cert
cert-1
cert-2

Pass Amazon AWS Certified DevOps Engineer - Professional DOP-C02 Exam in First Attempt Guaranteed!

Get 100% Latest Exam Questions, Accurate & Verified Answers to Pass the Actual Exam!
30 Days Free Updates, Instant Download!

cert-5
cert-6
AWS Certified DevOps Engineer - Professional DOP-C02 Exam - Verified By Experts
AWS Certified DevOps Engineer - Professional DOP-C02 Premium Bundle
$14.99

AWS Certified DevOps Engineer - Professional DOP-C02 Premium Bundle

$74.99
$89.98
  • Premium File 480 Questions & Answers. Last update: Nov 08, 2026
  • Training Course 242 Video Lectures
 
$89.98
$74.99
accept 62 downloads in last 7 days
block-screenshots
Purchase Amazon AWS Certified DevOps Engineer - Professional DOP-C02 Exam Training Products Individually
Amazon AWS Certified DevOps Engineer - Professional DOP-C02 Premium File
Premium File 480 Q&A
$76.99$69.99
Amazon AWS Certified DevOps Engineer - Professional DOP-C02 Video Training Course
Training Course 242 Lectures
$21.99 $19.99
Amazon AWS Certified DevOps Engineer - Professional DOP-C02 Practice Test 93

Question 920

An AWS platform team investigates this condition: A deployment rolls back to a prior ECR image digest that was deleted by an aggressive lifecycle policy the previous night. Which DevOps principle BEST explains the core problem?

  1. Integration testing must exercise dependent services and environment configuration, not just isolated functions.
  2. Shared dependencies should be versioned and referenced deliberately in serverless releases.
  3. Artifact integrity should be verified against immutable signed or hashed release metadata.
  4. Artifact lifecycle rules must retain versions required for rollback and audit.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Artifact lifecycle rules must retain versions required for rollback and audit. Relevant first evidence: Check release history, lifecycle expiration rules, active references and recovery windows. The resulting controlled response is: Define retention exemptions or tag policies that protect deployed and rollback candidate artifacts.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Integration testing must exercise dependent services and environment configuration, not just isolated functions. This instead addresses a different case: Unit tests pass but a newly deployed Lambda service cannot authenticate to the staging RDS database. For the stated situation (A deployment rolls back to a prior ECR image digest that was deleted by an aggressive lifecycle policy the previous night.), the better principle is: Artifact lifecycle rules must retain versions required for rollback and audit. The deciding distinction is: Artifact lifecycle rules must retain versions required for rollback and audit.

B:

Shared dependencies should be versioned and referenced deliberately in serverless releases. This instead addresses a different case: An application repeatedly packages a huge unchanged runtime dependency into every Lambda release, increasing rollout time and inconsistent versions. For the stated situation (A deployment rolls back to a prior ECR image digest that was deleted by an aggressive lifecycle policy the previous night.), the better principle is: Artifact lifecycle rules must retain versions required for rollback and audit. The deciding distinction is: Artifact lifecycle rules must retain versions required for rollback and audit.

C:

Artifact integrity should be verified against immutable signed or hashed release metadata. This instead addresses a different case: A deployment retrieves ZIP bundles from a common S3 prefix where operators can replace a file without updating the approved release record. For the stated situation (A deployment rolls back to a prior ECR image digest that was deleted by an aggressive lifecycle policy the previous night.), the better principle is: Artifact lifecycle rules must retain versions required for rollback and audit. The deciding distinction is: Artifact lifecycle rules must retain versions required for rollback and audit.

Question 921

Before changing production, engineers find: A pipeline uses STS credentials to deploy a stack, but those credentials expire during a long manual approval pause and the deployment later fails. Which investigation should the engineer perform FIRST?

