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Cisco 350-701 Practice Test 23

Question 220

A Cisco XDR incident view lacks network data because an integration stopped ingesting for a day. Which Cisco security control or operational response BEST addresses the stated need?

  1. Use SIEM to search and correlate security telemetry and SOAR playbooks to coordinate authorized investigative or response actions.
  2. Correlate Cisco XDR observables, endpoint detections, email, and network events to establish incident scope and response before automating containment.
  3. Identify suspicious DNS-based data movement using query entropy, length, volume, domain ownership, and endpoint context before containment.
  4. Enforce network access requirements for device OS, required security controls, and application compliance, with remediation for failures.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Correlate Cisco XDR observables, endpoint detections, email, and network events to establish incident scope and response before automating containment. This control addresses the failure mechanism and narrows the enforcement boundary. XDR brings signals across integrated controls; cross-product visibility depends on healthy connectors and source coverage. Confirm pre-change conditions using: Inspect observable sightings, integration health, incident timeline, detection confidence, and action permissions. Situation: A Cisco XDR incident view lacks network data because an integration stopped ingesting for a day.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Use SIEM to search and correlate security telemetry and SOAR playbooks to coordinate authorized investigative or response actions. This response applies to SIEM and SOAR workflow distinction, not the controlling requirement in this case. A SIEM detection is analytic evidence, not automatically a permission to execute a destructive SOAR response. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Correlate Cisco XDR observables, endpoint detections, email, and network events to establish incident scope and response before automating containment. Situation: A Cisco XDR incident view lacks network data because an integration stopped ingesting for a day.

C:

Identify suspicious DNS-based data movement using query entropy, length, volume, domain ownership, and endpoint context before containment. This response applies to DNS tunneling exfiltration detection, not the controlling requirement in this case. DNS is a name-resolution protocol but can carry encoded data in labels or answers; unusual queries require contextual analysis to avoid false positives. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Correlate Cisco XDR observables, endpoint detections, email, and network events to establish incident scope and response before automating containment. Situation: A Cisco XDR incident view lacks network data because an integration stopped ingesting for a day.

D:

Enforce network access requirements for device OS, required security controls, and application compliance, with remediation for failures. This response applies to Endpoint application compliance and risk-based access, not the controlling requirement in this case. Device compliance is an ongoing assessment, not a once-per-device trust label; application control and identity must be combined for effective access. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Correlate Cisco XDR observables, endpoint detections, email, and network events to establish incident scope and response before automating containment. Situation: A Cisco XDR incident view lacks network data because an integration stopped ingesting for a day.

Question 221

A firewall permits all east-west traffic because a broad allow rule sits above the application-specific deny. Which observed result BEST confirms that the security requirement is met?

  1. Intended application traffic matches a narrow allow rule and unauthorized flows are denied with traceable evidence.
  2. Offers from an unauthorized user port are dropped while legitimate clients receive leases and bindings are learned.
  3. Unapproved categories or applications are denied while required business services match the intended allow criteria.
  4. Spoofed gateway ARP frames are rejected while authorized static-IP hosts continue normal access with explicit bindings.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Intended application traffic matches a narrow allow rule and unauthorized flows are denied with traceable evidence. This is an observable acceptance condition, rather than an assumption that enabling a feature alone proves security. Access control rules are evaluated according to platform policy order and conditions; an overly broad early allow can shadow later restrictions. Situation: A firewall permits all east-west traffic because a broad allow rule sits above the application-specific deny.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Offers from an unauthorized user port are dropped while legitimate clients receive leases and bindings are learned. This outcome tests DHCP snooping trust and rogue server control and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: Intended application traffic matches a narrow allow rule and unauthorized flows are denied with traceable evidence. Situation: A firewall permits all east-west traffic because a broad allow rule sits above the application-specific deny.

C:

Unapproved categories or applications are denied while required business services match the intended allow criteria. This outcome tests Application visibility control and URL filtering and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: Intended application traffic matches a narrow allow rule and unauthorized flows are denied with traceable evidence. Situation: A firewall permits all east-west traffic because a broad allow rule sits above the application-specific deny.

