Amazon AWS Certified DevOps Engineer - Professional DOP-C02 Practice Test 51
Question 500
Before changing production, engineers find: An application team repeatedly disables approved EBS encryption defaults and security reviews detect the drift weeks later. Which investigation should the engineer perform FIRST?
- Review agent connectivity, hybrid activation, licensing requirements and node enrollment.
- Inspect AWS Config evaluation, remediation role rights and affected resource types.
- Review discovery filters, resource ownership, dependency graph and deletion permissions.
- Review synthesized CloudFormation, construct defaults, bucket policies and deployed exceptions.
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:Inspect AWS Config evaluation, remediation role rights and affected resource types. The governing principle is: Governed configuration changes should trigger timely, scoped detection and remediation. The next controlled engineering decision is: Configure a suitable AWS Config rule with controlled Systems Manager automation remediation.
Incorrect Answers
A:Review agent connectivity, hybrid activation, licensing requirements and node enrollment. This instead addresses a different case: A datacenter fleet and EC2 instances need the same audited patch procedure, but offline servers are not in Systems Manager inventory. For the stated situation (An application team repeatedly disables approved EBS encryption defaults and security reviews detect the drift weeks later.), the better investigation is: Inspect AWS Config evaluation, remediation role rights and affected resource types. The deciding distinction is: Governed configuration changes should trigger timely, scoped detection and remediation.
C:Review discovery filters, resource ownership, dependency graph and deletion permissions. This instead addresses a different case: A Lambda cleans abandoned development stacks nightly but occasionally deletes shared production KMS keys due to an imprecise tag query. For the stated situation (An application team repeatedly disables approved EBS encryption defaults and security reviews detect the drift weeks later.), the better investigation is: Inspect AWS Config evaluation, remediation role rights and affected resource types. The deciding distinction is: Governed configuration changes should trigger timely, scoped detection and remediation.
D:Review synthesized CloudFormation, construct defaults, bucket policies and deployed exceptions. This instead addresses a different case: A reusable AWS CDK construct creates S3 buckets with public access enabled unless individual teams remember to override the setting. For the stated situation (An application team repeatedly disables approved EBS encryption defaults and security reviews detect the drift weeks later.), the better investigation is: Inspect AWS Config evaluation, remediation role rights and affected resource types. The deciding distinction is: Governed configuration changes should trigger timely, scoped detection and remediation.
Question 501
Before changing production, engineers find: An enterprise manually creates duplicate IAM users in dozens of accounts for employees, creating slow offboarding. Which investigation should the engineer perform FIRST?
- Inspect IAM Identity Center assignments, identity source, permission sets and deprovisioning.
- Review organization structure, delegated administrator, StackSets permission model and target OUs.
- Inspect organizational SCPs, permitted global-service exceptions and deployment destinations.
- Inspect trust principals, session policies, resource permissions and key inventory.
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:Inspect IAM Identity Center assignments, identity source, permission sets and deprovisioning. The governing principle is: Workforce access should be federated and provisioned centrally with time-limited account sessions. The next controlled engineering decision is: Use IAM Identity Center groups and governed permission sets for cross-account staff access.
Incorrect Answers
B:Review organization structure, delegated administrator, StackSets permission model and target OUs. This instead addresses a different case: A central platform team needs to roll out an approved Config rule to newly joined accounts across multiple Regions without manual role creation each time. For the stated situation (An enterprise manually creates duplicate IAM users in dozens of accounts for employees, creating slow offboarding.), the better investigation is: Inspect IAM Identity Center assignments, identity source, permission sets and deprovisioning. The deciding distinction is: Workforce access should be federated and provisioned centrally with time-limited account sessions.
C:Inspect organizational SCPs, permitted global-service exceptions and deployment destinations. This instead addresses a different case: A multinational OU has a data residency rule, but new accounts can deploy regulated S3 resources in arbitrary Regions. For the stated situation (An enterprise manually creates duplicate IAM users in dozens of accounts for employees, creating slow offboarding.), the better investigation is: Inspect IAM Identity Center assignments, identity source, permission sets and deprovisioning. The deciding distinction is: Workforce access should be federated and provisioned centrally with time-limited account sessions.
