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Cisco 200-301 Practice Test 10

Question 90

An administrator enters a password and then approves the login using a hardware authenticator that holds a separate cryptographic key. What security principle is illustrated?

  1. Two passwords count as two independent factors
  2. Multifactor authentication using knowledge and possession
  3. Authorization without any authentication
  4. A change from TCP to UDP for SSH

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

A password is a knowledge factor, while a hardware security authenticator holding a cryptographic private key is a possession factor. Requiring both provides multifactor authentication: compromise of only the password should not automatically satisfy the separate authenticator proof. The second step still must validate the legitimate device and secure challenge response, but the two different categories satisfy the principle. Authorization to enter configuration mode would remain a separate decision after successful authentication.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Two separate passwords are still examples of the same knowledge factor: something the administrator knows. Using more than one password can add steps, but it does not by itself provide independent possession or inherence protection. A genuine multifactor design combines categories, such as a password and a hardware authenticator storing a separate cryptographic secret. The question explicitly supplies those different categories, which distinguishes it from simply requiring two passwords.

C:

Authorization controls which commands or resources an identified administrator may use; it does not replace the authentication checks proving the identity. In the scenario the administrator enters a password and uses a separate hardware cryptographic authenticator, clearly describing two authentication proofs. Permission to configure the switch could be assessed afterward by role or AAA policy, but the question asks what security property the login itself demonstrates. That property is multifactor authentication.

D:

TCP and UDP are transport protocols, not authentication factor categories. Standard SSH remote terminal sessions normally run over TCP, and choosing a different transport would not convert a password into independent cryptographic possession proof. The hardware authenticator's separate key creates the second factor in this scenario. Network port or protocol configuration may affect connectivity and security, but is not the reason the login is multifactor.

Question 91

R1 must route the remote IPv6 network 2001:db8:220:10::/64 to neighbor 2001:db8:100::2. Which statically configured line matches the required destination?

  1. ipv6 route 2001:db8:100::/64 2001:db8:220:10::2
  2. ipv6 route 2001:db8:220:10::/64 2001:db8:100::2
  3. ipv6 route ::/0 2001:db8:100::2
  4. ip route 2001:db8:220:10::/64 2001:db8:100::2

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

The IOS IPv6 static route must specify the desired destination prefix followed by a reachable next-hop IPv6 address. ipv6 route 2001:db8:220:10::/64 2001:db8:100::2 places the remote /64 first and the neighboring router second, exactly as required. The example prefixes are documentation addresses appropriate for an isolated lab; production would use actual allocated prefixes. The next-hop address must also be resolvable over R1's attached link for the route to forward successfully.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This proposed ipv6 route reverses the remote destination and the next-hop identities. It asks IOS to route the neighbor's local 2001:db8:100::/64 link toward an address in the remote 2001:db8:220:10:: subnet, rather than reaching the remote subnet through the neighboring router. Static routes require the DESTINATION prefix first and the next hop after it. Reversing them would not accomplish the stated forwarding requirement.

C:

An IPv6 default route uses::/0 and sends ALL otherwise unmatched destinations toward a next hop. That would be much broader than the specifically requested 2001:db8:220:10::/64 network, potentially affecting unrelated traffic. A default may be useful on a stub router with one approved exit, but this question asks to install a route for one remote subnet only. Use that exact /64 prefix instead of a catch-all destination.

D:

The ip route command family defines IPv4 static routes and uses IPv4 destination/mask syntax. The scenario concerns IPv6 addresses and a remote IPv6 /64, which IOS configures with ipv6 route. An IPv6 address cannot simply be dropped into the IPv4 command in place of a dotted-decimal destination. Select the correct address family and specify the actual remote prefix and its neighboring next hop.

Question 92

After a maintenance script deletes VLAN 45 from switch B, its interface Gi1/0/8 still lists access VLAN 45, but data traffic no longer passes. Switch A retains VLAN 45 and the interswitch trunk is operational. What should be fixed first on switch B?