D:

Spoofed gateway ARP frames are rejected while authorized static-IP hosts continue normal access with explicit bindings. This outcome tests Dynamic ARP inspection and spoofed gateway and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: Intended application traffic matches a narrow allow rule and unauthorized flows are denied with traceable evidence. Situation: A firewall permits all east-west traffic because a broad allow rule sits above the application-specific deny.

Question 222

A product site places customer-supplied strings into a JavaScript template without encoding. Before changing security policy, what evidence should the engineer examine FIRST?

  1. Inspect browser rendering contexts, state-changing HTTP endpoints, session cookie attributes, and request verification tokens.
  2. Inspect dynamic SQL construction, query logs, supplied payloads, database role privileges, and application input paths.
  3. Inspect embedding source sets, package provenance, vector index tenant filters, model artifacts, and integrity-check history.
  4. Inspect server certificate SAN, chain trust, expiry and revocation status, negotiated protocol, and handshake errors.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Inspect browser rendering contexts, state-changing HTTP endpoints, session cookie attributes, and request verification tokens. This checks the relevant condition before an engineer modifies production access or detection behavior. XSS executes attacker-controlled browser code, while CSRF tricks an authenticated browser into submitting unintended operations; their mitigations differ. The controlled response would be: Apply context-aware output encoding, anti-CSRF protections, and correct cookie controls at the relevant trust boundary. Situation: A product site places customer-supplied strings into a JavaScript template without encoding.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Inspect dynamic SQL construction, query logs, supplied payloads, database role privileges, and application input paths. This evidence addresses SQL injection and parameterized queries; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect browser rendering contexts, state-changing HTTP endpoints, session cookie attributes, and request verification tokens. Situation: A product site places customer-supplied strings into a JavaScript template without encoding.

C:

Inspect embedding source sets, package provenance, vector index tenant filters, model artifacts, and integrity-check history. This evidence addresses Embedding and model supply chain risk; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect browser rendering contexts, state-changing HTTP endpoints, session cookie attributes, and request verification tokens. Situation: A product site places customer-supplied strings into a JavaScript template without encoding.

D:

Inspect server certificate SAN, chain trust, expiry and revocation status, negotiated protocol, and handshake errors. This evidence addresses TLS certificate authentication and PKI; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect browser rendering contexts, state-changing HTTP endpoints, session cookie attributes, and request verification tokens. Situation: A product site places customer-supplied strings into a JavaScript template without encoding.

Question 223

A remote laptop bypasses cloud inspection after its client traffic forwarding service silently stops. Before changing security policy, what evidence should the engineer examine FIRST?

  1. Inspect observed resolver clients, domain pivots, domain categorization, timestamps, threat indicators, and access logs.
  2. Inspect client connector state, network tunnel health, identity source, route exclusions, and effective access policy.
  3. Inspect connector registration, reachability to application backends, DNS resolution, user session logs, and connector redundancy.
  4. Inspect security service requirements, remote site connectivity, traffic steering, policy locations, and branch routing control.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Inspect client connector state, network tunnel health, identity source, route exclusions, and effective access policy. This checks the relevant condition before an engineer modifies production access or detection behavior. A cloud security point of presence enforces policies only for the traffic and identities actually steered to it; the product name alone does not guarantee coverage. The controlled response would be: Direct relevant internet and private application traffic through supported cloud security enforcement with explicit user and device context. Situation: A remote laptop bypasses cloud inspection after its client traffic forwarding service silently stops.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect observed resolver clients, domain pivots, domain categorization, timestamps, threat indicators, and access logs. This evidence addresses Investigate infrastructure attribution and false positives; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect client connector state, network tunnel health, identity source, route exclusions, and effective access policy. Situation: A remote laptop bypasses cloud inspection after its client traffic forwarding service silently stops.

C:

Inspect connector registration, reachability to application backends, DNS resolution, user session logs, and connector redundancy. This evidence addresses Private app connector resilience and troubleshooting; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect client connector state, network tunnel health, identity source, route exclusions, and effective access policy. Situation: A remote laptop bypasses cloud inspection after its client traffic forwarding service silently stops.

D:

Inspect security service requirements, remote site connectivity, traffic steering, policy locations, and branch routing control. This evidence addresses SSE compared with SASE architecture; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect client connector state, network tunnel health, identity source, route exclusions, and effective access policy. Situation: A remote laptop bypasses cloud inspection after its client traffic forwarding service silently stops.