  1. Inspect session duration, approval stage placement and credential acquisition logic.
  2. Inspect secret version stages, rotation workflow and application cache behavior.
  3. Inspect role assignments, session duration, emergency change tickets and CloudTrail attribution.
  4. Inspect ACM status, validation records, domain ownership and ALB listener association.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Inspect session duration, approval stage placement and credential acquisition logic. The governing principle is: Temporary credential lifetime and retrieval must match execution and approval workflow timing. The next controlled engineering decision is: Request fresh short-lived credentials only when the gated deployment action begins.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Inspect secret version stages, rotation workflow and application cache behavior. This instead addresses a different case: Multiple application instances embed a database password that is rotated manually, causing widespread outages after each change. For the stated situation (A pipeline uses STS credentials to deploy a stack, but those credentials expire during a long manual approval pause and the deployment later fails.), the better investigation is: Inspect session duration, approval stage placement and credential acquisition logic. The deciding distinction is: Temporary credential lifetime and retrieval must match execution and approval workflow timing.

C:

Inspect role assignments, session duration, emergency change tickets and CloudTrail attribution. This instead addresses a different case: Production operators use permanently attached administrator policies to fix rare outages instead of using approved on-demand access. For the stated situation (A pipeline uses STS credentials to deploy a stack, but those credentials expire during a long manual approval pause and the deployment later fails.), the better investigation is: Inspect session duration, approval stage placement and credential acquisition logic. The deciding distinction is: Temporary credential lifetime and retrieval must match execution and approval workflow timing.

D:

Inspect ACM status, validation records, domain ownership and ALB listener association. This instead addresses a different case: A production ALB certificate renewal stalls because the required DNS validation CNAME was deleted. For the stated situation (A pipeline uses STS credentials to deploy a stack, but those credentials expire during a long manual approval pause and the deployment later fails.), the better investigation is: Inspect session duration, approval stage placement and credential acquisition logic. The deciding distinction is: Temporary credential lifetime and retrieval must match execution and approval workflow timing.

Question 922

A DevOps team is reviewing: Member accounts send CloudTrail logs to a central S3 bucket but delivery fails after the bucket switches to a new customer managed KMS key. Which TWO complementary actions should it take? Select TWO answers.

  1. Inspect CloudTrail delivery errors, destination bucket policy and KMS key policy.
  2. Inspect instance type support, status-check metrics and automated action requirements.
  3. Set an approved retention period and route long-term audit logs to suitable protected storage if needed.
  4. Correct least-privilege S3 and KMS grants for the organization trail destination.
  5. Configure a supported CloudWatch Logs subscription to the approved analytics pipeline.

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

Inspect CloudTrail delivery errors, destination bucket policy and KMS key policy. This is a required diagnostic evidence step for the stated situation: Member accounts send CloudTrail logs to a central S3 bucket but delivery fails after the bucket switches to a new customer managed KMS key. The complementary correct action is: Correct least-privilege S3 and KMS grants for the organization trail destination. Both follow the principle: Central log delivery requires compatible bucket policies and KMS key permissions for service principals.

D:

Correct least-privilege S3 and KMS grants for the organization trail destination. This is a required controlled engineering action for the stated situation: Member accounts send CloudTrail logs to a central S3 bucket but delivery fails after the bucket switches to a new customer managed KMS key. The complementary correct action is: Inspect CloudTrail delivery errors, destination bucket policy and KMS key policy. Both follow the principle: Central log delivery requires compatible bucket policies and KMS key permissions for service principals.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Inspect instance type support, status-check metrics and automated action requirements. This is suitable for another situation: A critical single EC2 instance occasionally fails hardware health checks, but operators discover the outage only when customers complain. In this case, engineers instead need the paired investigation (Inspect CloudTrail delivery errors, destination bucket policy and KMS key policy.) and design change (Correct least-privilege S3 and KMS grants for the organization trail destination.). These two steps address: Member accounts send CloudTrail logs to a central S3 bucket but delivery fails after the bucket switches to a new customer managed KMS key.

