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Cisco 200-301 Practice Test 11

Question 100

After an HSRP failover, R2 remains active. R1 comes back with a higher configured priority, but the design wants R1 to reclaim active status automatically. What feature is relevant?

  1. BPDU Filter on the VLAN trunk
  2. HSRP preempt on the preferred router, with suitable recovery delay if needed
  3. A larger host subnet mask on every workstation
  4. Disabling all HSRP hello messages

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

HSRP preempt allows a router with a higher eligible priority to reclaim the active role after it returns, instead of allowing the surviving router to remain active indefinitely. Here R2 took over during R1's outage, and R1 is preferred by configuration. Enable preempt on R1 and consider a recovery delay so its routes and interfaces are healthy before takeover. The same virtual gateway remains visible to hosts; preemption changes which router owns that forwarding identity.

Incorrect Answers

A:

BPDU Filter changes how selected spanning-tree ports process bridge protocol data units; it is a Layer 2 loop-prevention configuration, not a first-hop redundancy election mechanism. Enabling it to influence HSRP could introduce switching loops while leaving the desired active-gateway behavior unresolved. HSRP uses virtual IP ownership, priority and relevant preemption behavior, so the returning router should be configured at the HSRP group rather than on unrelated trunk BPDU controls.

C:

Changing workstation subnet masks affects which IP destinations hosts consider local and whether they send frames toward their default gateway. It has no role in an HSRP router reclaiming active status after restoration. The hosts should continue using the stable HSRP virtual gateway, so altering all their masks introduces addressing faults without solving the first-hop redundancy role transition. Configure preemption on the preferred router instead.

D:

HSRP hello messages help group members detect one another and coordinate active/standby state and failover. Disabling the control messages would prevent orderly state awareness and can lead to unstable or incorrect active roles. The desired behavior is for a recovered higher-priority R1 to preempt R2 after it is ready, not to silence HSRP coordination. Preserve the protocol's health detection and enable the specific preemption feature.

Question 101

At the top of show ip route, the line says Gateway of last resort is not set, although the router has connected routes for two local networks. What should the engineer infer?

  1. The router has no connected interfaces in service
  2. No IPv4 default route is selected for otherwise unmatched destinations
  3. OSPF must be enabled before local hosts can reach each other
  4. The route table is corrupt because every router must have a default

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

The gateway-of-last-resort message reports that the router has no selected IPv4 default path for destinations unmatched by any more-specific route. Connected networks can still exchange reachable traffic through their existing prefixes, but an arbitrary remote address without a matching route has no fallback next hop. Check for an intended static 0.0.0.0/0 route or a dynamically learned default if Internet or remote catchall forwarding is required.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The router can have working connected IPv4 interfaces and still lack a default route. Connected prefixes appear when the associated routed interfaces are operational, independently of whether a gateway of last resort exists. The displayed line therefore does not establish that the local links are down. Investigate the connected route entries and interface status separately instead of interpreting this default-route diagnostic as proof of no live interfaces.

C:

OSPF is one way to exchange routes among routers, not a prerequisite for using directly connected IPv4 networks. The device can route between two operational connected subnets using those entries without a dynamic routing protocol. If hosts cannot reach one another, inspect interface state, addressing, ACLs and forwarding rather than assuming the missing default route proves OSPF must be enabled. The diagnostic addresses a fallback path, not interior-protocol configuration.

D:

A default route is optional when the router knows all relevant destinations through connected, static or dynamic specific prefixes. In a tightly scoped lab or isolated segment, a gateway of last resort may deliberately be absent. The routing table is not corrupt merely because its default is unset; the operator should judge whether unmatched traffic is intended to be dropped or forwarded to an upstream gateway. The stated connected routes remain valid.

Question 102

A Catalyst switch connects to a third-party switch that transmits LLDP advertisements. Which command shows expanded LLDP neighbor details such as advertised system name and management address, when available?