D:Inspect trust principals, session policies, resource permissions and key inventory. This instead addresses a different case: A central deployment role uses a shared user access key to write objects to member-account buckets. For the stated situation (An enterprise manually creates duplicate IAM users in dozens of accounts for employees, creating slow offboarding.), the better investigation is: Inspect IAM Identity Center assignments, identity source, permission sets and deprovisioning. The deciding distinction is: Workforce access should be federated and provisioned centrally with time-limited account sessions.
Question 502
After implementing a proposed fix, the team reviews: A critical RDS database runs on one instance and must recover automatically from underlying infrastructure failure without manual restoration. Which result would BEST confirm that the risk is addressed?
- A controlled AZ fault leaves approved customer transactions available within the target.
- Benchmarking shows lower database load without exposing stale or cross-user data.
- A new eligible encrypted object appears in the approved destination with expected metadata.
- A controlled failover keeps recovery within the agreed service interruption objective.
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:A controlled failover keeps recovery within the agreed service interruption objective. The approved action is: Choose a supported RDS Multi-AZ configuration with application reconnect logic. The risk principle is: Managed Multi-AZ database deployment provides synchronous standby and automatic infrastructure failover where supported.
Incorrect Answers
A:A controlled AZ fault leaves approved customer transactions available within the target. This instead addresses a different case: A production ALB forwards traffic only to instances in one Availability Zone even though the application requires tolerance of an AZ outage. For the stated situation (A critical RDS database runs on one instance and must recover automatically from underlying infrastructure failure without manual restoration.), the better verification is: A controlled failover keeps recovery within the agreed service interruption objective. The deciding distinction is: Managed Multi-AZ database deployment provides synchronous standby and automatic infrastructure failover where supported.
B:Benchmarking shows lower database load without exposing stale or cross-user data. This instead addresses a different case: An authenticated read-heavy API repeatedly queries a database for identical catalog metadata, exhausting database read capacity. For the stated situation (A critical RDS database runs on one instance and must recover automatically from underlying infrastructure failure without manual restoration.), the better verification is: A controlled failover keeps recovery within the agreed service interruption objective. The deciding distinction is: Managed Multi-AZ database deployment provides synchronous standby and automatic infrastructure failover where supported.
C:A new eligible encrypted object appears in the approved destination with expected metadata. This instead addresses a different case: A document service requires copies in a separate Region, but new objects stay only in the source S3 bucket. For the stated situation (A critical RDS database runs on one instance and must recover automatically from underlying infrastructure failure without manual restoration.), the better verification is: A controlled failover keeps recovery within the agreed service interruption objective. The deciding distinction is: Managed Multi-AZ database deployment provides synchronous standby and automatic infrastructure failover where supported.
Question 503
An AWS platform team investigates this condition: An incident responder needs to investigate unusual role assumptions across accounts over months, but only recent management events are readily accessible. Which DevOps principle BEST explains the core problem?
- Audit evidence should be isolated from operators who perform high-risk changes.
- Long-term security auditing requires suitable retained CloudTrail event collection and query.
- Vulnerability assessment should be continuous and integrated with immutable image updates.
- Privileged access should be time bounded, attributable and justified by operational need.
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:Long-term security auditing requires suitable retained CloudTrail event collection and query. Relevant first evidence: Inspect trail or CloudTrail Lake event data store scope, retention and access. The resulting controlled response is: Enable protected collection and query access covering required identity events.
Incorrect Answers
A:Audit evidence should be isolated from operators who perform high-risk changes. This instead addresses a different case: An administrator can modify production resources and delete the only CloudTrail delivery bucket objects using the same role. For the stated situation (An incident responder needs to investigate unusual role assumptions across accounts over months, but only recent management events are readily accessible.), the better principle is: Long-term security auditing requires suitable retained CloudTrail event collection and query. The deciding distinction is: Long-term security auditing requires suitable retained CloudTrail event collection and query.
C:Vulnerability assessment should be continuous and integrated with immutable image updates. This instead addresses a different case: A new AMI enters production with an outdated system package, but the organization runs vulnerability assessments only once annually. For the stated situation (An incident responder needs to investigate unusual role assumptions across accounts over months, but only recent management events are readily accessible.), the better principle is: Long-term security auditing requires suitable retained CloudTrail event collection and query. The deciding distinction is: Long-term security auditing requires suitable retained CloudTrail event collection and query.