C:

Set an approved retention period and route long-term audit logs to suitable protected storage if needed. This is suitable for another situation: A development application sends verbose logs to CloudWatch Logs indefinitely, creating growing cost and a retention-policy exception. In this case, engineers instead need the paired investigation (Inspect CloudTrail delivery errors, destination bucket policy and KMS key policy.) and design change (Correct least-privilege S3 and KMS grants for the organization trail destination.). These two steps address: Member accounts send CloudTrail logs to a central S3 bucket but delivery fails after the bucket switches to a new customer managed KMS key.

E:

Configure a supported CloudWatch Logs subscription to the approved analytics pipeline. This is suitable for another situation: CloudWatch Logs receives application errors but the incident analytics system never sees them because the log stream is not forwarded. In this case, engineers instead need the paired investigation (Inspect CloudTrail delivery errors, destination bucket policy and KMS key policy.) and design change (Correct least-privilege S3 and KMS grants for the organization trail destination.). These two steps address: Member accounts send CloudTrail logs to a central S3 bucket but delivery fails after the bucket switches to a new customer managed KMS key.

Question 923

Before changing production, engineers find: A containerized service works in staging but production fails because a required secret name was hardcoded to the staging account. Which investigation should the engineer perform FIRST?

  1. Inspect ALB target-group path, task port, security group rules and service events.
  2. Inspect AppSpec hook scripts, CodeDeploy agent logs, file permissions and deployment events.
  3. Inspect ECS task definition secrets, IAM grants and account-specific parameter names.
  4. Review connection scope, repo permissions, webhook events and pipeline triggers.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Inspect ECS task definition secrets, IAM grants and account-specific parameter names. The governing principle is: Application artifact should be immutable while environment configuration is supplied through controlled target-specific references. The next controlled engineering decision is: Parameterize approved configuration references per environment without rebuilding the binary.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect ALB target-group path, task port, security group rules and service events. This instead addresses a different case: An ECS task starts successfully but is continually removed from service because its target group health check targets a nonexistent path. For the stated situation (A containerized service works in staging but production fails because a required secret name was hardcoded to the staging account.), the better investigation is: Inspect ECS task definition secrets, IAM grants and account-specific parameter names. The deciding distinction is: Application artifact should be immutable while environment configuration is supplied through controlled target-specific references.

B:

Inspect AppSpec hook scripts, CodeDeploy agent logs, file permissions and deployment events. This instead addresses a different case: A CodeDeploy in-place EC2 release fails during ApplicationStart, but the team incorrectly treats the issue as an Auto Scaling failure. For the stated situation (A containerized service works in staging but production fails because a required secret name was hardcoded to the staging account.), the better investigation is: Inspect ECS task definition secrets, IAM grants and account-specific parameter names. The deciding distinction is: Application artifact should be immutable while environment configuration is supplied through controlled target-specific references.

D:

Review connection scope, repo permissions, webhook events and pipeline triggers. This instead addresses a different case: A shared CodePipeline connection to an external source provider allows unrelated projects to trigger privileged production pipelines. For the stated situation (A containerized service works in staging but production fails because a required secret name was hardcoded to the staging account.), the better investigation is: Inspect ECS task definition secrets, IAM grants and account-specific parameter names. The deciding distinction is: Application artifact should be immutable while environment configuration is supplied through controlled target-specific references.

Question 924

Before changing production, engineers find: A service passes one-user functional tests yet violates its 99th percentile latency target at peak checkout demand. Which investigation should the engineer perform FIRST?

  1. Inspect CodeDeploy ECS deployment config, target groups, listener routes and alarm settings.
  2. Review staged connection settings, test secrets, IAM role access and failed connection traces.
  3. Compare test populations, geographic routing, canary metrics and business error indicators.
  4. Inspect workload profile, load generator placement, request latencies and scaling metrics.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Inspect workload profile, load generator placement, request latencies and scaling metrics. The governing principle is: Performance acceptance must use representative concurrency and measured service-level thresholds. The next controlled engineering decision is: Run a controlled performance stage with agreed throughput and latency gates.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect CodeDeploy ECS deployment config, target groups, listener routes and alarm settings. This instead addresses a different case: An ECS service release must let QA validate a new task set before production traffic shifts, with rollback if alarms breach a threshold. For the stated situation (A service passes one-user functional tests yet violates its 99th percentile latency target at peak checkout demand.), the better investigation is: Inspect workload profile, load generator placement, request latencies and scaling metrics. The deciding distinction is: Performance acceptance must use representative concurrency and measured service-level thresholds.

