

Question 270

A project wants to deploy application updates automatically but must retain evidence of developer and security approval. Which observed result BEST confirms that the security requirement is met?

  1. Misconfigured public resources are detected and controlled while approved exceptions remain documented and reviewed.
  2. A deliberately public data service or embedded secret is rejected in CI before a production resource is created.
  3. A critical vulnerable dependency blocks promotion and approved remediation produces an auditable releasable artifact.
  4. Required cloud audit events are searchable with accurate timestamps and identifiable source fields after ingestion.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A critical vulnerable dependency blocks promotion and approved remediation produces an auditable releasable artifact. This is an observable acceptance condition, rather than an assumption that enabling a feature alone proves security. DevSecOps embeds security early in delivery while preserving trusted runtime controls; scanning after production is not an adequate release gate. Situation: A project wants to deploy application updates automatically but must retain evidence of developer and security approval.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Misconfigured public resources are detected and controlled while approved exceptions remain documented and reviewed. This outcome tests Cloud security posture policy selection and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: A critical vulnerable dependency blocks promotion and approved remediation produces an auditable releasable artifact. Situation: A project wants to deploy application updates automatically but must retain evidence of developer and security approval.

B:

A deliberately public data service or embedded secret is rejected in CI before a production resource is created. This outcome tests Infrastructure as Code security gate and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: A critical vulnerable dependency blocks promotion and approved remediation produces an auditable releasable artifact. Situation: A project wants to deploy application updates automatically but must retain evidence of developer and security approval.

D:

Required cloud audit events are searchable with accurate timestamps and identifiable source fields after ingestion. This outcome tests Splunk cloud source onboarding and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: A critical vulnerable dependency blocks promotion and approved remediation produces an auditable releasable artifact. Situation: A project wants to deploy application updates automatically but must retain evidence of developer and security approval.

Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies (350-701) Practice Tests