  1. Add an IP default route on the Layer 2 access switch
  2. Recreate and activate VLAN 45 in switch B’s local VLAN database
  3. Disable spanning tree on both switches
  4. Change the PC subnet mask from /24 to /25

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Switch B's access port is assigned to VLAN 45, but the VLAN was deleted from the local database, so the port cannot forward ordinary data in that nonexistent/inactive VLAN. Recreate VLAN 45 and ensure it is active on switch B, then verify the access port and trunk allow-list/operational forwarding. Switch A's VLAN presence does not automatically guarantee switch B has the same VLAN. This is an L2 membership/state problem, not an addressing or routing problem.

Incorrect Answers

A:

An IP default route directs unmatched Layer 3 destinations toward a next hop. It does not create a deleted VLAN in a Layer 2 switch's VLAN database or restore bridging for that access VLAN. The problem occurs immediately after a script removes VLAN 45 from switch B while its access port still references it. Even perfect routed reachability cannot substitute for a locally active VLAN that the switch needs to forward frames.

C:

Spanning tree prevents dangerous Ethernet loops and controls which redundant Layer 2 paths forward. Disabling it on both switches is not a safe way to restore a VLAN deleted from switch B, and it can cause broadcast storms in a redundant campus. The scenario states the interswitch trunk is operational and identifies a specific missing local VLAN. Repair that configuration before evaluating any separate STP blocking state.

D:

Changing the workstation subnet mask alters which IPv4 destinations it regards as local, but it does not recreate VLAN 45 on the switch. The host might still be unable to send any Layer 2 frames through the port when its assigned VLAN is inactive. The cause is a VLAN database deletion on switch B, explicitly timed with the service loss, so subnet recalculation is irrelevant as the first fix.

Question 93

A router LAN interface uses 10.40.18.78/28. A newly deployed server on the same VLAN has the same /28 subnet mask and must communicate directly with that router interface. Which IPv4 address can the server use without conflicting with the router?

  1. 10.40.18.65
  2. 10.40.18.80
  3. 10.40.18.63
  4. 10.40.18.79

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

The router's 10.40.18.78/28 interface belongs to network 10.40.18.64/28, spanning addresses.64 through.79. Conventional usable host values are.65 through.78, with.78 already taken by the router and.79 reserved as broadcast. Address 10.40.18.65 is therefore a valid different host in the same on-link subnet. On the shared VLAN the two devices can resolve each other's MAC addresses directly through ARP.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Address 10.40.18.80 begins the next /28 network block, 10.40.18.80 through.95. With matching /28 masks, a server at.80 would not consider router.78 directly on-link and would require routing or a different address plan. The question requires same-VLAN, same-subnet direct communication without a conflicting address. Choosing the neighboring network identifier cannot satisfy that local subnet requirement.

C:

Address 10.40.18.63 is outside the router's 10.40.18.64/28 network; it is the upper endpoint of the preceding /27 block 10.40.18.32–.63. It cannot act as a conventional host in the.64/28 segment. The most relevant check is the /28 block size of sixteen, which places.78 inside.64–.79 and excludes.63 entirely, regardless of sharing a physical VLAN.

D:

Address.79 is the directed broadcast of the router's.64/28 block, because it is the highest address after four /28 host bits are set to one. It is not a conventional unicast address assignable to the server. Although it lies numerically in the same subnet interval as.78, that is not sufficient: network and broadcast identifiers remain reserved under the ordinary host allocation model specified here.

Question 94

R1 runs router ospf 10; its peer R2 runs router ospf 200. Their interfaces share the same subnet, area 0 and compatible adjacency settings, with unique router IDs. What does the process-ID difference mean?

  1. They cannot form a neighbor relationship until both use process number 10
  2. The two routers must run separate IPv4 address families
  3. The process-ID values may differ without preventing adjacency
  4. The higher process ID always becomes the designated router

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Cisco OSPF process IDs identify local routing-process configuration instances and are not transmitted as a compatibility requirement for forming an OSPFv2 neighbor relationship. R1 can use process 10 while R2 uses 200 and still form adjacency when area, IP subnet, timers, authentication and other relevant settings match. The question explicitly removes those possible blockers, leaving process-ID difference as the only difference. It is therefore not an adjacency failure cause.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The OSPF process ID is locally significant to each Cisco router and does not need to match across neighbors. Requiring R2 to change from 200 to 10 would be unnecessary if the actual adjacency parameters—area, IP reachability, hello/dead timers, authentication and compatible settings—are correct. A mismatch in one of those real parameters might prevent adjacency, but the process number difference alone does not do so. The stem explicitly states those settings are compatible.