B:

Review staged connection settings, test secrets, IAM role access and failed connection traces. This instead addresses a different case: Unit tests pass but a newly deployed Lambda service cannot authenticate to the staging RDS database. For the stated situation (A service passes one-user functional tests yet violates its 99th percentile latency target at peak checkout demand.), the better investigation is: Inspect workload profile, load generator placement, request latencies and scaling metrics. The deciding distinction is: Performance acceptance must use representative concurrency and measured service-level thresholds.

C:

Compare test populations, geographic routing, canary metrics and business error indicators. This instead addresses a different case: A new payment option passes staging but causes failures only for a small set of customer geographies. For the stated situation (A service passes one-user functional tests yet violates its 99th percentile latency target at peak checkout demand.), the better investigation is: Inspect workload profile, load generator placement, request latencies and scaling metrics. The deciding distinction is: Performance acceptance must use representative concurrency and measured service-level thresholds.

Question 925

After implementing a proposed fix, the team reviews: A new payment option passes staging but causes failures only for a small set of customer geographies. Which result would BEST confirm that the risk is addressed?

  1. Unauthorized promotion is blocked and an approved release proceeds with a traceable reviewer.
  2. A test image with a policy-prohibited finding is rejected before production deployment.
  3. The pipeline blocks release when representative p99 latency exceeds the approved objective.
  4. A cohort-specific fault pauses expansion and triggers supported rollback.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

A cohort-specific fault pauses expansion and triggers supported rollback. The approved action is: Deploy to a bounded canary or targeted cohort and expand only after validated signals. The risk principle is: Release testing should include representative cohorts and post-traffic observation before full rollout.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Unauthorized promotion is blocked and an approved release proceeds with a traceable reviewer. This instead addresses a different case: A critical payments service is automatically promoted from a successful staging build directly into production without business acceptance. For the stated situation (A new payment option passes staging but causes failures only for a small set of customer geographies.), the better verification is: A cohort-specific fault pauses expansion and triggers supported rollback. The deciding distinction is: Release testing should include representative cohorts and post-traffic observation before full rollout.

B:

A test image with a policy-prohibited finding is rejected before production deployment. This instead addresses a different case: A container image with a known critical OS vulnerability is built and deployed because only compilation and unit testing are gated. For the stated situation (A new payment option passes staging but causes failures only for a small set of customer geographies.), the better verification is: A cohort-specific fault pauses expansion and triggers supported rollback. The deciding distinction is: Release testing should include representative cohorts and post-traffic observation before full rollout.

C:

The pipeline blocks release when representative p99 latency exceeds the approved objective. This instead addresses a different case: A service passes one-user functional tests yet violates its 99th percentile latency target at peak checkout demand. For the stated situation (A new payment option passes staging but causes failures only for a small set of customer geographies.), the better verification is: A cohort-specific fault pauses expansion and triggers supported rollback. The deciding distinction is: Release testing should include representative cohorts and post-traffic observation before full rollout.

Question 926

The DevOps team must resolve this scenario: A provisioned DynamoDB table experiences frequent throttling without any configured application alarm. Which engineering change is MOST appropriate?