D:Privileged access should be time bounded, attributable and justified by operational need. This instead addresses a different case: Production operators use permanently attached administrator policies to fix rare outages instead of using approved on-demand access. For the stated situation (An incident responder needs to investigate unusual role assumptions across accounts over months, but only recent management events are readily accessible.), the better principle is: Long-term security auditing requires suitable retained CloudTrail event collection and query. The deciding distinction is: Long-term security auditing requires suitable retained CloudTrail event collection and query.
Question 504
An engineering review identifies: An ECS fleet includes both x86_64 and Arm64 capacity, but a pipeline publishes only an x86 image under a generic tag. Which shortcut is MOST unsafe for this exact condition?
- Base64-encode the password in the repository and call it encrypted.
- Patch only a single running instance and assume all future Auto Scaling launches inherit it.
- Use a mutable latest tag as the only saved release identifier.
- Assume a tag without architecture text can run on every CPU family.
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:Assume a tag without architecture text can run on every CPU family. The case is: An ECS fleet includes both x86_64 and Arm64 capacity, but a pipeline publishes only an x86 image under a generic tag. A safer engineering response is: Publish verified architecture-specific images or a multi-architecture manifest as appropriate. The deciding principle is: Build artifacts must match the target compute architecture and runtime requirements.
Incorrect Answers
A:Base64-encode the password in the repository and call it encrypted. This instead addresses a different case: A build job reads a database password directly from a committed buildspec environment variable. For the stated situation (An ECS fleet includes both x86_64 and Arm64 capacity, but a pipeline publishes only an x86 image under a generic tag.), the better unsafe assumption to reject is: Assume a tag without architecture text can run on every CPU family. The deciding distinction is: Build artifacts must match the target compute architecture and runtime requirements.
B:Patch only a single running instance and assume all future Auto Scaling launches inherit it. This instead addresses a different case: Production EC2 Auto Scaling launches instances from an AMI built manually months earlier with inconsistent patch levels. For the stated situation (An ECS fleet includes both x86_64 and Arm64 capacity, but a pipeline publishes only an x86 image under a generic tag.), the better unsafe assumption to reject is: Assume a tag without architecture text can run on every CPU family. The deciding distinction is: Build artifacts must match the target compute architecture and runtime requirements.
C:Use a mutable latest tag as the only saved release identifier. This instead addresses a different case: A container image tag is overwritten weekly, so audit teams cannot reproduce the exact build used for an earlier release. For the stated situation (An ECS fleet includes both x86_64 and Arm64 capacity, but a pipeline publishes only an x86 image under a generic tag.), the better unsafe assumption to reject is: Assume a tag without architecture text can run on every CPU family. The deciding distinction is: Build artifacts must match the target compute architecture and runtime requirements.
Question 505
After implementing a proposed fix, the team reviews: A high-severity payment error alarm stays green when the application stops publishing error metrics during an outage. Which result would BEST confirm that the risk is addressed?
- A stopped publisher produces a timely actionable signal rather than false healthy status.
- Only vulnerable image digests are flagged and retested after remediation.
- Capacity is ready before known peaks while unwanted excess capacity is limited.
- A deliberate application 500 is distinguishable from an ALB-origin 503 in monitoring.
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:A stopped publisher produces a timely actionable signal rather than false healthy status. The approved action is: Configure appropriate missing-data behavior or a dedicated telemetry-heartbeat alarm. The risk principle is: Missing metric data needs treatment consistent with the failure mode and alarm semantics.
Incorrect Answers
B:Only vulnerable image digests are flagged and retested after remediation. This instead addresses a different case: Amazon Inspector reports a critical package CVE on a small set of container images, but the security board assumes all images are affected. For the stated situation (A high-severity payment error alarm stays green when the application stops publishing error metrics during an outage.), the better verification is: A stopped publisher produces a timely actionable signal rather than false healthy status. The deciding distinction is: Missing metric data needs treatment consistent with the failure mode and alarm semantics.
