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Amazon AWS Certified DevOps Engineer - Professional DOP-C02 Practice Test 94

Question 930

A DevOps team is reviewing: An authenticated read-heavy API repeatedly queries a database for identical catalog metadata, exhausting database read capacity. Which TWO complementary actions should it take? Select TWO answers.

  1. Inspect instance warmup, health readiness, scaling events and CPU trends.
  2. Use reserved concurrency or queue buffering and controlled backpressure.
  3. Introduce an appropriate cache or replicated read path with clear invalidation rules.
  4. Map recovery dependencies, state transitions, approvals and rollback criteria.
  5. Inspect hit ratios, query rate, freshness needs and per-user access controls.

Explanation

Correct Answers

C:

Introduce an appropriate cache or replicated read path with clear invalidation rules. This is a required controlled engineering action for the stated situation: An authenticated read-heavy API repeatedly queries a database for identical catalog metadata, exhausting database read capacity. The complementary correct action is: Inspect hit ratios, query rate, freshness needs and per-user access controls. Both follow the principle: Caching or read replicas can reduce repeated reads when consistency requirements permit.

E:

Inspect hit ratios, query rate, freshness needs and per-user access controls. This is a required diagnostic evidence step for the stated situation: An authenticated read-heavy API repeatedly queries a database for identical catalog metadata, exhausting database read capacity. The complementary correct action is: Introduce an appropriate cache or replicated read path with clear invalidation rules. Both follow the principle: Caching or read replicas can reduce repeated reads when consistency requirements permit.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect instance warmup, health readiness, scaling events and CPU trends. This is suitable for another situation: An EC2 Auto Scaling policy sees high CPU during boot and launches many extra instances before new nodes can serve traffic. In this case, engineers instead need the paired investigation (Inspect hit ratios, query rate, freshness needs and per-user access controls.) and design change (Introduce an appropriate cache or replicated read path with clear invalidation rules.). These two steps address: An authenticated read-heavy API repeatedly queries a database for identical catalog metadata, exhausting database read capacity.

B:

Use reserved concurrency or queue buffering and controlled backpressure. This is suitable for another situation: A public API invokes Lambda and saturates an external payment service when automatic concurrency grows after a marketing event. In this case, engineers instead need the paired investigation (Inspect hit ratios, query rate, freshness needs and per-user access controls.) and design change (Introduce an appropriate cache or replicated read path with clear invalidation rules.). These two steps address: An authenticated read-heavy API repeatedly queries a database for identical catalog metadata, exhausting database read capacity.

D:

Map recovery dependencies, state transitions, approvals and rollback criteria. This is suitable for another situation: A failover runbook manually changes 14 DNS and compute settings in a fixed order; quarterly drills frequently skip steps. In this case, engineers instead need the paired investigation (Inspect hit ratios, query rate, freshness needs and per-user access controls.) and design change (Introduce an appropriate cache or replicated read path with clear invalidation rules.). These two steps address: An authenticated read-heavy API repeatedly queries a database for identical catalog metadata, exhausting database read capacity.

Question 931

After implementing a proposed fix, the team reviews: A public application faces high-volume abusive HTTP requests that pass the ALB security group and overwhelm login processing. Which result would BEST confirm that the risk is addressed?

  1. An image inspection finds no private key and the service rotates certificates safely.
  2. A simulated production admin compromise cannot erase retained centralized audit evidence.
  3. A load test blocks abusive patterns while approved customers remain serviceable.
  4. The application reads approved encrypted objects but cannot decrypt unrelated keys.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A load test blocks abusive patterns while approved customers remain serviceable. The approved action is: Attach a tuned WAF web ACL with suitable rate-based or managed protections. The risk principle is: AWS WAF application-layer rules can reduce abusive requests independently of network ACLs.

Incorrect Answers

A:

An image inspection finds no private key and the service rotates certificates safely. This instead addresses a different case: A custom TLS termination service stores its private key in an unencrypted public container image layer. For the stated situation (A public application faces high-volume abusive HTTP requests that pass the ALB security group and overwhelm login processing.), the better verification is: A load test blocks abusive patterns while approved customers remain serviceable. The deciding distinction is: AWS WAF application-layer rules can reduce abusive requests independently of network ACLs.

