cert
cert-1
cert-2

Pass Cisco 350-701 Exam in First Attempt Guaranteed!

Get 100% Latest Exam Questions, Accurate & Verified Answers to Pass the Actual Exam!
30 Days Free Updates, Instant Download!

cert-5
cert-6
350-701 Exam - Verified By Experts
350-701 Premium Bundle
$29.98

350-701 Premium Bundle

$79.99
$109.97
  • Premium File 789 Questions & Answers. Last update: Nov 02, 2026
  • Training Course 299 Video Lectures
  • Study Guide 701 Pages
 
$109.97
$79.99
accept 48 downloads in last 7 days
block-screenshots
Purchase Cisco 350-701 Exam Training Products Individually
Cisco 350-701 Premium File
Premium File 789 Q&A
$76.99$69.99
Cisco 350-701 Video Training Course
Training Course 299 Lectures
$21.99 $19.99
Cisco 350-701 PDF Study Guide
Study Guide 701 Pages
$21.99 $19.99
Cisco 350-701 Practice Test 114

Question 1130

Twenty branch FTD firewalls each have a different locally created outbound rule after several uncoordinated changes. Which TWO complementary steps provide the most defensible remediation and its supporting assessment? Select TWO.

  1. Review device count, policy commonality, deployment permissions, management channel resilience, and drift records.
  2. Choose centralized multi-device policy management for fleets while preserving appropriate emergency access and approval workflows.
  3. Assess Cisco Security Cloud Control against on-prem management requirements, identity controls, connectivity, and approved cloud operations.
  4. Inspect peer public addresses, IKE/IPsec proposals, NAT treatment, interesting traffic, and security association counters.
  5. The corrected handshake establishes valid security associations without weakening approved encryption or authentication standards.

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

Review device count, policy commonality, deployment permissions, management channel resilience, and drift records. This checks the relevant condition before an engineer modifies production access or detection behavior. Centralized managers help standardize multi-device policy, but management-plane availability and change authorization remain essential. The controlled response would be: Choose centralized multi-device policy management for fleets while preserving appropriate emergency access and approval workflows. This supplies the diagnostic evidence needed for the complementary action. Situation: Twenty branch FTD firewalls each have a different locally created outbound rule after several uncoordinated changes.

B:

Choose centralized multi-device policy management for fleets while preserving appropriate emergency access and approval workflows. This control addresses the failure mechanism and narrows the enforcement boundary. Centralized managers help standardize multi-device policy, but management-plane availability and change authorization remain essential. Confirm pre-change conditions using: Review device count, policy commonality, deployment permissions, management channel resilience, and drift records. This is the implementation portion of the complementary pair. Situation: Twenty branch FTD firewalls each have a different locally created outbound rule after several uncoordinated changes.

Incorrect Answers

C:

Assess Cisco Security Cloud Control against on-prem management requirements, identity controls, connectivity, and approved cloud operations. This step could matter for Cisco Security Cloud Control management boundary but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Choose centralized multi-device policy management for fleets while preserving appropriate emergency access and approval workflows. and Review device count, policy commonality, deployment permissions, management channel resilience, and drift records. Situation: Twenty branch FTD firewalls each have a different locally created outbound rule after several uncoordinated changes.

D:

Inspect peer public addresses, IKE/IPsec proposals, NAT treatment, interesting traffic, and security association counters. This step could matter for FTD site-to-site VPN crypto policy but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Choose centralized multi-device policy management for fleets while preserving appropriate emergency access and approval workflows. and Review device count, policy commonality, deployment permissions, management channel resilience, and drift records. Situation: Twenty branch FTD firewalls each have a different locally created outbound rule after several uncoordinated changes.

E:

The corrected handshake establishes valid security associations without weakening approved encryption or authentication standards. This step could matter for FTD IKE negotiation failure isolation but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Choose centralized multi-device policy management for fleets while preserving appropriate emergency access and approval workflows. and Review device count, policy commonality, deployment permissions, management channel resilience, and drift records. Situation: Twenty branch FTD firewalls each have a different locally created outbound rule after several uncoordinated changes.