Question 224

A payment network needs an inline prevention device but cannot tolerate an unexpected single-point failure during business hours. Which Cisco security control or operational response BEST addresses the stated need?

  1. Use Dynamic ARP Inspection with reliable IP-to-MAC bindings to reject forged ARP claims on untrusted access interfaces.
  2. Choose a supported inline security deployment that matches failure-mode and uptime requirements while retaining explicit intrusion policy enforcement.
  3. Compare running Cisco IOS XE or Secure Firewall settings to an applicable CIS benchmark, document justified exceptions, and remediate deviations.
  4. Deploy stateful inspection at defined trust boundaries and enable intrusion inspection on traffic paths where attack detection and blocking are required.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Choose a supported inline security deployment that matches failure-mode and uptime requirements while retaining explicit intrusion policy enforcement. This control addresses the failure mechanism and narrows the enforcement boundary. Inline IPS can interrupt malicious traffic but insertion into a critical path requires planned high availability and transparent failure decisions. Confirm pre-change conditions using: Review fail-open or fail-closed expectations, high-availability topology, interface mode, IPS rule state, and packet counters. Situation: A payment network needs an inline prevention device but cannot tolerate an unexpected single-point failure during business hours.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Use Dynamic ARP Inspection with reliable IP-to-MAC bindings to reject forged ARP claims on untrusted access interfaces. This response applies to Dynamic ARP inspection and spoofed gateway, not the controlling requirement in this case. DAI relies on trustworthy binding information; enabling inspection without handling static addressing can interrupt legitimate users. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Choose a supported inline security deployment that matches failure-mode and uptime requirements while retaining explicit intrusion policy enforcement. Situation: A payment network needs an inline prevention device but cannot tolerate an unexpected single-point failure during business hours.

C:

Compare running Cisco IOS XE or Secure Firewall settings to an applicable CIS benchmark, document justified exceptions, and remediate deviations. This response applies to CIS device configuration baseline assessment, not the controlling requirement in this case. Security benchmarks are version-specific prescriptive baselines; blindly applying all recommendations without operational review can disrupt required services. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Choose a supported inline security deployment that matches failure-mode and uptime requirements while retaining explicit intrusion policy enforcement. Situation: A payment network needs an inline prevention device but cannot tolerate an unexpected single-point failure during business hours.

D:

Deploy stateful inspection at defined trust boundaries and enable intrusion inspection on traffic paths where attack detection and blocking are required. This response applies to Stateful firewall and IPS placement, not the controlling requirement in this case. A stateful firewall tracks sessions and permitted flows; an IPS examines suspicious content and requires traffic visibility and appropriate inline enforcement. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Choose a supported inline security deployment that matches failure-mode and uptime requirements while retaining explicit intrusion policy enforcement. Situation: A payment network needs an inline prevention device but cannot tolerate an unexpected single-point failure during business hours.

Question 225

An IT team needs to remove a prohibited remote desktop app from company-issued laptops without deleting legitimate tools. Which TWO complementary steps provide the most defensible remediation and its supporting assessment? Select TWO.

  1. Inspect OS patch level, installed applications, configuration baselines, exception evidence, and last check-in.
  2. A device losing mandatory protection is reclassified or disconnected without waiting for a scheduled monthly audit.
  3. Use supported device management controls to enforce software update, application inventory, and secure configuration requirements for endpoints.
  4. Inspect email platform, API permissions, journaling architecture, allowed mail-flow changes, product entitlement, and required remediation actions.
  5. Maintain managed device inventory with ownership, encryption, update, and enrollment policies before granting enterprise application access.

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

Inspect OS patch level, installed applications, configuration baselines, exception evidence, and last check-in. This checks the relevant condition before an engineer modifies production access or detection behavior. Device management can deploy settings and collect compliance status; a successful enrollment alone does not prove ongoing patch health. The controlled response would be: Use supported device management controls to enforce software update, application inventory, and secure configuration requirements for endpoints. This supplies the diagnostic evidence needed for the complementary action. Situation: An IT team needs to remove a prohibited remote desktop app from company-issued laptops without deleting legitimate tools.