B:

A simulated production admin compromise cannot erase retained centralized audit evidence. This instead addresses a different case: An administrator can modify production resources and delete the only CloudTrail delivery bucket objects using the same role. For the stated situation (A public application faces high-volume abusive HTTP requests that pass the ALB security group and overwhelm login processing.), the better verification is: A load test blocks abusive patterns while approved customers remain serviceable. The deciding distinction is: AWS WAF application-layer rules can reduce abusive requests independently of network ACLs.

D:

The application reads approved encrypted objects but cannot decrypt unrelated keys. This instead addresses a different case: An application has s3:GetObject permission but cannot read encrypted objects after a KMS key policy update. For the stated situation (A public application faces high-volume abusive HTTP requests that pass the ALB security group and overwhelm login processing.), the better verification is: A load test blocks abusive patterns while approved customers remain serviceable. The deciding distinction is: AWS WAF application-layer rules can reduce abusive requests independently of network ACLs.

Question 932

Before changing production, engineers find: A Lambda release is invoked through an alias but the deployment pipeline overwrites the prior version identifier in its rollback records. Which investigation should the engineer perform FIRST?

  1. Inspect AppSpec hook scripts, CodeDeploy agent logs, file permissions and deployment events.
  2. Inspect published version ARNs, alias routing and rollback manifest.
  3. Review database migration compatibility, rollback requirements and old version connection behavior.
  4. Compare test populations, geographic routing, canary metrics and business error indicators.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Inspect published version ARNs, alias routing and rollback manifest. The governing principle is: Serverless rollbacks should use immutable published versions and controlled alias revisions. The next controlled engineering decision is: Keep a verifiable mapping from release to Lambda published version and restore alias on failure.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect AppSpec hook scripts, CodeDeploy agent logs, file permissions and deployment events. This instead addresses a different case: A CodeDeploy in-place EC2 release fails during ApplicationStart, but the team incorrectly treats the issue as an Auto Scaling failure. For the stated situation (A Lambda release is invoked through an alias but the deployment pipeline overwrites the prior version identifier in its rollback records.), the better investigation is: Inspect published version ARNs, alias routing and rollback manifest. The deciding distinction is: Serverless rollbacks should use immutable published versions and controlled alias revisions.

C:

Review database migration compatibility, rollback requirements and old version connection behavior. This instead addresses a different case: An application switches its ALB target group to a new version while both versions connect to a shared relational schema. For the stated situation (A Lambda release is invoked through an alias but the deployment pipeline overwrites the prior version identifier in its rollback records.), the better investigation is: Inspect published version ARNs, alias routing and rollback manifest. The deciding distinction is: Serverless rollbacks should use immutable published versions and controlled alias revisions.

D:

Compare test populations, geographic routing, canary metrics and business error indicators. This instead addresses a different case: A new payment option passes staging but causes failures only for a small set of customer geographies. For the stated situation (A Lambda release is invoked through an alias but the deployment pipeline overwrites the prior version identifier in its rollback records.), the better investigation is: Inspect published version ARNs, alias routing and rollback manifest. The deciding distinction is: Serverless rollbacks should use immutable published versions and controlled alias revisions.

Question 933

An AWS platform team investigates this condition: Production EC2 Auto Scaling launches instances from an AMI built manually months earlier with inconsistent patch levels. Which DevOps principle BEST explains the core problem?

  1. Artifact lifecycle rules must retain versions required for rollback and audit.
  2. Artifact build pipelines must prevent credential disclosure in stdout and artifacts.
  3. Infrastructure images should be rebuilt and validated through a repeatable automated process.
  4. Kubernetes update strategy must preserve ready capacity and respect disruption limits.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Infrastructure images should be rebuilt and validated through a repeatable automated process. Relevant first evidence: Review AMI build recipe, update schedule, patch evidence and launch template versions. The resulting controlled response is: Use EC2 Image Builder to build and test a versioned, hardened AMI for deployment.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Artifact lifecycle rules must retain versions required for rollback and audit. This instead addresses a different case: A deployment rolls back to a prior ECR image digest that was deleted by an aggressive lifecycle policy the previous night. For the stated situation (Production EC2 Auto Scaling launches instances from an AMI built manually months earlier with inconsistent patch levels.), the better principle is: Infrastructure images should be rebuilt and validated through a repeatable automated process. The deciding distinction is: Infrastructure images should be rebuilt and validated through a repeatable automated process.