B:

Different OSPF process numbers do not force routers into different IP address families. The question explicitly describes OSPFv2 peers with matching subnet and area 0, so both participate in IPv4 link-state routing independently of their locally chosen process identifiers. OSPFv3 and IPv6 are separate configuration considerations, not an automatic effect of one router using process 10 and another using process 200.

D:

On an OSPF broadcast network, designated-router elections consider OSPF interface priority and applicable router-ID tie-breakers, not the local process ID's numerical magnitude. A router running process 200 is not automatically elected DR over a neighbor running process 10. The stem provides no interface priorities or router IDs that would establish a winner. Process identifiers are local configuration labels rather than DR preference metrics.

Question 95

A fabric carries several logical tenant segments across the same routed IP transport. What is the chief reason for an overlay in this architecture?

  1. To replace all physical links with software objects
  2. To make router control-plane protocols unnecessary on every possible design
  3. To convert private IPv4 addresses into public addresses automatically
  4. To present logical connectivity and segmentation independent of the exact transport topology

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

An overlay presents logical connectivity and tenant segmentation independently of the specific physical switch links and routed paths used by the underlay. Encapsulation can carry separated tenant segments across a shared routed IP fabric while the underlay supplies tunnel-endpoint reachability. This lets operators change transport topology without redefining every logical tenant network, subject to platform and control-plane design. It does not remove the need for a healthy physical network or appropriate security isolation.

Incorrect Answers

A:

An overlay depends on the physical and routed underlay to carry its encapsulated packets between network nodes. Software-defined virtual segments do not make fiber, Ethernet ports, IP transport, or forwarding hardware disappear. An overlay instead maps logical tenant connectivity over that existing transport, often using encapsulation. If the underlay loses IP reachability between tunnel endpoints, the overlay typically cannot preserve end-to-end service by ignoring that physical failure.

B:

Some designs use routing protocols in the underlay and different control mechanisms for overlay reachability. Creating virtual segments does not universally eliminate BGP, OSPF, or other routing requirements; the correct protocol choices depend on scale and topology. The question asks what overlay connectivity adds atop a routed transport, not how to remove all possible routing control planes. A functioning underlay remains a prerequisite for encapsulated forwarding.

C:

Private-to-public IPv4 address translation is a NAT function, separate from creating logical segments over an IP transport. An overlay may carry private IPv4 or IPv6 tenant traffic without changing the tenant source addresses to public ones. Routing and security policies can decide how such traffic exits to the Internet, but address translation is not the chief reason for an overlay fabric described here. The intended benefit is logical connectivity independence.

Question 96

An IOS router should assign eligible inside hosts addresses from pool OUTSIDE (203.0.113.20-203.0.113.29) using standard ACL 7, without port overload. Which statement creates the dynamic NAT rule?

  1. ip nat inside source static 7 OUTSIDE
  2. ip nat outside source list 7 pool OUTSIDE
  3. ip nat inside source list 7 pool OUTSIDE
  4. ip nat inside source list 7 interface OUTSIDE

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

ip nat inside source list 7 pool OUTSIDE ties inside-source dynamic NAT to addresses matching standard ACL 7 and allocates translated inside-global addresses from the named pool. Because the command omits the overload keyword, it is not the port-overload PAT form. The pool's configured 203.0.113.20–.29 values must be reachable as appropriate, with inside/outside interface roles and ACL matching correctly set. This exactly implements dynamic pool-based NAT for eligible inside hosts.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Static inside-source NAT maps a specific inside-local address to a specific inside-global address, rather than selecting eligible hosts through an ACL and allocating addresses dynamically from a pool. The proposed tokens do not form the standard static NAT statement for the requested ACL-based design. A one-to-one permanent server publishing requirement might use static mapping, but this scenario demands temporary pool allocations for matching internal clients without overload.

B:

An outside-source NAT configuration translates addresses from the outside perspective, not the eligible inside hosts described in the question. The standard ACL identifies inside clients that may use pool OUTSIDE, and the command must therefore begin ip nat inside source. Choosing the outside form would fail to apply the intended translation to those internal client source addresses. The inside/outside interface roles must also be assigned appropriately.