  1. show cdp neighbors detail
  2. show spanning-tree summary
  3. show ip ospf neighbor
  4. show lldp neighbors detail

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

The detailed LLDP neighbor command reads information that the third-party switch advertises using IEEE 802.1AB, including remote system name, chassis/port identifiers and management address when supplied. It is a standards-based, multivendor discovery view and therefore matches the stated protocol. LLDP must be enabled and packets received on the local interface; a missing optional field may reflect what the remote switch actually advertises rather than an error in the command.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The show cdp neighbors detail command reports expanded information learned through Cisco Discovery Protocol, including identifiers and addresses when neighbors advertise them. The far-end device in this case is third-party and specifically sends LLDP advertisements, so CDP output is not the appropriate evidence source. A Cisco switch may support both discovery protocols simultaneously, but the engineer must inspect the protocol actually carrying the neighbor's information.

B:

A spanning-tree summary reports loop-prevention state and bridge activity on applicable VLANs, not the management address and system name advertised by a neighboring device. It can help diagnose an Ethernet forwarding topology, but it will not parse LLDP type-length-value fields. Since the third-party peer is announcing its identity using LLDP, the relevant CLI inspection must address the LLDP neighbor database rather than STP operational summaries.

C:

show ip ospf neighbor lists routing adjacencies, router IDs and related state for OSPFv2 where that protocol runs. A Layer 2 switch neighbor can send LLDP frames without running OSPF at all. Even when OSPF is enabled between devices, its adjacency table does not substitute for detailed LLDP chassis, port, system and management information. The scenario asks for advertised Layer 2 discovery attributes rather than IP route-protocol peers.

Question 103

Two router LAN interfaces have valid IPv6 addresses but the IOS device is not forwarding IPv6 packets between them. Which global command should be checked?

  1. ip routing
  2. ipv6 unicast-routing
  3. ipv6 enable on each interface only
  4. ipv6 cef without enabling IPv6 unicast routing

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

ipv6 unicast-routing is the Cisco IOS global command that permits the router to forward IPv6 unicast packets between its routed interfaces. The two interfaces already have valid IPv6 addresses, so assigning additional addresses is not the missing transit-forwarding function. After enabling routing, verify the IPv6 route table, neighbor discovery and any ACLs; this command establishes forwarding capability but cannot repair unrelated path failures or policy restrictions.

Incorrect Answers

A:

ip routing controls IPv4 routing behavior on IOS platforms that support such a global switch. It does not enable the corresponding IPv6 unicast forwarding feature by itself. A device can carry IPv6 interface addresses for local communication while still not forwarding IPv6 packets between separate links. Check the IPv6-specific routing setting and associated interface states rather than treating an IPv4 configuration keyword as sufficient for both protocol families.

C:

An ipv6 enable command can activate IPv6 on a specific interface and produce a link-local address, supporting local neighbor discovery and other functions. That does not replace global authorization for the router to carry traffic from one IPv6 network to another. The problem explicitly concerns transit forwarding between two IPv6-addressed interfaces, making an interface-only enablement insufficient even if each link can communicate with its immediate neighbors.

D:

Cisco Express Forwarding supports efficient packet forwarding by using prepared forwarding tables, and an IPv6 CEF setting may affect the implementation on applicable devices. It is not a substitute for enabling IPv6 unicast routing at the global level. Fast forwarding mechanisms still depend on valid routes and routing-enabled packet processing. The missing capability in the described case is basic IPv6 transit forwarding, not merely hardware-acceleration configuration.

Question 104

An extended IPv4 ACL on a router must block TCP connections from subnet 10.50.0.0/16 to host 203.0.113.80 destination port 23. Which ACE expresses this exact traffic class?

  1. deny ip host 203.0.113.80 10.50.0.0 0.0.255.255
  2. deny udp 10.50.0.0 0.0.255.255 host 203.0.113.80 eq 23
  3. deny tcp 10.50.0.0 0.0.255.255 host 203.0.113.80 eq 23
  4. deny tcp any any eq 22

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

The extended ACL statement selects TCP, source 10.50.0.0 with wildcard 0.0.255.255, and the single destination host 203.0.113.80 with destination port 23. The wildcard covers the specified /16 source range while host restricts the target to one address. This is the precise class described. The engineer must also apply the ACL in an appropriate interface direction and account for implicit deny and any other required permit statements.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This ACE uses the generic IP protocol rather than TCP and reverses the role of the specified destination host and source subnet. It cannot precisely identify TCP connections originating from 10.50.0.0/16 and targeting Telnet port 23 on 203.0.113.80. An extended ACL evaluates protocol, source, destination and optional ports in a defined syntax, so changing the protocol and address direction would substantially alter the traffic matched.