B:

Artifact build pipelines must prevent credential disclosure in stdout and artifacts. This instead addresses a different case: A diagnostic CodeBuild command prints an authentication token to CloudWatch Logs before fetching a private package. For the stated situation (Production EC2 Auto Scaling launches instances from an AMI built manually months earlier with inconsistent patch levels.), the better principle is: Infrastructure images should be rebuilt and validated through a repeatable automated process. The deciding distinction is: Infrastructure images should be rebuilt and validated through a repeatable automated process.

D:

Kubernetes update strategy must preserve ready capacity and respect disruption limits. This instead addresses a different case: An EKS rolling deployment scales down all API pods at once, causing requests to fail despite multiple nodes. For the stated situation (Production EC2 Auto Scaling launches instances from an AMI built manually months earlier with inconsistent patch levels.), the better principle is: Infrastructure images should be rebuilt and validated through a repeatable automated process. The deciding distinction is: Infrastructure images should be rebuilt and validated through a repeatable automated process.

Question 934

The DevOps team must resolve this scenario: Integration tests frequently overwrite production queues because staging jobs use a copied production endpoint variable. Which engineering change is MOST appropriate?

  1. Run integration tests in a segregated account with constrained resource access.
  2. Add an isolated integration stage with representative database access and verifiable test assertions.
  3. Integrate supported image vulnerability scanning and a risk-based release gate.
  4. Configure a blue/green ECS deployment with validation traffic and automatic rollback conditions.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Run integration tests in a segregated account with constrained resource access. Its validation is: A deliberately misconfigured test cannot send messages to a production SQS queue. The principle is: Automated test environments should be isolated from production resources by identity and configuration.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Add an isolated integration stage with representative database access and verifiable test assertions. This instead addresses a different case: Unit tests pass but a newly deployed Lambda service cannot authenticate to the staging RDS database. For the stated situation (Integration tests frequently overwrite production queues because staging jobs use a copied production endpoint variable.), the better engineering action is: Run integration tests in a segregated account with constrained resource access. The deciding distinction is: Automated test environments should be isolated from production resources by identity and configuration.

C:

Integrate supported image vulnerability scanning and a risk-based release gate. This instead addresses a different case: A container image with a known critical OS vulnerability is built and deployed because only compilation and unit testing are gated. For the stated situation (Integration tests frequently overwrite production queues because staging jobs use a copied production endpoint variable.), the better engineering action is: Run integration tests in a segregated account with constrained resource access. The deciding distinction is: Automated test environments should be isolated from production resources by identity and configuration.

D:

Configure a blue/green ECS deployment with validation traffic and automatic rollback conditions. This instead addresses a different case: An ECS service release must let QA validate a new task set before production traffic shifts, with rollback if alarms breach a threshold. For the stated situation (Integration tests frequently overwrite production queues because staging jobs use a copied production endpoint variable.), the better engineering action is: Run integration tests in a segregated account with constrained resource access. The deciding distinction is: Automated test environments should be isolated from production resources by identity and configuration.

Question 935

After implementing a proposed fix, the team reviews: Two application instances run in distinct AZs but all sessions are stored on one instance and users lose carts during target failures. Which result would BEST confirm that the risk is addressed?

  1. Concurrent writes are reconciled according to documented business semantics.
  2. A planned replica or writer failover routes clients to healthy supported instances.
  3. A forced target loss preserves the intended customer session and cart behavior.
  4. Geographically representative tests meet target latency without violating data rules.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A forced target loss preserves the intended customer session and cart behavior. The approved action is: Move session state to a resilient shared store or adopt a compatible stateless design. The risk principle is: Highly available applications should avoid unreplicated session state tied to an individual node.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Concurrent writes are reconciled according to documented business semantics. This instead addresses a different case: A multi-Region shopping app writes the same item in two Regions and occasionally overwrites updates unexpectedly. For the stated situation (Two application instances run in distinct AZs but all sessions are stored on one instance and users lose carts during target failures.), the better verification is: A forced target loss preserves the intended customer session and cart behavior. The deciding distinction is: Highly available applications should avoid unreplicated session state tied to an individual node.