C:Capacity is ready before known peaks while unwanted excess capacity is limited. This instead addresses a different case: A predictable daily traffic peak starts before the reactive Auto Scaling policy can launch sufficient EC2 instances. For the stated situation (A high-severity payment error alarm stays green when the application stops publishing error metrics during an outage.), the better verification is: A stopped publisher produces a timely actionable signal rather than false healthy status. The deciding distinction is: Missing metric data needs treatment consistent with the failure mode and alarm semantics.
D:A deliberate application 500 is distinguishable from an ALB-origin 503 in monitoring. This instead addresses a different case: An application dashboard reports increased HTTP 5xx errors after release, but it does not distinguish target errors from errors generated by the ALB. For the stated situation (A high-severity payment error alarm stays green when the application stops publishing error metrics during an outage.), the better verification is: A stopped publisher produces a timely actionable signal rather than false healthy status. The deciding distinction is: Missing metric data needs treatment consistent with the failure mode and alarm semantics.
Question 506
An AWS platform team investigates this condition: A finance team requires five minutes of maximum data loss, but its AWS Backup job runs only once daily. Which DevOps principle BEST explains the core problem?
- Recovery copies should be protected against compromised primary account identities.
- Pilot-light recovery must pre-plan network, service quota and scale-up capacity.
- Recovery point objectives must be validated against actual protection frequency and replication behavior.
- Autoscaling depends on valid observable metrics and resource limits as well as policy objects.
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:Recovery point objectives must be validated against actual protection frequency and replication behavior. Relevant first evidence: Review agreed RPO, schedule, database logs and recovered data age. The resulting controlled response is: Choose an appropriate backup/replication design that meets approved loss tolerance.
Incorrect Answers
A:Recovery copies should be protected against compromised primary account identities. This instead addresses a different case: Ransomware could delete backups because production administrators have the same permissions on the only backup vault. For the stated situation (A finance team requires five minutes of maximum data loss, but its AWS Backup job runs only once daily.), the better principle is: Recovery point objectives must be validated against actual protection frequency and replication behavior. The deciding distinction is: Recovery point objectives must be validated against actual protection frequency and replication behavior.
B:Pilot-light recovery must pre-plan network, service quota and scale-up capacity. This instead addresses a different case: A pilot-light disaster recovery setup replicates data but recovery scripts try to restore full production capacity into an undersized subnet with insufficient IPs. For the stated situation (A finance team requires five minutes of maximum data loss, but its AWS Backup job runs only once daily.), the better principle is: Recovery point objectives must be validated against actual protection frequency and replication behavior. The deciding distinction is: Recovery point objectives must be validated against actual protection frequency and replication behavior.
D:Autoscaling depends on valid observable metrics and resource limits as well as policy objects. This instead addresses a different case: A Kubernetes horizontal pod autoscaler is configured but never scales pods because its custom metric adapter is missing. For the stated situation (A finance team requires five minutes of maximum data loss, but its AWS Backup job runs only once daily.), the better principle is: Recovery point objectives must be validated against actual protection frequency and replication behavior. The deciding distinction is: Recovery point objectives must be validated against actual protection frequency and replication behavior.
Question 507
Before changing production, engineers find: Developers merge feature branches into main before CodeBuild checks run, allowing a failing package into the release source. Which investigation should the engineer perform FIRST?
- Review repository protection rules, pull-request triggers and build pass requirements.
- Review migration scripts, backward compatibility, write patterns and rollback requirements.
- Review signing keys, image digests, publication roles and deployment verification policy.
- Inspect account IDs, test endpoints, IAM permissions and environment variable provenance.
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:Review repository protection rules, pull-request triggers and build pass requirements. The governing principle is: Continuous integration should gate protected branches on automated test results before merge. The next controlled engineering decision is: Trigger CodeBuild tests on pull requests and make their status mandatory for merge.
Incorrect Answers
B:Review migration scripts, backward compatibility, write patterns and rollback requirements. This instead addresses a different case: A new release adds a non-null column while old application instances still write rows during a blue/green deployment. For the stated situation (Developers merge feature branches into main before CodeBuild checks run, allowing a failing package into the release source.), the better investigation is: Review repository protection rules, pull-request triggers and build pass requirements. The deciding distinction is: Continuous integration should gate protected branches on automated test results before merge.