B:

UDP is a different transport protocol from TCP, and the question specifically targets TCP connections to destination port 23. Although the source wildcard and destination host are otherwise arranged correctly, an ACE beginning with deny udp would match UDP datagrams rather than those TCP connections. Telnet normally uses TCP port 23. A syntactically plausible ACL with the wrong transport leaves the very traffic class the operator intended to block unaffected.

D:

deny tcp any any eq 22 targets SSH on TCP destination port 22 from any source to any destination, not Telnet on port 23 to the one named server. Its broad matching addresses could unintentionally block authorized administrative sessions elsewhere. ACL specificity matters: source subnet, protocol, target host and target destination port are all constraints in the stem. Matching only an unrelated well-known port is neither functionally accurate nor appropriately narrow.

Question 105

An engineer uses a generative AI assistant to draft an IOS change plan from an incident description. Which safeguard matters most before applying the suggested commands?

  1. Validate the commands and intended impact against authoritative device documentation and a controlled test
  2. Automatically paste the entire output into all production routers
  3. Disable console and out-of-band recovery access for the maintenance window
  4. Assume every model output is a Cisco support-approved configuration

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Generative text can propose IOS commands that look convincing while using unsupported syntax, wrong interface names or assumptions absent from the actual topology. The safe procedure is to compare the plan with Cisco device documentation and the intended change, then validate it in a lab or controlled stage before deployment. Human review must include rollback and access recovery because a single incorrect routing or security command could lock out administrators or interrupt production.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Blindly copying model output into every production router can multiply one incorrect change across the entire fleet. The model cannot independently verify live interface numbering, software versions or organization-specific reachability and security policy. Centralized automation is valuable once changes are reviewed and tested, but scale increases potential blast radius. A production rollout should be staged, logged and reversible rather than treating generated prose as a ready-to-execute configuration script.

C:

Console and out-of-band channels are recovery mechanisms when a routing, ACL or remote-management change disrupts normal network access. Disabling those paths before applying unverified generated commands makes a bad change harder to reverse. A sound maintenance plan confirms recovery access and rollback instructions instead. The user asks for the safeguard that precedes deployment of a proposed IOS change; removing administrative safety routes worsens operational risk.

D:

A language-model response does not acquire Cisco validation or vendor support status merely because its output uses IOS terminology. The correctness of a command depends on platform family, running release, feature licenses and existing configuration. Support documentation and authoritative device syntax must be checked separately, and proposed behavior should be tested. A vendor may publish examples, but an unsourced generated plan cannot be assumed to be an approved change procedure.

Question 106

An isolated lab has no external time source. Its designated Cisco router should advertise its own clock as an NTP reference for internal devices, with suitable lab-only policy. Which command supports that server role?

  1. ntp server pool.ntp.org
  2. show ntp status
  3. ntp master 5
  4. clock timezone NTP 5

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

ntp master 5 allows the IOS router to act as a local NTP reference at the specified stratum for laboratory clients even without a higher-quality upstream source. This directly fits the isolated environment and the deliberate lab-only policy. The local router clock may drift and should not masquerade as an authoritative enterprise or public time service; when an actual trusted reference becomes available, configure normal synchronization rather than relying on the local master.

Incorrect Answers

A:

ntp server pool.ntp.org configures the router as a client of the named external time source, assuming DNS, reachability and NTP access work. The question expressly describes a disconnected laboratory with no upstream clock, so this command does not make its router an autonomous local reference. It would instead leave synchronization dependent on an unreachable outside peer. Use the lab-only local master facility to serve internal clients from the router's clock.

B:

show ntp status is a verification command that reports synchronization state, stratum and related NTP data on a device. Reading the clock status does not configure a time source for other switches or routers. It can be useful after applying the intended server configuration to confirm behavior, but it cannot itself advertise a local clock reference. The operator needs a configuration directive, not a diagnostic display command.

D:

A clock timezone setting changes how local time is displayed relative to UTC, for example by defining a timezone label and offset. It does not initialize the NTP association mechanism or make the router advertise a reference stratum to clients. Timezone presentation and NTP synchronization are distinct concepts: NTP concerns synchronized time values, while timezone offsets affect how operators view timestamps. The proposed argument order is not a replacement for ntp master.