  1. Create relevant throttling alarms and adjust target tracking or key design as evidence dictates.
  2. Configure appropriate missing-data behavior or a dedicated telemetry-heartbeat alarm.
  3. Use CloudWatch composite alarm logic with deliberate suppression or grouping.
  4. Configure a CloudWatch alarm with supported EC2 recovery action where appropriate.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Create relevant throttling alarms and adjust target tracking or key design as evidence dictates. Its validation is: A load replay produces timely alerts and action before sustained request failure. The principle is: Capacity monitoring should alert on consumption, throttling and autoscaling effectiveness.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Configure appropriate missing-data behavior or a dedicated telemetry-heartbeat alarm. This instead addresses a different case: A high-severity payment error alarm stays green when the application stops publishing error metrics during an outage. For the stated situation (A provisioned DynamoDB table experiences frequent throttling without any configured application alarm.), the better engineering action is: Create relevant throttling alarms and adjust target tracking or key design as evidence dictates. The deciding distinction is: Capacity monitoring should alert on consumption, throttling and autoscaling effectiveness.

C:

Use CloudWatch composite alarm logic with deliberate suppression or grouping. This instead addresses a different case: Five related alarms page the same team simultaneously for a single database outage, overwhelming responders. For the stated situation (A provisioned DynamoDB table experiences frequent throttling without any configured application alarm.), the better engineering action is: Create relevant throttling alarms and adjust target tracking or key design as evidence dictates. The deciding distinction is: Capacity monitoring should alert on consumption, throttling and autoscaling effectiveness.

D:

Configure a CloudWatch alarm with supported EC2 recovery action where appropriate. This instead addresses a different case: A critical single EC2 instance occasionally fails hardware health checks, but operators discover the outage only when customers complain. For the stated situation (A provisioned DynamoDB table experiences frequent throttling without any configured application alarm.), the better engineering action is: Create relevant throttling alarms and adjust target tracking or key design as evidence dictates. The deciding distinction is: Capacity monitoring should alert on consumption, throttling and autoscaling effectiveness.

Question 927

A DevOps team is reviewing: Two successive commits trigger deployments against the same production stack, and the earlier execution finishes after the newer release. Which TWO complementary actions should it take? Select TWO answers.

  1. Review pipeline execution mode, target resource conflicts and deployment ordering evidence.
  2. Route dependencies through approved CodeArtifact repositories with controlled upstream access.
  3. Build a versioned immutable artifact once, then promote that artifact through approvals and environments.
  4. Trace pipeline stages, approval authorization, test outputs and required change windows.
  5. Choose a pipeline execution mode or deployment lock appropriate to the shared environment.

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

Review pipeline execution mode, target resource conflicts and deployment ordering evidence. This is a required diagnostic evidence step for the stated situation: Two successive commits trigger deployments against the same production stack, and the earlier execution finishes after the newer release. The complementary correct action is: Choose a pipeline execution mode or deployment lock appropriate to the shared environment. Both follow the principle: Concurrent deployment executions must preserve intended release ordering and state consistency.

E:

Choose a pipeline execution mode or deployment lock appropriate to the shared environment. This is a required controlled engineering action for the stated situation: Two successive commits trigger deployments against the same production stack, and the earlier execution finishes after the newer release. The complementary correct action is: Review pipeline execution mode, target resource conflicts and deployment ordering evidence. Both follow the principle: Concurrent deployment executions must preserve intended release ordering and state consistency.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Route dependencies through approved CodeArtifact repositories with controlled upstream access. This is suitable for another situation: A CodeBuild project downloads packages from unrestricted public registries even though an internal vetted package repository is required. In this case, engineers instead need the paired investigation (Review pipeline execution mode, target resource conflicts and deployment ordering evidence.) and design change (Choose a pipeline execution mode or deployment lock appropriate to the shared environment.). These two steps address: Two successive commits trigger deployments against the same production stack, and the earlier execution finishes after the newer release.

C:

Build a versioned immutable artifact once, then promote that artifact through approvals and environments. This is suitable for another situation: Each environment rebuilds an application from its Git branch, making production binaries differ from staging even when the commit matches. In this case, engineers instead need the paired investigation (Review pipeline execution mode, target resource conflicts and deployment ordering evidence.) and design change (Choose a pipeline execution mode or deployment lock appropriate to the shared environment.). These two steps address: Two successive commits trigger deployments against the same production stack, and the earlier execution finishes after the newer release.