C:

Use supported device management controls to enforce software update, application inventory, and secure configuration requirements for endpoints. This control addresses the failure mechanism and narrows the enforcement boundary. Device management can deploy settings and collect compliance status; a successful enrollment alone does not prove ongoing patch health. Confirm pre-change conditions using: Inspect OS patch level, installed applications, configuration baselines, exception evidence, and last check-in. This is the implementation portion of the complementary pair. Situation: An IT team needs to remove a prohibited remote desktop app from company-issued laptops without deleting legitimate tools.

Incorrect Answers

B:

A device losing mandatory protection is reclassified or disconnected without waiting for a scheduled monthly audit. This step could matter for Continuous endpoint trust and posture drift but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Use supported device management controls to enforce software update, application inventory, and secure configuration requirements for endpoints. and Inspect OS patch level, installed applications, configuration baselines, exception evidence, and last check-in. Situation: An IT team needs to remove a prohibited remote desktop app from company-issued laptops without deleting legitimate tools.

D:

Inspect email platform, API permissions, journaling architecture, allowed mail-flow changes, product entitlement, and required remediation actions. This step could matter for Email Threat Defense deployment mode selection but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Use supported device management controls to enforce software update, application inventory, and secure configuration requirements for endpoints. and Inspect OS patch level, installed applications, configuration baselines, exception evidence, and last check-in. Situation: An IT team needs to remove a prohibited remote desktop app from company-issued laptops without deleting legitimate tools.

E:

Maintain managed device inventory with ownership, encryption, update, and enrollment policies before granting enterprise application access. This step could matter for MDM device enrollment and inventory but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Use supported device management controls to enforce software update, application inventory, and secure configuration requirements for endpoints. and Inspect OS patch level, installed applications, configuration baselines, exception evidence, and last check-in. Situation: An IT team needs to remove a prohibited remote desktop app from company-issued laptops without deleting legitimate tools.

Question 226

A Microsoft 365 team wants phishing visibility without rerouting SMTP transport and evaluates a supplemental integration. Which Cisco security control or operational response BEST addresses the stated need?

  1. Choose supported Email Threat Defense supplementary mailbox visibility or inline gateway enforcement according to platform and pre-delivery requirements.
  2. Interpret Cisco Secure Endpoint detection events using file, process, device, event time, and connected-host context before declaring an infection scope.
  3. Choose endpoint prevention, behavioral detection, and response capabilities based on business risk and investigation needs rather than equating antivirus with EDR.
  4. Configure Cisco Secure Email Threat Defense to detect or remediate phishing and business email compromise using appropriate supported integration and policy.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Choose supported Email Threat Defense supplementary mailbox visibility or inline gateway enforcement according to platform and pre-delivery requirements. This control addresses the failure mechanism and narrows the enforcement boundary. Cisco ETD deployment options differ: a supplemental mailbox visibility path and a supported gateway path have different enforcement timing and platform prerequisites. Confirm pre-change conditions using: Inspect email platform, API permissions, journaling architecture, allowed mail-flow changes, product entitlement, and required remediation actions. Situation: A Microsoft 365 team wants phishing visibility without rerouting SMTP transport and evaluates a supplemental integration.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Interpret Cisco Secure Endpoint detection events using file, process, device, event time, and connected-host context before declaring an infection scope. This response applies to Secure Endpoint detection event trajectory, not the controlling requirement in this case. An endpoint detection event records what the connector observed and did; a block, quarantine, detection, and retrospective verdict are distinct states. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Choose supported Email Threat Defense supplementary mailbox visibility or inline gateway enforcement according to platform and pre-delivery requirements. Situation: A Microsoft 365 team wants phishing visibility without rerouting SMTP transport and evaluates a supplemental integration.

C:

Choose endpoint prevention, behavioral detection, and response capabilities based on business risk and investigation needs rather than equating antivirus with EDR. This response applies to Endpoint protection versus detection response, not the controlling requirement in this case. EPP focuses preventative controls and EDR records and investigates suspicious endpoint activity and supports response; the capabilities overlap but are not interchangeable. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Choose supported Email Threat Defense supplementary mailbox visibility or inline gateway enforcement according to platform and pre-delivery requirements. Situation: A Microsoft 365 team wants phishing visibility without rerouting SMTP transport and evaluates a supplemental integration.