Question 107

Two valid OSPF next hops each have the same cost to 10.60.0.0/16 and the platform supports equal-cost multipath. Which description is appropriate?

  1. Only the lexically first OSPF neighbor can be installed
  2. Both equal-cost next hops can be installed for ECMP forwarding
  3. The router must use the IPv4 default route instead
  4. OSPF automatically merges the two IPv4 next-hop addresses into one synthetic IP

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

OSPF can install multiple equal-cost paths to the same destination prefix when the router supports and permits equal-cost multipath. Each installed next hop retains its real neighbor address, allowing forwarding to share traffic according to the platform's hashing behavior. The question explicitly supplies equal OSPF cost and platform support, satisfying the core prerequisites. ECMP is not necessarily one-packet round robin, and it does not require fabricating a combined gateway address.

Incorrect Answers

A:

OSPF path choice is based on reachability and metrics rather than alphabetical or lexical ordering of neighbor identities. If two eligible next hops have equal computed costs for the same prefix, a platform supporting multipath can retain more than one forwarding next hop. Choosing only the first neighbor by text order would discard useful load-sharing and redundancy. Configuration limits and route-installation policy may restrict ECMP, but a lexical-order rule is not the relevant mechanism.

C:

An IPv4 default route is a fallback for destinations without a more-specific matching installed route. Here the router already knows the explicit 10.60.0.0/16 prefix through two healthy equal-cost OSPF paths, so a default would not be selected over them. ECMP compares eligible routes to that same prefix after normal routing decisions. Choosing the least-specific /0 route would ignore the appropriate installed destination entry.

D:

OSPF installs separate next-hop reachability information; it does not construct a synthetic IPv4 next-hop address by mathematically merging two neighbors' addresses. The router may choose among real next hops according to a flow hash or supported load-balancing behavior. The destination route remains 10.60.0.0/16 while the forwarding entry carries multiple next-hop adjacencies. A fabricated aggregate neighbor address would generally have no direct Layer 2 resolution or routing meaning.

Question 108

An operator needs a one-line list of Port-channel interfaces, their Layer 2/Layer 3 flags and whether member interfaces are bundled or suspended. Which command is most appropriate?

  1. show ip route
  2. show interfaces trunk
  3. show cdp neighbors
  4. show etherchannel summary

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

show etherchannel summary gives a compact list of channel groups and Port-channel interfaces, including flags for Layer 2/Layer 3 behavior and member-interface states. Those flags help detect a port that is suspended instead of bundled. This is precisely the requested operational summary. If a member is missing, follow up with LACP and interface compatibility checks such as speed, mode, trunk properties and allowed VLAN alignment.

Incorrect Answers

A:

show ip route displays Layer 3 destination prefixes, route sources and next-hop information. It is useful if a routed Port-channel is experiencing an IP reachability problem, but it does not list physical EtherChannel member state or flag suspended links. The request is for a compact bundle summary identifying the logical interface and which ports joined the aggregation. A routing table cannot provide that Layer 2/LACP membership detail.

B:

show interfaces trunk identifies ports operating as VLAN trunks and displays allowed or active VLAN information. A Port-channel may carry trunked VLANs, but this view does not directly report whether a particular member port is bundled, suspended or configured as a routed versus switched channel. EtherChannel health is a separate aggregation question. Use the EtherChannel summary view to inspect group numbers, logical interface flags and physical member flags.

C:

show cdp neighbors provides Cisco Discovery Protocol neighbor identities and adjacent interface information. It may show devices connected to individual physical members, but does not report the LACP/PAgP bundling status of those members. A neighbor can be discoverable even if an interface is not participating correctly in the logical Port-channel. The operator needs a local aggregation status command, not a link-neighbor inventory.

Question 109

A Cisco training diagram labels 2001:db8:100::10 as a sample IPv6 unicast address and explicitly notes that 2001:db8::/32 is reserved for documentation. Which broader address-space classification does its leading 2001 prefix illustrate?