D:

The syntax interface OUTSIDE is not the requested dynamic pool allocation form, and an interface-targeted PAT design commonly uses an actual interface identifier plus overload when multiple inside devices share one global address. The stem explicitly supplies a named NAT pool with several addresses and prohibits port overload. Substitute pool OUTSIDE in the inside-source statement rather than trying to use the pool name as an interface reference.

Question 97

An employee on a hotel Wi-Fi network needs an encrypted path to authorized corporate internal applications from one managed laptop. What VPN model directly matches this user session?

  1. A permanent LACP EtherChannel between LAN switches
  2. An IPsec remote-access VPN client terminating on an approved headend
  3. A root bridge configured with STP priority 0
  4. A static NAT binding at the hotel router

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

A remote-access IPsec VPN client can authenticate a managed laptop and establish an encrypted tunnel to an approved enterprise VPN headend across the hotel Internet connection. This provides access to authorized internal applications according to identity, endpoint, and network policy without requiring a site-to-site gateway at the hotel. The VPN must be configured with secure certificates or credentials, routing, and permitted split- or full-tunnel behavior. It directly matches the single-user remote session described.

Incorrect Answers

A:

LACP EtherChannel aggregates compatible physical Ethernet links between neighboring network devices. It cannot provide an encrypted IP tunnel from an individual hotel Wi-Fi laptop to corporate internal applications across the Internet. A link aggregation group might be used somewhere inside an enterprise network, but it does not authenticate a remote employee or create a protected client-to-gateway connection. The stated need is remote access for one managed device.

C:

Changing STP priority elects a root bridge within an Ethernet spanning-tree instance and helps control local switching paths. It neither encrypts traffic across public Wi-Fi nor authenticates an off-site user to a corporate network. A hotel laptop would not become a valid participant in the enterprise's spanning-tree topology through such a setting. The security requirement concerns a remote-access tunnel, not local Layer 2 loop avoidance.

D:

Static NAT maps one address to another at a router, but does not by itself encrypt data or verify an employee's authority to reach company applications. The hotel router is also outside the enterprise's administrative control and should not be relied on for a tailored corporate remote-access policy. NAT may occur along the VPN path as a transport condition, but the security service needed here is an authenticated encrypted VPN tunnel.

Question 98

SW1 uses VLAN 10 as native on an 802.1Q interswitch trunk, but SW2 has native VLAN 99. SW1 sends an ordinary untagged frame associated with its native VLAN. How does SW2 classify that frame on ingress?

  1. SW2 places the frame in VLAN 10 because SW1 used VLAN 10 as native
  2. SW2 places the frame into its own native VLAN 99
  3. SW2 always drops untagged frames regardless of native-VLAN configuration
  4. SW2 routes the frame to the configured management default gateway

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

On an 802.1Q trunk, an untagged ingress Ethernet frame is normally associated with the receiving interface's configured native VLAN. SW2's native VLAN is 99, so the untagged frame sent from SW1's VLAN 10 is classified into VLAN 99 on SW2. This misclassification can cause unexpected traffic leakage or loss. Correct the native VLAN mismatch and verify both peers' trunk settings; VLAN membership is not carried in an untagged frame.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The receiving switch classifies an untagged frame according to its OWN operational native VLAN on the trunk, not by learning the sender's intended VLAN from an absent tag. SW1's native VLAN 10 is not encoded in the frame, so SW2 cannot infer that number solely from the Ethernet header. The native mismatch creates precisely the classification risk the scenario describes, and operators should align native VLAN configuration on both sides.

C:

Many 802.1Q trunks permit untagged frames as native-VLAN traffic rather than categorically discarding all such frames. Platforms can be hardened with tagging or dropping policies, but the question explicitly uses ordinary native VLAN behavior. SW2 therefore classifies the incoming untagged frame into its local native VLAN 99 instead of always dropping it. The exact issue is asymmetric native VLAN assignment between the two ends.