Question 1131

A contractor with an outdated endpoint security agent is allowed the same internal VPN access as compliant employees. Before changing security policy, what evidence should the engineer examine FIRST?

  1. Inspect client connection logs, authentication flow, posture result, assigned routes, certificate policy, and headend access control.
  2. Inspect site prefix growth, routing requirements, traffic selectors, tunnel-interface support, and failover paths.
  3. Inspect business assets and trust boundaries, control coverage, failure paths, enforcement logs, and incident recovery dependencies.
  4. Inspect protected data lifetimes, protocol suites, key sizes, certificate dependencies, crypto inventory, and approved algorithm policies.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Inspect client connection logs, authentication flow, posture result, assigned routes, certificate policy, and headend access control. This checks the relevant condition before an engineer modifies production access or detection behavior. Remote access VPN authenticates a user or device and creates protected transport; reachability still depends on routes, authorizations, and posture. The controlled response would be: Protect remote workers with supported Cisco Secure Client VPN authentication, endpoint posture, split-routing policy, and controlled profile distribution. Situation: A contractor with an outdated endpoint security agent is allowed the same internal VPN access as compliant employees.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Inspect site prefix growth, routing requirements, traffic selectors, tunnel-interface support, and failover paths. This evidence addresses Route-based versus policy-based VPN design; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect client connection logs, authentication flow, posture result, assigned routes, certificate policy, and headend access control. Situation: A contractor with an outdated endpoint security agent is allowed the same internal VPN access as compliant employees.

C:

Inspect business assets and trust boundaries, control coverage, failure paths, enforcement logs, and incident recovery dependencies. This evidence addresses Defense in depth and Cisco SAFE; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect client connection logs, authentication flow, posture result, assigned routes, certificate policy, and headend access control. Situation: A contractor with an outdated endpoint security agent is allowed the same internal VPN access as compliant employees.

D:

Inspect protected data lifetimes, protocol suites, key sizes, certificate dependencies, crypto inventory, and approved algorithm policies. This evidence addresses Cryptographic hashes and post-quantum planning; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect client connection logs, authentication flow, posture result, assigned routes, certificate policy, and headend access control. Situation: A contractor with an outdated endpoint security agent is allowed the same internal VPN access as compliant employees.

Question 1132

A customer search field accepts an apostrophe-rich string and returns every account instead of the requested record. Which TWO complementary steps provide the most defensible remediation and its supporting assessment? Select TWO.

  1. A stolen integration token cannot read unrelated records and anomalous access triggers containment and credential replacement.
  2. Apply context-aware output encoding, anti-CSRF protections, and correct cookie controls at the relevant trust boundary.
  3. Prevent SQL injection by separating untrusted field values from query structure using parameter binding and constrained database privileges.
  4. Inspect dynamic SQL construction, query logs, supplied payloads, database role privileges, and application input paths.
  5. Inspect site prefix growth, routing requirements, traffic selectors, tunnel-interface support, and failover paths.

Explanation

Correct Answers

C:

Prevent SQL injection by separating untrusted field values from query structure using parameter binding and constrained database privileges. This control addresses the failure mechanism and narrows the enforcement boundary. SQL injection exploits code/data confusion; input sanitization alone is weaker than parameterization plus least privilege. Confirm pre-change conditions using: Inspect dynamic SQL construction, query logs, supplied payloads, database role privileges, and application input paths. This is the implementation portion of the complementary pair. Situation: A customer search field accepts an apostrophe-rich string and returns every account instead of the requested record.

D:

Inspect dynamic SQL construction, query logs, supplied payloads, database role privileges, and application input paths. This checks the relevant condition before an engineer modifies production access or detection behavior. SQL injection exploits code/data confusion; input sanitization alone is weaker than parameterization plus least privilege. The controlled response would be: Prevent SQL injection by separating untrusted field values from query structure using parameter binding and constrained database privileges. This supplies the diagnostic evidence needed for the complementary action. Situation: A customer search field accepts an apostrophe-rich string and returns every account instead of the requested record.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A stolen integration token cannot read unrelated records and anomalous access triggers containment and credential replacement. This step could matter for Cloud API breach and lateral movement but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Prevent SQL injection by separating untrusted field values from query structure using parameter binding and constrained database privileges. and Inspect dynamic SQL construction, query logs, supplied payloads, database role privileges, and application input paths. Situation: A customer search field accepts an apostrophe-rich string and returns every account instead of the requested record.