D:

Trace pipeline stages, approval authorization, test outputs and required change windows. This is suitable for another situation: A critical payments service is automatically promoted from a successful staging build directly into production without business acceptance. In this case, engineers instead need the paired investigation (Review pipeline execution mode, target resource conflicts and deployment ordering evidence.) and design change (Choose a pipeline execution mode or deployment lock appropriate to the shared environment.). These two steps address: Two successive commits trigger deployments against the same production stack, and the earlier execution finishes after the newer release.

Question 928

An AWS platform team investigates this condition: A shared CodePipeline connection to an external source provider allows unrelated projects to trigger privileged production pipelines. Which DevOps principle BEST explains the core problem?

  1. Source integrations must authenticate appropriately and isolate authorization by repository and workload.
  2. Build and deployment secrets should be retrieved through controlled secret stores and scoped identities.
  3. Reproducible builds require pinned dependencies and verifiable artifact identities.
  4. Concurrent deployment executions must preserve intended release ordering and state consistency.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Source integrations must authenticate appropriately and isolate authorization by repository and workload. Relevant first evidence: Review connection scope, repo permissions, webhook events and pipeline triggers. The resulting controlled response is: Use restricted provider connection permissions and pipeline-level source authorization controls.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Build and deployment secrets should be retrieved through controlled secret stores and scoped identities. This instead addresses a different case: A build job reads a database password directly from a committed buildspec environment variable. For the stated situation (A shared CodePipeline connection to an external source provider allows unrelated projects to trigger privileged production pipelines.), the better principle is: Source integrations must authenticate appropriately and isolate authorization by repository and workload. The deciding distinction is: Source integrations must authenticate appropriately and isolate authorization by repository and workload.

C:

Reproducible builds require pinned dependencies and verifiable artifact identities. This instead addresses a different case: Two identical source commits produce different Lambda packages because the build downloads the newest transitive dependencies each day. For the stated situation (A shared CodePipeline connection to an external source provider allows unrelated projects to trigger privileged production pipelines.), the better principle is: Source integrations must authenticate appropriately and isolate authorization by repository and workload. The deciding distinction is: Source integrations must authenticate appropriately and isolate authorization by repository and workload.

D:

Concurrent deployment executions must preserve intended release ordering and state consistency. This instead addresses a different case: Two successive commits trigger deployments against the same production stack, and the earlier execution finishes after the newer release. For the stated situation (A shared CodePipeline connection to an external source provider allows unrelated projects to trigger privileged production pipelines.), the better principle is: Source integrations must authenticate appropriately and isolate authorization by repository and workload. The deciding distinction is: Source integrations must authenticate appropriately and isolate authorization by repository and workload.

Question 929

An AWS platform team investigates this condition: A critical payments service is automatically promoted from a successful staging build directly into production without business acceptance. Which DevOps principle BEST explains the core problem?

  1. Application lifecycle hook and agent logs are primary evidence for an EC2 CodeDeploy failure.
  2. Production promotion can require an explicit accountable approval without breaking automation.
  3. Concurrent deployment executions must preserve intended release ordering and state consistency.
  4. Build and deployment secrets should be retrieved through controlled secret stores and scoped identities.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Production promotion can require an explicit accountable approval without breaking automation. Relevant first evidence: Trace pipeline stages, approval authorization, test outputs and required change windows. The resulting controlled response is: Insert a manual approval action between verified staging tests and the production deployment.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Application lifecycle hook and agent logs are primary evidence for an EC2 CodeDeploy failure. This instead addresses a different case: A CodeDeploy in-place EC2 release fails during ApplicationStart, but the team incorrectly treats the issue as an Auto Scaling failure. For the stated situation (A critical payments service is automatically promoted from a successful staging build directly into production without business acceptance.), the better principle is: Production promotion can require an explicit accountable approval without breaking automation. The deciding distinction is: Production promotion can require an explicit accountable approval without breaking automation.