D:

Configure Cisco Secure Email Threat Defense to detect or remediate phishing and business email compromise using appropriate supported integration and policy. This response applies to Email Threat Defense anti impersonation controls, not the controlling requirement in this case. Email Threat Defense uses message and behavioral context; an authenticated sender domain or clean attachment does not prove a message is safe. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Choose supported Email Threat Defense supplementary mailbox visibility or inline gateway enforcement according to platform and pre-delivery requirements. Situation: A Microsoft 365 team wants phishing visibility without rerouting SMTP transport and evaluates a supplemental integration.

Question 227

A customer search field accepts an apostrophe-rich string and returns every account instead of the requested record. Before changing security policy, what evidence should the engineer examine FIRST?

  1. Review asset versions, affected component evidence, external reachability, exploit preconditions, compensating controls, and vendor advisories.
  2. Inspect API documentation, token scope, request headers, JSON schema, response status, and transaction logs.
  3. Inspect dynamic SQL construction, query logs, supplied payloads, database role privileges, and application input paths.
  4. Inspect existing policy objects, API conflict or retry responses, object identifiers, approvals, and rollback artifacts.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Inspect dynamic SQL construction, query logs, supplied payloads, database role privileges, and application input paths. This checks the relevant condition before an engineer modifies production access or detection behavior. SQL injection exploits code/data confusion; input sanitization alone is weaker than parameterization plus least privilege. The controlled response would be: Prevent SQL injection by separating untrusted field values from query structure using parameter binding and constrained database privileges. Situation: A customer search field accepts an apostrophe-rich string and returns every account instead of the requested record.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Review asset versions, affected component evidence, external reachability, exploit preconditions, compensating controls, and vendor advisories. This evidence addresses CVE and CVSS vulnerability prioritization; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect dynamic SQL construction, query logs, supplied payloads, database role privileges, and application input paths. Situation: A customer search field accepts an apostrophe-rich string and returns every account instead of the requested record.

B:

Inspect API documentation, token scope, request headers, JSON schema, response status, and transaction logs. This evidence addresses Authenticated security API requests; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect dynamic SQL construction, query logs, supplied payloads, database role privileges, and application input paths. Situation: A customer search field accepts an apostrophe-rich string and returns every account instead of the requested record.

D:

Inspect existing policy objects, API conflict or retry responses, object identifiers, approvals, and rollback artifacts. This evidence addresses Idempotent policy automation and rollback; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect dynamic SQL construction, query logs, supplied payloads, database role privileges, and application input paths. Situation: A customer search field accepts an apostrophe-rich string and returns every account instead of the requested record.

Question 228

A finance workstation launches suspicious PowerShell and connects to several internal servers shortly afterward. Which observed result BEST confirms that the security requirement is met?

  1. Approved endpoint protection components report the expected state and client connectivity reflects configured enterprise policy.
  2. A malicious process is blocked or investigated with a traceable endpoint action instead of relying only on file signature matching.
  3. A crafted executive impersonation email is identified and removed or blocked according to the supported deployment mode.
  4. The compromised host cannot communicate laterally and an investigator can access the necessary retained evidence safely.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

The compromised host cannot communicate laterally and an investigator can access the necessary retained evidence safely. This is an observable acceptance condition, rather than an assumption that enabling a feature alone proves security. Endpoint isolation contains spread but can interrupt critical operations; response must balance urgency, containment scope, and evidence preservation. Situation: A finance workstation launches suspicious PowerShell and connects to several internal servers shortly afterward.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Approved endpoint protection components report the expected state and client connectivity reflects configured enterprise policy. This outcome tests Cisco Secure Client module and posture visibility and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: The compromised host cannot communicate laterally and an investigator can access the necessary retained evidence safely. Situation: A finance workstation launches suspicious PowerShell and connects to several internal servers shortly afterward.

B:

A malicious process is blocked or investigated with a traceable endpoint action instead of relying only on file signature matching. This outcome tests Endpoint protection versus detection response and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: The compromised host cannot communicate laterally and an investigator can access the necessary retained evidence safely. Situation: A finance workstation launches suspicious PowerShell and connects to several internal servers shortly afterward.