B:

Apply context-aware output encoding, anti-CSRF protections, and correct cookie controls at the relevant trust boundary. This step could matter for Web injection and request forgery but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Prevent SQL injection by separating untrusted field values from query structure using parameter binding and constrained database privileges. and Inspect dynamic SQL construction, query logs, supplied payloads, database role privileges, and application input paths. Situation: A customer search field accepts an apostrophe-rich string and returns every account instead of the requested record.

E:

Inspect site prefix growth, routing requirements, traffic selectors, tunnel-interface support, and failover paths. This step could matter for Route-based versus policy-based VPN design but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Prevent SQL injection by separating untrusted field values from query structure using parameter binding and constrained database privileges. and Inspect dynamic SQL construction, query logs, supplied payloads, database role privileges, and application input paths. Situation: A customer search field accepts an apostrophe-rich string and returns every account instead of the requested record.

Question 1133

A company blocks text containing a short number pattern and accidentally rejects thousands of normal invoices. Before changing security policy, what evidence should the engineer examine FIRST?

  1. Inspect AI application usage records, policy category, sensitive text classification, prompt upload paths, and employee roles.
  2. Inspect data classifiers, exact-match or pattern quality, sanctioned SaaS domains, upload channel visibility, and allowed exceptions.
  3. Inspect identity or network group matching, DNS and HTTP policy, category verdicts, policy priority, and traffic forwarding health.
  4. Inspect connector registration, reachability to application backends, DNS resolution, user session logs, and connector redundancy.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Inspect data classifiers, exact-match or pattern quality, sanctioned SaaS domains, upload channel visibility, and allowed exceptions. This checks the relevant condition before an engineer modifies production access or detection behavior. DLP identifies and governs data movement but its coverage depends on content visibility, supported connectors, and correctly scoped classifiers. The controlled response would be: Create data loss prevention policies for defined sensitive patterns and approved destinations, with detection tuning and response actions. Situation: A company blocks text containing a short number pattern and accidentally rejects thousands of normal invoices.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect AI application usage records, policy category, sensitive text classification, prompt upload paths, and employee roles. This evidence addresses AI application guardrails and shadow AI; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect data classifiers, exact-match or pattern quality, sanctioned SaaS domains, upload channel visibility, and allowed exceptions. Situation: A company blocks text containing a short number pattern and accidentally rejects thousands of normal invoices.

C:

Inspect identity or network group matching, DNS and HTTP policy, category verdicts, policy priority, and traffic forwarding health. This evidence addresses Cisco Secure Access internet use policy; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect data classifiers, exact-match or pattern quality, sanctioned SaaS domains, upload channel visibility, and allowed exceptions. Situation: A company blocks text containing a short number pattern and accidentally rejects thousands of normal invoices.

D:

Inspect connector registration, reachability to application backends, DNS resolution, user session logs, and connector redundancy. This evidence addresses Private app connector resilience and troubleshooting; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect data classifiers, exact-match or pattern quality, sanctioned SaaS domains, upload channel visibility, and allowed exceptions. Situation: A company blocks text containing a short number pattern and accidentally rejects thousands of normal invoices.

Question 1134

A critical healthcare workstation is flagged for malware and the SOC must decide safe containment without losing evidence. Which Cisco security control or operational response BEST addresses the stated need?