B:

A planned replica or writer failover routes clients to healthy supported instances. This instead addresses a different case: An Aurora cluster has replicas in different AZs but applications use fixed instance endpoints and never fail over to another reader. For the stated situation (Two application instances run in distinct AZs but all sessions are stored on one instance and users lose carts during target failures.), the better verification is: A forced target loss preserves the intended customer session and cart behavior. The deciding distinction is: Highly available applications should avoid unreplicated session state tied to an individual node.

D:

Geographically representative tests meet target latency without violating data rules. This instead addresses a different case: A regional API has users worldwide and latency spikes for distant users even when application instances have spare capacity. For the stated situation (Two application instances run in distinct AZs but all sessions are stored on one instance and users lose carts during target failures.), the better verification is: A forced target loss preserves the intended customer session and cart behavior. The deciding distinction is: Highly available applications should avoid unreplicated session state tied to an individual node.

Question 936

An AWS platform team investigates this condition: A global static site uses CloudFront but both primary and fallback origins point to the same unavailable S3 bucket. Which DevOps principle BEST explains the core problem?

  1. Managed Multi-AZ database deployment provides synchronous standby and automatic infrastructure failover where supported.
  2. Active-active replicated data needs explicit conflict resolution and application reconciliation semantics.
  3. Origin failover requires genuinely independent origins and supported error conditions.
  4. Recovery needs application consistency and coordinated replay across dependent state.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Origin failover requires genuinely independent origins and supported error conditions. Relevant first evidence: Inspect origin group configuration, bucket dependencies and selected HTTP failure codes. The resulting controlled response is: Configure appropriate CloudFront origin failover using a viable secondary origin.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Managed Multi-AZ database deployment provides synchronous standby and automatic infrastructure failover where supported. This instead addresses a different case: A critical RDS database runs on one instance and must recover automatically from underlying infrastructure failure without manual restoration. For the stated situation (A global static site uses CloudFront but both primary and fallback origins point to the same unavailable S3 bucket.), the better principle is: Origin failover requires genuinely independent origins and supported error conditions. The deciding distinction is: Origin failover requires genuinely independent origins and supported error conditions.

B:

Active-active replicated data needs explicit conflict resolution and application reconciliation semantics. This instead addresses a different case: A multi-Region shopping app writes the same item in two Regions and occasionally overwrites updates unexpectedly. For the stated situation (A global static site uses CloudFront but both primary and fallback origins point to the same unavailable S3 bucket.), the better principle is: Origin failover requires genuinely independent origins and supported error conditions. The deciding distinction is: Origin failover requires genuinely independent origins and supported error conditions.

D:

Recovery needs application consistency and coordinated replay across dependent state. This instead addresses a different case: A multi-service order platform restores database and queue snapshots from mismatched times, creating duplicate settlement records. For the stated situation (A global static site uses CloudFront but both primary and fallback origins point to the same unavailable S3 bucket.), the better principle is: Origin failover requires genuinely independent origins and supported error conditions. The deciding distinction is: Origin failover requires genuinely independent origins and supported error conditions.

Question 937

Before changing production, engineers find: A deployment service assumes a role in a third-party account, but the trust policy permits any AWS principal in the partner account. Which investigation should the engineer perform FIRST?

  1. Inspect inherited SCPs, IAM identity policy and the denied API condition.
  2. Inspect CloudTrail delivery status, bucket policy, KMS encryption context and condition keys.
  3. Review trust policy principal, external ID use, STS records and least-privilege permissions.
  4. Review principal type, authentication context and sensitive IAM policy conditions.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Review trust policy principal, external ID use, STS records and least-privilege permissions. The governing principle is: Cross-account trust should restrict principal, role and relevant external context. The next controlled engineering decision is: Constrain trusted partner principals and apply a suitable external ID where warranted.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect inherited SCPs, IAM identity policy and the denied API condition. This instead addresses a different case: A developer's administrator IAM policy still fails to launch an unapproved service because an OU SCP contains an explicit deny. For the stated situation (A deployment service assumes a role in a third-party account, but the trust policy permits any AWS principal in the partner account.), the better investigation is: Review trust policy principal, external ID use, STS records and least-privilege permissions. The deciding distinction is: Cross-account trust should restrict principal, role and relevant external context.