C:

Concurrent deployment executions must preserve intended release ordering and state consistency. This instead addresses a different case: Two successive commits trigger deployments against the same production stack, and the earlier execution finishes after the newer release. For the stated situation (A critical payments service is automatically promoted from a successful staging build directly into production without business acceptance.), the better principle is: Production promotion can require an explicit accountable approval without breaking automation. The deciding distinction is: Production promotion can require an explicit accountable approval without breaking automation.

D:

Build and deployment secrets should be retrieved through controlled secret stores and scoped identities. This instead addresses a different case: A build job reads a database password directly from a committed buildspec environment variable. For the stated situation (A critical payments service is automatically promoted from a successful staging build directly into production without business acceptance.), the better principle is: Production promotion can require an explicit accountable approval without breaking automation. The deciding distinction is: Production promotion can require an explicit accountable approval without breaking automation.

Question 930

A DevOps team is reviewing: An authenticated read-heavy API repeatedly queries a database for identical catalog metadata, exhausting database read capacity. Which TWO complementary actions should it take? Select TWO answers.

  1. Inspect instance warmup, health readiness, scaling events and CPU trends.
  2. Use reserved concurrency or queue buffering and controlled backpressure.
  3. Introduce an appropriate cache or replicated read path with clear invalidation rules.
  4. Map recovery dependencies, state transitions, approvals and rollback criteria.
  5. Inspect hit ratios, query rate, freshness needs and per-user access controls.

Explanation

Correct Answers

C:

Introduce an appropriate cache or replicated read path with clear invalidation rules. This is a required controlled engineering action for the stated situation: An authenticated read-heavy API repeatedly queries a database for identical catalog metadata, exhausting database read capacity. The complementary correct action is: Inspect hit ratios, query rate, freshness needs and per-user access controls. Both follow the principle: Caching or read replicas can reduce repeated reads when consistency requirements permit.

E:

Inspect hit ratios, query rate, freshness needs and per-user access controls. This is a required diagnostic evidence step for the stated situation: An authenticated read-heavy API repeatedly queries a database for identical catalog metadata, exhausting database read capacity. The complementary correct action is: Introduce an appropriate cache or replicated read path with clear invalidation rules. Both follow the principle: Caching or read replicas can reduce repeated reads when consistency requirements permit.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inspect instance warmup, health readiness, scaling events and CPU trends. This is suitable for another situation: An EC2 Auto Scaling policy sees high CPU during boot and launches many extra instances before new nodes can serve traffic. In this case, engineers instead need the paired investigation (Inspect hit ratios, query rate, freshness needs and per-user access controls.) and design change (Introduce an appropriate cache or replicated read path with clear invalidation rules.). These two steps address: An authenticated read-heavy API repeatedly queries a database for identical catalog metadata, exhausting database read capacity.

B:

Use reserved concurrency or queue buffering and controlled backpressure. This is suitable for another situation: A public API invokes Lambda and saturates an external payment service when automatic concurrency grows after a marketing event. In this case, engineers instead need the paired investigation (Inspect hit ratios, query rate, freshness needs and per-user access controls.) and design change (Introduce an appropriate cache or replicated read path with clear invalidation rules.). These two steps address: An authenticated read-heavy API repeatedly queries a database for identical catalog metadata, exhausting database read capacity.

D:

Map recovery dependencies, state transitions, approvals and rollback criteria. This is suitable for another situation: A failover runbook manually changes 14 DNS and compute settings in a fixed order; quarterly drills frequently skip steps. In this case, engineers instead need the paired investigation (Inspect hit ratios, query rate, freshness needs and per-user access controls.) and design change (Introduce an appropriate cache or replicated read path with clear invalidation rules.). These two steps address: An authenticated read-heavy API repeatedly queries a database for identical catalog metadata, exhausting database read capacity.

AWS Certified DevOps Engineer - Professional DOP-C02 Practice Tests