  1. Configure Cisco Secure Email Threat Defense to detect or remediate phishing and business email compromise using appropriate supported integration and policy.
  2. Choose endpoint prevention, behavioral detection, and response capabilities based on business risk and investigation needs rather than equating antivirus with EDR.
  3. Isolate high-risk endpoints using approved EDR response while preserving evidence and controlled paths for incident handling.
  4. Scope endpoint detection exclusions narrowly and verify business application behavior after updates without disabling broad antimalware protections.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Isolate high-risk endpoints using approved EDR response while preserving evidence and controlled paths for incident handling. This control addresses the failure mechanism and narrows the enforcement boundary. Endpoint isolation contains spread but can interrupt critical operations; response must balance urgency, containment scope, and evidence preservation. Confirm pre-change conditions using: Inspect endpoint detection confidence, host role, active communications, isolation capabilities, and forensic evidence collection. Situation: A critical healthcare workstation is flagged for malware and the SOC must decide safe containment without losing evidence.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Configure Cisco Secure Email Threat Defense to detect or remediate phishing and business email compromise using appropriate supported integration and policy. This response applies to Email Threat Defense anti impersonation controls, not the controlling requirement in this case. Email Threat Defense uses message and behavioral context; an authenticated sender domain or clean attachment does not prove a message is safe. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Isolate high-risk endpoints using approved EDR response while preserving evidence and controlled paths for incident handling. Situation: A critical healthcare workstation is flagged for malware and the SOC must decide safe containment without losing evidence.

B:

Choose endpoint prevention, behavioral detection, and response capabilities based on business risk and investigation needs rather than equating antivirus with EDR. This response applies to Endpoint protection versus detection response, not the controlling requirement in this case. EPP focuses preventative controls and EDR records and investigates suspicious endpoint activity and supports response; the capabilities overlap but are not interchangeable. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Isolate high-risk endpoints using approved EDR response while preserving evidence and controlled paths for incident handling. Situation: A critical healthcare workstation is flagged for malware and the SOC must decide safe containment without losing evidence.

D:

Scope endpoint detection exclusions narrowly and verify business application behavior after updates without disabling broad antimalware protections. This response applies to Secure Endpoint response exclusions and policy safety, not the controlling requirement in this case. Broad folder or process exclusions can create lasting blind spots; false-positive tuning requires evidence and defined review dates. For this scenario, the targeted action is: Isolate high-risk endpoints using approved EDR response while preserving evidence and controlled paths for incident handling. Situation: A critical healthcare workstation is flagged for malware and the SOC must decide safe containment without losing evidence.

Question 1135

A government archive holds decades-long confidential data while no one tracks which TLS and PKI algorithms protect it. Which observed result BEST confirms that the security requirement is met?

  1. Protected traffic crosses the tunnel with authenticated peers and encrypted data even behind the intended NAT device.
  2. Injected script is displayed inertly and forged cross-site requests cannot perform authorized state changes without valid defenses.
  3. Poisoned documents or swapped model dependencies fail integrity or access checks before affecting sensitive answers.
  4. Tampered artifacts fail integrity verification and long-lived confidential workflows have a documented algorithm migration path.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Tampered artifacts fail integrity verification and long-lived confidential workflows have a documented algorithm migration path. This is an observable acceptance condition, rather than an assumption that enabling a feature alone proves security. A bare hash does not provide secrecy; post-quantum preparation requires crypto-agility planning rather than claiming traditional algorithms are already future-proof. Situation: A government archive holds decades-long confidential data while no one tracks which TLS and PKI algorithms protect it.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Protected traffic crosses the tunnel with authenticated peers and encrypted data even behind the intended NAT device. This outcome tests IPsec IKE and NAT traversal and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: Tampered artifacts fail integrity verification and long-lived confidential workflows have a documented algorithm migration path. Situation: A government archive holds decades-long confidential data while no one tracks which TLS and PKI algorithms protect it.

B:

Injected script is displayed inertly and forged cross-site requests cannot perform authorized state changes without valid defenses. This outcome tests Web injection and request forgery and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: Tampered artifacts fail integrity verification and long-lived confidential workflows have a documented algorithm migration path. Situation: A government archive holds decades-long confidential data while no one tracks which TLS and PKI algorithms protect it.

C:

Poisoned documents or swapped model dependencies fail integrity or access checks before affecting sensitive answers. This outcome tests Embedding and model supply chain risk and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: Tampered artifacts fail integrity verification and long-lived confidential workflows have a documented algorithm migration path. Situation: A government archive holds decades-long confidential data while no one tracks which TLS and PKI algorithms protect it.