B:

Inspect CloudTrail delivery status, bucket policy, KMS encryption context and condition keys. This instead addresses a different case: A central S3 audit bucket receives CloudTrail from most accounts but one member account fails because a KMS policy condition excludes its trail. For the stated situation (A deployment service assumes a role in a third-party account, but the trust policy permits any AWS principal in the partner account.), the better investigation is: Review trust policy principal, external ID use, STS records and least-privilege permissions. The deciding distinction is: Cross-account trust should restrict principal, role and relevant external context.

D:

Review principal type, authentication context and sensitive IAM policy conditions. This instead addresses a different case: Human operators access high-risk account settings without multifactor authentication, even though a company policy mandates it. For the stated situation (A deployment service assumes a role in a third-party account, but the trust policy permits any AWS principal in the partner account.), the better investigation is: Review trust policy principal, external ID use, STS records and least-privilege permissions. The deciding distinction is: Cross-account trust should restrict principal, role and relevant external context.

Question 938

An AWS platform team investigates this condition: Five application teams copy and edit the same network subnet definitions in separate CloudFormation stacks, causing inconsistent security controls. Which DevOps principle BEST explains the core problem?

  1. Parameter naming and permissions must isolate environment configuration.
  2. Organization-scale resource classification benefits from governed consistent tag policies and enforcement.
  3. Reusable infrastructure modules should centralize approved patterns and clear interface parameters.
  4. Infrastructure drift should be detected and reconciled through controlled IaC changes.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Reusable infrastructure modules should centralize approved patterns and clear interface parameters. Relevant first evidence: Review duplicated templates, parameter contracts, dependencies and current deviations. The resulting controlled response is: Adopt versioned shared modules or nested stacks with governed inputs and consumer upgrades.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Parameter naming and permissions must isolate environment configuration. This instead addresses a different case: Multiple environments share unqualified /db/password parameter names and a production application accidentally reads a staging secret. For the stated situation (Five application teams copy and edit the same network subnet definitions in separate CloudFormation stacks, causing inconsistent security controls.), the better principle is: Reusable infrastructure modules should centralize approved patterns and clear interface parameters. The deciding distinction is: Reusable infrastructure modules should centralize approved patterns and clear interface parameters.

B:

Organization-scale resource classification benefits from governed consistent tag policies and enforcement. This instead addresses a different case: Chargeback reports omit resources because each team uses different tag keys and case variants. For the stated situation (Five application teams copy and edit the same network subnet definitions in separate CloudFormation stacks, causing inconsistent security controls.), the better principle is: Reusable infrastructure modules should centralize approved patterns and clear interface parameters. The deciding distinction is: Reusable infrastructure modules should centralize approved patterns and clear interface parameters.

D:

Infrastructure drift should be detected and reconciled through controlled IaC changes. This instead addresses a different case: A CloudFormation-managed security group was changed directly in the console, and the next stack update behaves differently from the approved template. For the stated situation (Five application teams copy and edit the same network subnet definitions in separate CloudFormation stacks, causing inconsistent security controls.), the better principle is: Reusable infrastructure modules should centralize approved patterns and clear interface parameters. The deciding distinction is: Reusable infrastructure modules should centralize approved patterns and clear interface parameters.

Question 939

A DevOps team is reviewing: A seasonal shopping workload triggers fixed CPU threshold alerts every evening although nightly traffic is normal and expected. Which TWO complementary actions should it take? Select TWO answers.

  1. Configure CloudWatch anomaly detection with evaluated bounds and meaningful context.
  2. Use the appropriate metric split and correlated logs to target the failing layer.
  3. Track affected images and update or replace those artifacts through governed pipelines.
  4. Review metric namespace filters, stream role, delivery stream and external endpoint requirements.
  5. Inspect historical CPU seasonality, anomaly band and alert validation cases.

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

Configure CloudWatch anomaly detection with evaluated bounds and meaningful context. This is a required controlled engineering action for the stated situation: A seasonal shopping workload triggers fixed CPU threshold alerts every evening although nightly traffic is normal and expected. The complementary correct action is: Inspect historical CPU seasonality, anomaly band and alert validation cases. Both follow the principle: Dynamic baseline alarms can detect unusual deviations when static thresholds create chronic false positives.