C:Review signing keys, image digests, publication roles and deployment verification policy. This instead addresses a different case: A registry contains internal and third-party images, and the deployment job cannot distinguish approved signed builds from untrusted tags. For the stated situation (Developers merge feature branches into main before CodeBuild checks run, allowing a failing package into the release source.), the better investigation is: Review repository protection rules, pull-request triggers and build pass requirements. The deciding distinction is: Continuous integration should gate protected branches on automated test results before merge.
D:Inspect account IDs, test endpoints, IAM permissions and environment variable provenance. This instead addresses a different case: Integration tests frequently overwrite production queues because staging jobs use a copied production endpoint variable. For the stated situation (Developers merge feature branches into main before CodeBuild checks run, allowing a failing package into the release source.), the better investigation is: Review repository protection rules, pull-request triggers and build pass requirements. The deciding distinction is: Continuous integration should gate protected branches on automated test results before merge.
Question 508
Before changing production, engineers find: An S3 bucket policy accidentally grants an external account broad read access, and no one detects the unintended trust. Which investigation should the engineer perform FIRST?
- Inspect IAM Access Analyzer findings, bucket policies and approved trust relationships.
- Inspect role tags, ECS resource tags, aws:PrincipalTag conditions and tag mutation rights.
- Inspect session duration, approval stage placement and credential acquisition logic.
- Inspect account default EBS encryption, snapshot copy settings and KMS keys.
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:Inspect IAM Access Analyzer findings, bucket policies and approved trust relationships. The governing principle is: Resource-policy access analysis can identify externally accessible resources for review. The next controlled engineering decision is: Enable suitable access analysis and correct unapproved external principals.
Incorrect Answers
B:Inspect role tags, ECS resource tags, aws:PrincipalTag conditions and tag mutation rights. This instead addresses a different case: A shared ECS deployment role can update any workload in the account despite developers owning separate applications. For the stated situation (An S3 bucket policy accidentally grants an external account broad read access, and no one detects the unintended trust.), the better investigation is: Inspect IAM Access Analyzer findings, bucket policies and approved trust relationships. The deciding distinction is: Resource-policy access analysis can identify externally accessible resources for review.
C:Inspect session duration, approval stage placement and credential acquisition logic. This instead addresses a different case: A pipeline uses STS credentials to deploy a stack, but those credentials expire during a long manual approval pause and the deployment later fails. For the stated situation (An S3 bucket policy accidentally grants an external account broad read access, and no one detects the unintended trust.), the better investigation is: Inspect IAM Access Analyzer findings, bucket policies and approved trust relationships. The deciding distinction is: Resource-policy access analysis can identify externally accessible resources for review.
D:Inspect account default EBS encryption, snapshot copy settings and KMS keys. This instead addresses a different case: A disaster-recovery copy process creates unencrypted EC2 volumes from old snapshots even though the production baseline requires encryption. For the stated situation (An S3 bucket policy accidentally grants an external account broad read access, and no one detects the unintended trust.), the better investigation is: Inspect IAM Access Analyzer findings, bucket policies and approved trust relationships. The deciding distinction is: Resource-policy access analysis can identify externally accessible resources for review.
Question 509
A DevOps team is reviewing: An ECS service release must let QA validate a new task set before production traffic shifts, with rollback if alarms breach a threshold. Which TWO complementary actions should it take? Select TWO answers.
- Inspect ALB target-group path, task port, security group rules and service events.
- Configure a blue/green ECS deployment with validation traffic and automatic rollback conditions.
- Coordinate expand-and-contract schema changes with the blue/green traffic strategy.
- Compare staging and production package hashes, dependency resolution and pipeline stage contracts.
- Inspect CodeDeploy ECS deployment config, target groups, listener routes and alarm settings.
Explanation
Correct Answers
B:Configure a blue/green ECS deployment with validation traffic and automatic rollback conditions. This is a required controlled engineering action for the stated situation: An ECS service release must let QA validate a new task set before production traffic shifts, with rollback if alarms breach a threshold. The complementary correct action is: Inspect CodeDeploy ECS deployment config, target groups, listener routes and alarm settings. Both follow the principle: Blue/green ECS deployments require controlled target groups, listeners and health validation.