C:

A crafted executive impersonation email is identified and removed or blocked according to the supported deployment mode. This outcome tests Email Threat Defense anti impersonation controls and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: The compromised host cannot communicate laterally and an investigator can access the necessary retained evidence safely. Situation: A finance workstation launches suspicious PowerShell and connects to several internal servers shortly afterward.

Question 229

A company discovers three hundred outdated laptops with no assigned owner in its endpoint platform. Before changing security policy, what evidence should the engineer examine FIRST?

  1. Inspect OS patch level, installed applications, configuration baselines, exception evidence, and last check-in.
  2. Inspect file trajectory, device trajectory, hash reputation, user identity, process parentage, and action taken.
  3. Inspect MDM enrollment status, device serial identifiers, operating system version, policy compliance, and assigned owner.
  4. Inspect disposition change, prevalence, isolation status, affected host roles, event sequence, and unresolved detections.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Inspect MDM enrollment status, device serial identifiers, operating system version, policy compliance, and assigned owner. This checks the relevant condition before an engineer modifies production access or detection behavior. A managed device inventory links technical posture to accountability; simply knowing an IP address does not establish device trust. The controlled response would be: Maintain managed device inventory with ownership, encryption, update, and enrollment policies before granting enterprise application access. Situation: A company discovers three hundred outdated laptops with no assigned owner in its endpoint platform.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect OS patch level, installed applications, configuration baselines, exception evidence, and last check-in. This evidence addresses MDM application and patch compliance; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect MDM enrollment status, device serial identifiers, operating system version, policy compliance, and assigned owner. Situation: A company discovers three hundred outdated laptops with no assigned owner in its endpoint platform.

B:

Inspect file trajectory, device trajectory, hash reputation, user identity, process parentage, and action taken. This evidence addresses Secure Endpoint detection event trajectory; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect MDM enrollment status, device serial identifiers, operating system version, policy compliance, and assigned owner. Situation: A company discovers three hundred outdated laptops with no assigned owner in its endpoint platform.

D:

Inspect disposition change, prevalence, isolation status, affected host roles, event sequence, and unresolved detections. This evidence addresses Endpoint malware event prioritization; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect MDM enrollment status, device serial identifiers, operating system version, policy compliance, and assigned owner. Situation: A company discovers three hundred outdated laptops with no assigned owner in its endpoint platform.

Question 230

A SOC needs to triage an encrypted connection but its only evidence is the destination port 443. Which observed result BEST confirms that the security requirement is met?

  1. The corrected handshake establishes valid security associations without weakening approved encryption or authentication standards.
  2. Tested exploit traffic is detected or blocked by the configured policy while legitimate services remain available.
  3. Firewall and switch events share consistent time ordering and protected transport to the authorized log collector.
  4. Investigators can associate suspicious encrypted connections with affected devices while private payload content remains protected.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Investigators can associate suspicious encrypted connections with affected devices while private payload content remains protected. This is an observable acceptance condition, rather than an assumption that enabling a feature alone proves security. Encrypted traffic analytics can leverage metadata and behavior; encryption reduces payload visibility and does not make a flow automatically benign. Situation: A SOC needs to triage an encrypted connection but its only evidence is the destination port 443.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The corrected handshake establishes valid security associations without weakening approved encryption or authentication standards. This outcome tests FTD IKE negotiation failure isolation and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: Investigators can associate suspicious encrypted connections with affected devices while private payload content remains protected. Situation: A SOC needs to triage an encrypted connection but its only evidence is the destination port 443.

B:

Tested exploit traffic is detected or blocked by the configured policy while legitimate services remain available. This outcome tests FTD intrusion policy and malware detection and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: Investigators can associate suspicious encrypted connections with affected devices while private payload content remains protected. Situation: A SOC needs to triage an encrypted connection but its only evidence is the destination port 443.

C:

Firewall and switch events share consistent time ordering and protected transport to the authorized log collector. This outcome tests Secure syslog and timestamp correlation and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: Investigators can associate suspicious encrypted connections with affected devices while private payload content remains protected. Situation: A SOC needs to triage an encrypted connection but its only evidence is the destination port 443.

Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies (350-701) Practice Tests