Question 1136

An API handler joins an untrusted order identifier directly into an SQL WHERE clause. Before changing security policy, what evidence should the engineer examine FIRST?

  1. Inspect client connection logs, authentication flow, posture result, assigned routes, certificate policy, and headend access control.
  2. Review asset versions, affected component evidence, external reachability, exploit preconditions, compensating controls, and vendor advisories.
  3. Inspect dynamic SQL construction, query logs, supplied payloads, database role privileges, and application input paths.
  4. Inspect IKE proposal mismatches, pre-shared or certificate identity, UDP 500 or 4500 reachability, NAT detection, and phase negotiation logs.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Inspect dynamic SQL construction, query logs, supplied payloads, database role privileges, and application input paths. This checks the relevant condition before an engineer modifies production access or detection behavior. SQL injection exploits code/data confusion; input sanitization alone is weaker than parameterization plus least privilege. The controlled response would be: Prevent SQL injection by separating untrusted field values from query structure using parameter binding and constrained database privileges. Situation: An API handler joins an untrusted order identifier directly into an SQL WHERE clause.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect client connection logs, authentication flow, posture result, assigned routes, certificate policy, and headend access control. This evidence addresses Remote access VPN client controls; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect dynamic SQL construction, query logs, supplied payloads, database role privileges, and application input paths. Situation: An API handler joins an untrusted order identifier directly into an SQL WHERE clause.

B:

Review asset versions, affected component evidence, external reachability, exploit preconditions, compensating controls, and vendor advisories. This evidence addresses CVE and CVSS vulnerability prioritization; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect dynamic SQL construction, query logs, supplied payloads, database role privileges, and application input paths. Situation: An API handler joins an untrusted order identifier directly into an SQL WHERE clause.

D:

Inspect IKE proposal mismatches, pre-shared or certificate identity, UDP 500 or 4500 reachability, NAT detection, and phase negotiation logs. This evidence addresses IPsec IKE and NAT traversal; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect dynamic SQL construction, query logs, supplied payloads, database role privileges, and application input paths. Situation: An API handler joins an untrusted order identifier directly into an SQL WHERE clause.

Question 1137

Two office FTD peers establish an IKE session but an application subnet is absent from the protected traffic definition. Which TWO complementary steps provide the most defensible remediation and its supporting assessment? Select TWO.

  1. Configure Cisco Secure Client remote access to FTD with supported authentication, client profile, access restrictions, and split tunnel settings.
  2. Configure FTD site-to-site VPN using compatible peer parameters, network selectors, identities, and routing/access rules, then verify both tunnel phases.
  3. Offers from an unauthorized user port are dropped while legitimate clients receive leases and bindings are learned.
  4. Review device count, policy commonality, deployment permissions, management channel resilience, and drift records.
  5. Inspect peer public addresses, IKE/IPsec proposals, NAT treatment, interesting traffic, and security association counters.

Explanation

Correct Answers

B:

Configure FTD site-to-site VPN using compatible peer parameters, network selectors, identities, and routing/access rules, then verify both tunnel phases. This control addresses the failure mechanism and narrows the enforcement boundary. Successful VPN peer authentication does not prove application forwarding; selectors, route tables, NAT, and access policies also govern data traffic. Confirm pre-change conditions using: Inspect peer public addresses, IKE/IPsec proposals, NAT treatment, interesting traffic, and security association counters. This is the implementation portion of the complementary pair. Situation: Two office FTD peers establish an IKE session but an application subnet is absent from the protected traffic definition.