E:Inspect CodeDeploy ECS deployment config, target groups, listener routes and alarm settings. This is a required diagnostic evidence step for the stated situation: An ECS service release must let QA validate a new task set before production traffic shifts, with rollback if alarms breach a threshold. The complementary correct action is: Configure a blue/green ECS deployment with validation traffic and automatic rollback conditions. Both follow the principle: Blue/green ECS deployments require controlled target groups, listeners and health validation.
Incorrect Answers
A:Inspect ALB target-group path, task port, security group rules and service events. This is suitable for another situation: An ECS task starts successfully but is continually removed from service because its target group health check targets a nonexistent path. In this case, engineers instead need the paired investigation (Inspect CodeDeploy ECS deployment config, target groups, listener routes and alarm settings.) and design change (Configure a blue/green ECS deployment with validation traffic and automatic rollback conditions.). These two steps address: An ECS service release must let QA validate a new task set before production traffic shifts, with rollback if alarms breach a threshold.
C:Coordinate expand-and-contract schema changes with the blue/green traffic strategy. This is suitable for another situation: An application switches its ALB target group to a new version while both versions connect to a shared relational schema. In this case, engineers instead need the paired investigation (Inspect CodeDeploy ECS deployment config, target groups, listener routes and alarm settings.) and design change (Configure a blue/green ECS deployment with validation traffic and automatic rollback conditions.). These two steps address: An ECS service release must let QA validate a new task set before production traffic shifts, with rollback if alarms breach a threshold.
D:Compare staging and production package hashes, dependency resolution and pipeline stage contracts. This is suitable for another situation: Each environment rebuilds an application from its Git branch, making production binaries differ from staging even when the commit matches. In this case, engineers instead need the paired investigation (Inspect CodeDeploy ECS deployment config, target groups, listener routes and alarm settings.) and design change (Configure a blue/green ECS deployment with validation traffic and automatic rollback conditions.). These two steps address: An ECS service release must let QA validate a new task set before production traffic shifts, with rollback if alarms breach a threshold.
Question 510
After implementing a proposed fix, the team reviews: A delivery pipeline in a tooling account must deploy CloudFormation into isolated production accounts without storing long-term access keys. Which result would BEST confirm that the risk is addressed?
- A test image with a policy-prohibited finding is rejected before production deployment.
- A controlled execution deploys in the intended account and fails in an unauthorized account.
- A deliberately unhealthy release triggers rollback to the prior verified revision.
- An unrelated change does not deploy billing, while a relevant shared component still triggers required tests.
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:A controlled execution deploys in the intended account and fails in an unauthorized account. The approved action is: Configure a target-account deployment role trusted by the tooling role, with minimum required actions. The risk principle is: Cross-account delivery should assume narrowly scoped roles in each target account.
Incorrect Answers
A:A test image with a policy-prohibited finding is rejected before production deployment. This instead addresses a different case: A container image with a known critical OS vulnerability is built and deployed because only compilation and unit testing are gated. For the stated situation (A delivery pipeline in a tooling account must deploy CloudFormation into isolated production accounts without storing long-term access keys.), the better verification is: A controlled execution deploys in the intended account and fails in an unauthorized account. The deciding distinction is: Cross-account delivery should assume narrowly scoped roles in each target account.
C:A deliberately unhealthy release triggers rollback to the prior verified revision. This instead addresses a different case: A production delivery pipeline remains green after a deployment even though health checks fail during post-deploy traffic. For the stated situation (A delivery pipeline in a tooling account must deploy CloudFormation into isolated production accounts without storing long-term access keys.), the better verification is: A controlled execution deploys in the intended account and fails in an unauthorized account. The deciding distinction is: Cross-account delivery should assume narrowly scoped roles in each target account.
D:An unrelated change does not deploy billing, while a relevant shared component still triggers required tests. This instead addresses a different case: A monorepo contains infrastructure, mobile and billing folders, but every README edit launches all three expensive production pipelines. For the stated situation (A delivery pipeline in a tooling account must deploy CloudFormation into isolated production accounts without storing long-term access keys.), the better verification is: A controlled execution deploys in the intended account and fails in an unauthorized account. The deciding distinction is: Cross-account delivery should assume narrowly scoped roles in each target account.