D:

A management default gateway is a Layer 3 next hop for selected off-subnet traffic originating from or routed by a device; it is not the automatic destination for every untagged Ethernet frame arriving on a switch trunk. VLAN classification happens at Layer 2 before any separate IP routing decision. The ingress switch first associates the frame with its own native VLAN, not with a management gateway simply because it arrived untagged.

Question 99

An address-planning spreadsheet labels every IPv4 address beginning with 172 as RFC1918 private. Which correction accurately defines the private portion of 172/8?

  1. Only 172.16.0.0 through 172.31.255.255 is covered by the RFC1918 172.16.0.0/12 allocation
  2. The entire 172.0.0.0/8 is an RFC1918 private allocation
  3. Only 172.0.0.0 through 172.15.255.255 is private
  4. 172.32.0.0/12 is the RFC1918 private block for 172 addresses

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

The RFC1918 private IPv4 allocation within the 172 address family is exactly 172.16.0.0/12, whose second octet ranges from 16 through 31. Addresses such as 172.20.10.5 are private, whereas 172.40.1.2 falls outside that designated block. This differs from the complete 10.0.0.0/8 and 192.168.0.0/16 private ranges. The spreadsheet must test the whole prefix rather than labeling every 172.x.x.x address as private.

Incorrect Answers

B:

The first octet 172 alone does not identify RFC1918 space. Only one /12 inside the broader 172.0.0.0/8 address space is designated private, so many addresses beginning 172 are not in the RFC1918 private allocation. Treating the whole /8 as private can corrupt routing, address inventory and policy decisions. Correct the spreadsheet logic to use the actual 172.16.0.0/12 prefix test.

C:

The second-octet interval from 0 through 15 belongs below the RFC1918 172.16.0.0/12 private block and is not the region designated for private internetwork use. A prefix comparison of 172.16/12 identifies values from 172.16.0.0 up to 172.31.255.255, inclusive. Reversing the boundary would incorrectly include addresses the organization cannot assume are private while excluding valid internal addresses.

D:

172.32.0.0 lies just beyond the upper boundary of the 172.16.0.0/12 private space. Using a /12 prefix starting at 172.32 does not recover the standard private range; it selects a different set of addresses. The actual private block spans second-octet values 16–31 and must be encoded precisely in inventory and ACL definitions. The question tests understanding of that boundary rather than any convenient /12 sharing the same first octet.

Question 100

After an HSRP failover, R2 remains active. R1 comes back with a higher configured priority, but the design wants R1 to reclaim active status automatically. What feature is relevant?

  1. BPDU Filter on the VLAN trunk
  2. HSRP preempt on the preferred router, with suitable recovery delay if needed
  3. A larger host subnet mask on every workstation
  4. Disabling all HSRP hello messages

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

HSRP preempt allows a router with a higher eligible priority to reclaim the active role after it returns, instead of allowing the surviving router to remain active indefinitely. Here R2 took over during R1's outage, and R1 is preferred by configuration. Enable preempt on R1 and consider a recovery delay so its routes and interfaces are healthy before takeover. The same virtual gateway remains visible to hosts; preemption changes which router owns that forwarding identity.

Incorrect Answers

A:

BPDU Filter changes how selected spanning-tree ports process bridge protocol data units; it is a Layer 2 loop-prevention configuration, not a first-hop redundancy election mechanism. Enabling it to influence HSRP could introduce switching loops while leaving the desired active-gateway behavior unresolved. HSRP uses virtual IP ownership, priority and relevant preemption behavior, so the returning router should be configured at the HSRP group rather than on unrelated trunk BPDU controls.

C:

Changing workstation subnet masks affects which IP destinations hosts consider local and whether they send frames toward their default gateway. It has no role in an HSRP router reclaiming active status after restoration. The hosts should continue using the stable HSRP virtual gateway, so altering all their masks introduces addressing faults without solving the first-hop redundancy role transition. Configure preemption on the preferred router instead.

D:

HSRP hello messages help group members detect one another and coordinate active/standby state and failover. Disabling the control messages would prevent orderly state awareness and can lead to unstable or incorrect active roles. The desired behavior is for a recovered higher-priority R1 to preempt R2 after it is ready, not to silence HSRP coordination. Preserve the protocol's health detection and enable the specific preemption feature.

Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) (200-301) Practice Tests