E:

Inspect peer public addresses, IKE/IPsec proposals, NAT treatment, interesting traffic, and security association counters. This checks the relevant condition before an engineer modifies production access or detection behavior. Successful VPN peer authentication does not prove application forwarding; selectors, route tables, NAT, and access policies also govern data traffic. The controlled response would be: Configure FTD site-to-site VPN using compatible peer parameters, network selectors, identities, and routing/access rules, then verify both tunnel phases. This supplies the diagnostic evidence needed for the complementary action. Situation: Two office FTD peers establish an IKE session but an application subnet is absent from the protected traffic definition.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Configure Cisco Secure Client remote access to FTD with supported authentication, client profile, access restrictions, and split tunnel settings. This step could matter for Cisco Secure Client remote VPN policy but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Configure FTD site-to-site VPN using compatible peer parameters, network selectors, identities, and routing/access rules, then verify both tunnel phases. and Inspect peer public addresses, IKE/IPsec proposals, NAT treatment, interesting traffic, and security association counters. Situation: Two office FTD peers establish an IKE session but an application subnet is absent from the protected traffic definition.

C:

Offers from an unauthorized user port are dropped while legitimate clients receive leases and bindings are learned. This step could matter for DHCP snooping trust and rogue server control but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Configure FTD site-to-site VPN using compatible peer parameters, network selectors, identities, and routing/access rules, then verify both tunnel phases. and Inspect peer public addresses, IKE/IPsec proposals, NAT treatment, interesting traffic, and security association counters. Situation: Two office FTD peers establish an IKE session but an application subnet is absent from the protected traffic definition.

D:

Review device count, policy commonality, deployment permissions, management channel resilience, and drift records. This step could matter for Centralized firewall manager versus local control but is not part of the required complementary pair for this case. The paired steps are: Configure FTD site-to-site VPN using compatible peer parameters, network selectors, identities, and routing/access rules, then verify both tunnel phases. and Inspect peer public addresses, IKE/IPsec proposals, NAT treatment, interesting traffic, and security association counters. Situation: Two office FTD peers establish an IKE session but an application subnet is absent from the protected traffic definition.

Question 1138

A newly deployed SNMPv3 user can authenticate but privacy negotiation fails after the device cipher settings change. Which observed result BEST confirms that the security requirement is met?

  1. An authorized automation client commits only permitted device changes and unauthorized API operations fail without modifying running state.
  2. Investigators can associate suspicious encrypted connections with affected devices while private payload content remains protected.
  3. An unauthorized small switch cannot flood excessive MAC identities or form an unintended Layer 2 loop without detection.
  4. An unauthorized host cannot query network inventory while approved monitoring obtains the required counters over protected access.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

An unauthorized host cannot query network inventory while approved monitoring obtains the required counters over protected access. This is an observable acceptance condition, rather than an assumption that enabling a feature alone proves security. SNMPv3 supports integrity and encryption for management queries when authPriv is configured; SNMPv1 community strings do not provide equivalent protection. Situation: A newly deployed SNMPv3 user can authenticate but privacy negotiation fails after the device cipher settings change.

Incorrect Answers

A:

An authorized automation client commits only permitted device changes and unauthorized API operations fail without modifying running state. This outcome tests NETCONF RESTCONF and API management security and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: An unauthorized host cannot query network inventory while approved monitoring obtains the required counters over protected access. Situation: A newly deployed SNMPv3 user can authenticate but privacy negotiation fails after the device cipher settings change.

B:

Investigators can associate suspicious encrypted connections with affected devices while private payload content remains protected. This outcome tests Encrypted network telemetry and correlated detection and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: An unauthorized host cannot query network inventory while approved monitoring obtains the required counters over protected access. Situation: A newly deployed SNMPv3 user can authenticate but privacy negotiation fails after the device cipher settings change.

C:

An unauthorized small switch cannot flood excessive MAC identities or form an unintended Layer 2 loop without detection. This outcome tests Layer 2 port hardening and storm control and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: An unauthorized host cannot query network inventory while approved monitoring obtains the required counters over protected access. Situation: A newly deployed SNMPv3 user can authenticate but privacy negotiation fails after the device cipher settings change.

Question 1139

A cloud firewall dashboard shows a successful rule draft but deployment state on one offline appliance remains unverified. Which observed result BEST confirms that the security requirement is met?