  1. The address belongs to link-local fe80::/10 and is confined to a single link
  2. The address belongs to multicast ff00::/8 and is delivered to a group
  3. It has global-unicast address structure within 2000::/3, but the example prefix is not publicly routable
  4. The address belongs to unique-local fc00::/7 for independently chosen enterprise internal prefixes

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

An address beginning with 2001 has the structural form of IPv6 global-unicast space under the broad 2000::/3 allocation. However, 2001:db8::/32 is specially reserved for examples, so this exact sample must not be represented as a publicly routed production host. The distinction is between address-type structure and a particular prefix's allocation policy. Classifying it as public reachability merely from its leading bits would miss the documentation exception provided in the stem.

Incorrect Answers

A:

IPv6 link-local unicast uses the fe80::/10 range and is meaningful on one attached link rather than a public routed destination. The displayed address begins with 2001 and is not inside fe80::/10. An engineer may configure both types on an interface, but they serve different address scopes. The question tests classification from leading bits while expressly identifying 2001:db8 as documentation-only, not the local-link neighbor address family.

B:

IPv6 multicast destination addresses begin with ff00::/8 and deliver to a group according to their scope and membership behavior. The example 2001:db8:100::10 does not start with ff and has a unicast-shaped structure. It is neither an all-nodes group nor another multicast group just because it is used in a network training diagram. Documentation reservations and multicast semantics are independent classification properties.

D:

Unique-local IPv6 unicast falls within fc00::/7, commonly appearing with fd prefixes when locally generated. That address family supports internal routing plans without ordinary public Internet allocation. A 2001:db8 example does not fall in fc00::/7 and cannot be relabeled as ULA simply because a training network keeps it offline. Internal use of a documentation example does not alter its formal leading-bit classification or reservation purpose.

Question 110

Which TWO switch configuration actions are ordinarily necessary to use DHCP snooping for hosts in VLAN 20 while accepting DHCP server messages from the uplink? Choose TWO.

  1. Set every workstation-facing access port to DHCP snooping trusted
  2. Enable DHCP snooping globally and for VLAN 20
  3. Disable the VLAN 20 SVI default gateway
  4. Mark the known DHCP-server-facing uplink trusted with ip dhcp snooping trust
  5. Assign all client MAC addresses to the STP root table

Explanation

Correct Answers

B:

DHCP snooping must be enabled at the relevant switch level and for VLAN 20 so the feature actually inspects traffic in the client VLAN. This establishes the protection domain in which server replies from untrusted interfaces can be rejected. Configuration details vary by Catalyst platform, but global enablement plus the VLAN selection are the necessary starting point. Merely marking one port trusted without enabling inspection on the VLAN would not supply the requested control.

D:

ip dhcp snooping trust marks the known DHCP-server-facing uplink as an allowed source for server responses. Combined with DHCP snooping enabled for VLAN 20, this lets legitimate replies arrive while untrusted user ports remain restricted. The trust setting must be applied only where the network design genuinely places authorized DHCP service or relay traffic; incorrectly trusting a client port would create the bypass the feature is meant to prevent.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Ports connected to untrusted workstation endpoints should generally remain untrusted under DHCP snooping; that classification prevents a client from supplying unauthorized server-style replies. Trusting every user-facing port would permit rogue DHCP OFFER or ACK messages on those ports and undermine the protection. DHCP snooping operates by inspecting DHCP messages and enforcing trusted ingress locations. The scenario requires permitting the known server uplink, not granting unrestricted trust throughout VLAN 20.

C:

The VLAN 20 SVI supplies a routed default gateway if the switch is performing Layer 3 forwarding for the client subnet. DHCP snooping is a Layer 2 trust mechanism and does not require removing that gateway. Disabling the SVI might break normal off-subnet connectivity while leaving the rogue-server problem conceptually separate. Keep addressing and routing functional, and apply DHCP snooping to distinguish authorized server-facing paths from untrusted client access ports.

E:

Spanning Tree Protocol chooses loop-free Layer 2 forwarding paths using bridge and port roles; it does not hold a list of endpoint MAC addresses for authorizing DHCP servers. A request to put every client MAC in an STP root table confuses topology control with DHCP message inspection. DHCP snooping uses VLAN enablement and trusted interface designation to control DHCP replies, not the root bridge election data structures.

Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) (200-301) Practice Tests