E:

Inspect historical CPU seasonality, anomaly band and alert validation cases. This is a required diagnostic evidence step for the stated situation: A seasonal shopping workload triggers fixed CPU threshold alerts every evening although nightly traffic is normal and expected. The complementary correct action is: Configure CloudWatch anomaly detection with evaluated bounds and meaningful context. Both follow the principle: Dynamic baseline alarms can detect unusual deviations when static thresholds create chronic false positives.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Use the appropriate metric split and correlated logs to target the failing layer. This is suitable for another situation: An application dashboard reports increased HTTP 5xx errors after release, but it does not distinguish target errors from errors generated by the ALB. In this case, engineers instead need the paired investigation (Inspect historical CPU seasonality, anomaly band and alert validation cases.) and design change (Configure CloudWatch anomaly detection with evaluated bounds and meaningful context.). These two steps address: A seasonal shopping workload triggers fixed CPU threshold alerts every evening although nightly traffic is normal and expected.

C:

Track affected images and update or replace those artifacts through governed pipelines. This is suitable for another situation: Amazon Inspector reports a critical package CVE on a small set of container images, but the security board assumes all images are affected. In this case, engineers instead need the paired investigation (Inspect historical CPU seasonality, anomaly band and alert validation cases.) and design change (Configure CloudWatch anomaly detection with evaluated bounds and meaningful context.). These two steps address: A seasonal shopping workload triggers fixed CPU threshold alerts every evening although nightly traffic is normal and expected.

D:

Review metric namespace filters, stream role, delivery stream and external endpoint requirements. This is suitable for another situation: An enterprise needs near-real-time CloudWatch metric delivery to a central external analytics platform but polling every account exceeds API limits. In this case, engineers instead need the paired investigation (Inspect historical CPU seasonality, anomaly band and alert validation cases.) and design change (Configure CloudWatch anomaly detection with evaluated bounds and meaningful context.). These two steps address: A seasonal shopping workload triggers fixed CPU threshold alerts every evening although nightly traffic is normal and expected.

Question 940

After implementing a proposed fix, the team reviews: A mobile API intermittently returns HTTP 429 during marketing peaks, but its Lambda error metric stays nearly zero. Which result would BEST confirm that the risk is addressed?

  1. New pods become ready without repeated restarts and service traffic succeeds.
  2. A representative end-to-end request completes within API and business latency budgets.
  3. A load test distinguishes deliberate 429 protection from unexpected backend failure.
  4. A matching test event invokes the response and an unrelated event does not.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A load test distinguishes deliberate 429 protection from unexpected backend failure. The approved action is: Tune supported throttling quotas or implement client backoff and capacity planning. The risk principle is: Request throttling may occur at API Gateway before integration invocation.

Incorrect Answers

A:

New pods become ready without repeated restarts and service traffic succeeds. This instead addresses a different case: An EKS deployment enters CrashLoopBackOff after a config release, although the cluster nodes and pods have adequate CPU. For the stated situation (A mobile API intermittently returns HTTP 429 during marketing peaks, but its Lambda error metric stays nearly zero.), the better verification is: A load test distinguishes deliberate 429 protection from unexpected backend failure. The deciding distinction is: Request throttling may occur at API Gateway before integration invocation.

B:

A representative end-to-end request completes within API and business latency budgets. This instead addresses a different case: An API Gateway operation returns 504 and the Lambda function times out only after calling a VPC-hosted database. For the stated situation (A mobile API intermittently returns HTTP 429 during marketing peaks, but its Lambda error metric stays nearly zero.), the better verification is: A load test distinguishes deliberate 429 protection from unexpected backend failure. The deciding distinction is: Request throttling may occur at API Gateway before integration invocation.

D:

A matching test event invokes the response and an unrelated event does not. This instead addresses a different case: A security automation rule currently runs for every CloudTrail event, flooding a response Lambda with unrelated calls. For the stated situation (A mobile API intermittently returns HTTP 429 during marketing peaks, but its Lambda error metric stays nearly zero.), the better verification is: A load test distinguishes deliberate 429 protection from unexpected backend failure. The deciding distinction is: Request throttling may occur at API Gateway before integration invocation.

AWS Certified DevOps Engineer - Professional DOP-C02 Practice Tests