  1. Shared approved rules deploy consistently across devices and local exceptions remain tracked without uncontrolled divergence.
  2. An engineer logs in successfully but forbidden configuration commands are denied and recorded for review.
  3. A simulated sensor failure follows the approved availability policy and exploit test traffic is blocked only when inspection is actually inline.
  4. Supported appliances receive tracked approved policies through the chosen management plane without granting excessive console privilege.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Supported appliances receive tracked approved policies through the chosen management plane without granting excessive console privilege. This is an observable acceptance condition, rather than an assumption that enabling a feature alone proves security. Cloud-managed network policy still requires per-device compatibility, secure enrollment, change governance, and management connectivity. Situation: A cloud firewall dashboard shows a successful rule draft but deployment state on one offline appliance remains unverified.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Shared approved rules deploy consistently across devices and local exceptions remain tracked without uncontrolled divergence. This outcome tests Centralized firewall manager versus local control and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: Supported appliances receive tracked approved policies through the chosen management plane without granting excessive console privilege. Situation: A cloud firewall dashboard shows a successful rule draft but deployment state on one offline appliance remains unverified.

B:

An engineer logs in successfully but forbidden configuration commands are denied and recorded for review. This outcome tests TACACS+ administration authorization and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: Supported appliances receive tracked approved policies through the chosen management plane without granting excessive console privilege. Situation: A cloud firewall dashboard shows a successful rule draft but deployment state on one offline appliance remains unverified.

C:

A simulated sensor failure follows the approved availability policy and exploit test traffic is blocked only when inspection is actually inline. This outcome tests Inline IPS availability and bypass behavior and is not sufficient proof of the stated requirement. Here the relevant validation is: Supported appliances receive tracked approved policies through the chosen management plane without granting excessive console privilege. Situation: A cloud firewall dashboard shows a successful rule draft but deployment state on one offline appliance remains unverified.

Question 1140

An employee successfully authenticates to FTD using Secure Client but has no route for a newly approved subnet. Before changing security policy, what evidence should the engineer examine FIRST?

  1. Inspect group policy selection, identity provider/RADIUS logs, VPN address pool, route list, certificate profile, and access-control logs.
  2. Inspect peer public addresses, IKE/IPsec proposals, NAT treatment, interesting traffic, and security association counters.
  3. Inspect application detectors, URL category verdicts, rule conditions, encrypted-session visibility, and identity matches.
  4. Inspect supported device inventory, tenant enrollment, API roles, internet management path, change evidence, and local fallback.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Inspect group policy selection, identity provider/RADIUS logs, VPN address pool, route list, certificate profile, and access-control logs. This checks the relevant condition before an engineer modifies production access or detection behavior. Remote client tunnel success, user authentication, and authorized application reachability are distinct troubleshooting checkpoints. The controlled response would be: Configure Cisco Secure Client remote access to FTD with supported authentication, client profile, access restrictions, and split tunnel settings. Situation: An employee successfully authenticates to FTD using Secure Client but has no route for a newly approved subnet.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Inspect peer public addresses, IKE/IPsec proposals, NAT treatment, interesting traffic, and security association counters. This evidence addresses FTD site-to-site VPN crypto policy; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect group policy selection, identity provider/RADIUS logs, VPN address pool, route list, certificate profile, and access-control logs. Situation: An employee successfully authenticates to FTD using Secure Client but has no route for a newly approved subnet.

C:

Inspect application detectors, URL category verdicts, rule conditions, encrypted-session visibility, and identity matches. This evidence addresses Application visibility control and URL filtering; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect group policy selection, identity provider/RADIUS logs, VPN address pool, route list, certificate profile, and access-control logs. Situation: An employee successfully authenticates to FTD using Secure Client but has no route for a newly approved subnet.

D:

Inspect supported device inventory, tenant enrollment, API roles, internet management path, change evidence, and local fallback. This evidence addresses Cisco Security Cloud Control management boundary; it would not establish the primary issue here. The diagnostic evidence needed for this scenario is: Inspect group policy selection, identity provider/RADIUS logs, VPN address pool, route list, certificate profile, and access-control logs. Situation: An employee successfully authenticates to FTD using Secure Client but has no route for a newly approved subnet.

Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies (350-701) Practice Tests